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Battalion's Test > OPM 700 > Flashcards

OPM 700 Flashcards

1
Q

How does Sunrise achieve higher staffing levels for operations?

A

Assuring adequate personnel are dispatched and assembling engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies. (700.01)

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2
Q

What are the tactical objectives for a basic offensive plan of a structure fire? (7)

A

Complete size up, establish command,determine need for victim rescue, provide attack line for aggressive int. attack,complete primary search establish RIT, provide additional support. (700.02)

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3
Q

What are the tactical objectives for a basic defensive plan of a structure fire? (5)

A

Complete size up, establish command, determine stopping point of fire spread, prioritize fire streams (2 1/2 or larger), maintain sufficient resources. (700.02)

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4
Q

When should ALS engines respond outside their primary district as the primary medical provider?

A

If they are the closest medical provider. (700.02)

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5
Q

If not specified how should a transport unit respond to an engines request?

A

Emergency. (700.02)

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6
Q

Who is the first choice when shutting down a unit to assist in transport to the hospital?

A

The EMS captain. (700.02)

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7
Q

Who is notified if a member gets exposed with a contagious disease or toxic substance ?

A

They shall immediately notify their officer. (700.02)

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8
Q

What are 2 tasks that can only be accomplished by an aerial company?

A

Elevated fire streams or laddering a building beyond the capabilities of ground ladders. (700.03)

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9
Q

What are some primary aerial company responsibilities? (7)

A

Victim rescue, ventilation, laddering, forcible entry, elevated water streams, salvage/overhaul, secondary means of egress. (700.03)

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10
Q

What are an aerials initial concerns on fire ground operations?

A

Apparatus positioning to perform aerial functions or staging out of vehicle traffic lanes. (700.03)

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11
Q

As the 1st arriving unit on a non medical scene, a rescue should?

A

Report a size up, prepare to perform engine company functions, advise initial actions (if any), report availability to command. (700.04)

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12
Q

Can a rescue establish command?

A

It is not recommended. (700.04)

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13
Q

What are the primary concerns for a first arriving engine on a haz mat scene?

A

Scene safety and product identification. (701.01)

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14
Q

While en route to a haz mat scene, what should an engine check with dispatch for?

A

Materials involved, size of leak, possibility of immediate life endangerment. (701.01)

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15
Q

When should immediate rescues be attempted on a haz mat scene?

A

Fully aware of risk, full PPE with SCBA, utilize bare minimum of personnel. If the hazards are unknown they should consider waiting. (701.01)

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16
Q

What haz mat incidents can an engine handle with units on scene?

A

Minor category 1. (701.01)

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17
Q

What shall be used to report all haz mat incidents to dispatch?

A

The Uniform Classification System For Categorizing Hazardous Material Incidents. (701.01)

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18
Q

What can be used to identify the material? (5)

A

Witnesses, DOT ERG, type and size of container, lettering or marking, shipping papers. (701.01)

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19
Q

What are the requirements to be a diver?

A

Complete public safety diver and dive rescue 1. (701.02)

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20
Q

What is the minimum staffing for the dive team to be in service.

A

2, preferably stationed with the apparatus. (701.02)

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21
Q

What staffing is recommended to start a dive operation?

A

2 dive personnel and 2 support personnel. (701.02)

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22
Q

Where are the operational guidelines for dive team operations?

A

SFRD special operations manual. (701.02)

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23
Q

What stations have rapid entry dive gear?

A

39, 59, 72, 83 only. (701.02)

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24
Q

What is the rapid entry dive gear made up of?

A

Dive tank, BC with weights and knife, dive mask with regulator, 2nd regulator, dive light, throw bag. (701.02)

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25
Q

What is in the dive throw bag?

A

3 PFDs, dive rope, center punch, secondary cutting device. (701.02)

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26
Q

Who can check out dive gear?

A

Only department divers. (701.02)

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27
Q

What personal gear are divers responsible for?

A

Wet suit, fins gloves, booties, snorkel and mask. (701.02)

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28
Q

What is the first arriving officer at a dive scene responsible for?

A

Scene management, last seen point, witness interview, scene safety. (701.02-2)

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29
Q

How can the remaining crew prepare a site for dive entry?

A

Place a roof ladder into the water. (701.02-2)

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30
Q

What is the bottom time for a rapid entry diver?

A

5 minutes unless the risk/benefit dictates otherwise. (701.02-2)

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31
Q

Who has the final decision on making the dive-no dive call?

A

The diver. (701.02-2)

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32
Q

What is the minimum dive tank pressure?

A

2800 psi. (701.02)

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33
Q

What is the difference in alert and activation of the FEMA team?

A

Alert- Formal notification by FEMA that an event has occurred and activation may be pending. Activation- Formal request by FEMA to mobilize and respond. (701.03)

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34
Q

How long within being activated do FEMA team members have to respond?

A

6 hours. (701.03)

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35
Q

Who has sole discretion for entry into the South Florida USAR task force?

A

The sponsoring jurisdiction, City of Miami FD. (701.03)

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36
Q

Technical rescue operations includes which incidents?

A

Confined space, trench, collapse, and rope rescue. (701.04)

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37
Q

What are the guidelines for engine companies on most trench rescue operations? (6)

A

Provide size-up, establish command, establish safety zone, request additional resources, obtain information pertinent to rescue, assure additional resources are responding. (701.04)

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38
Q

What is a confined space? (3)

A

Those areas not intended for continual human occupancy, have limited means of egress, and have potential for physical chemical or atmospheric engulfment. (701.04)

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39
Q

What is a trench rescue operation?

A

A narrow engulfment made below the surface of the earth. (701.04)

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40
Q

The width of a trench can be no greater than?

A

15 feet. (701.04)

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41
Q

What is a rope rescue operation?

A

Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment to safely gain access to and remove victims. (701.04)

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42
Q

What is the difference between a non-technical and technical rope rescue?

A

40 degrees or rough terrain. (701.04)

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43
Q

What are the 5 phases of a rope rescue?

A

Scene prep and recon, pre-rescue operations, rescue operations, safety considerations, termination. (701.04)

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44
Q

How many people make up the recon team and what should they bring/do?

A

Minimum of 2. The should bring medical gear to begin to administer first aid. (701.04)

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45
Q

What is the decision to wait for TRT based on?

A

Risk/benefit factor. (701.04)

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46
Q

Who decides whether the rope op will be a rescue or recovery?

A

The recon team. (701.04)

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47
Q

In what order of risk should rescue operations be conducted?

A

From low to high. (701.04)

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48
Q

What is the minimum personnel to operate the stokes basket?

A

4 personnel all facing the direction of travel. On unstable terrain a tag line should be attached. (701.04)

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49
Q

What is considered a high-angle operation?

A

Greater than 60 degrees. (701.04)

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50
Q

When shall only the TRT team conduct the evacuation?

A

High angle operations (greater than 60 degrees). (701.04)

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51
Q

What is the minimum safety factor?

A

15:1 and a double rope technique shall be used when possible. (701.04)

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52
Q

What factors shall be considered before using a helicopter for evacuations?

A

Time of day, condition of victim, difficult access to victim, qualifications of pilot and rescuers. (701.04)

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53
Q

Once the victim has been removed what safety step should be taken?

A

Call for a PAR. (701.04)

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54
Q

What are 4 reasons a structural collapse may occur?

A

Natural occurrences, fire or explosion, human factors, engineering errors. (701.04)

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55
Q

What are the 6 phases to a structural collapse call?

A

Scene prep and recon, exploration and search, patient removal, general debris removal, safety considerations, and termination. (701.04)

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56
Q

What should the safety zone be at a collapse call?

A

2 times the building height. (701.04)

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57
Q

What is the only color utilized for entry markings?

A

Orange. (701.04)

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58
Q

In the 2’x2’ box what can be inside and what does it mean?

A

Blank box-structure is accessible/safe and damage is minor. Single slash-structure has significant damage, some areas are safe and some are not. Crossing slash “X”-not safe for search and rescue operations. (701.04)

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59
Q

What does an arrow next to the search box mean?

A

It indicates the direction of the safe entrance. (701.04)

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60
Q

What does HM next to the search box mean?

A

There is a hazardous environment or condition inside. (701.04)

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61
Q

How many paramedics are required per entry team?

A

1 minimum. (701.04)

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62
Q

What are in the 4 quadrants of the search “X”?

A

LQ-identifying the rescues, top Q-time and date search completed, RQ-personal hazards, bottom Q-# of victims (L=, D=). (701.04)

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63
Q

What % of people rescued from collapsed structures are very lightly buried?

A

50% of victims. (701.04)

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64
Q

How often should a safety analysis be performed on TRT calls?

A

At least every 30 minutes. (701.04)

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65
Q

What defines a high rise?

A

A structure where the attack lines can not reach the fire via normal pre-connected lines or via hoisting up external balconies. Also to include all buildings with standpipes and internal hallways over 2 stories. (701.05)

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66
Q

In high rise situations what is the most urgent and second most urgent need?

A

Getting an officer and crew up to the fire scene. 2nd establishing command. (701.05)

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67
Q

What may be the most prudent command option on high rises?

A

The passing of command to the 2nd arriving officer. (701.05)

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68
Q

What must shift commanders do upon arrival of a high rise?

A

The must take command because of the complexity of the incident. (701.05)

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69
Q

How big shall the hazard zone be on a high rise?

A

200 ft. (701.05)

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70
Q

How far away must all personnel stay from hose lines supplying a building siamese?

A

50 ft. (701.05)

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71
Q

Where shall a chief officer be assigned as quickly as possible and what shall he be called?

A

The firefighting level of a confirmed fire in full bunker gear including SCBA. He shall be called Division XX. (701.05)

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72
Q

Where does RIT stage on a high rise?

A

The floor below the fire. (701.05)

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73
Q

Who shall establish lobby control and with what?

A

The driver of the first arriving engine in full bunker gear including SCBA, radio, and Knox Box key. (701.05)

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74
Q

Where must all personnel report before going to their assignment?

A

Lobby control. (701.05)

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75
Q

What are lobby controls responsibilities?

A

Obtain all keys, maintain elevator control, identify annunciator panel, prepare to shut off alarm once directed by command, take control of bldg emergency phone system, take PAR tags of ff entering bldg, establish liaison with maintenance. (701.05)

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76
Q

How shall the SCBA be worn when entering an elevator?

A

Turned on and prepared to be immediately donned. (701.05)

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77
Q

What floor shall the elevator be taken to?

A

2 floors below the incident. (701.05)

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78
Q

What must be brought in the elevator?

A

Full bunker gear, forcible entry equipment, and a radio. (701.05)

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79
Q

Who should report to the fire floor for initial attack?

A

At least 2 companies. (An engine and rescue). (701.05)

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80
Q

What is the minimum fire flow to an attack line in a high rise?

A

150 gpm. (701.05)

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81
Q

Where shall ff hook up to the standpipe?

A

The floor below. (701.05)

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82
Q

In a high rise, fire attack shall never begin until?

A

A sustained water supply has been established. (701.05)

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83
Q

When the fire has gained significant headway, what hose lines should be used?

A

2.5” attack lines. (701.05)

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84
Q

When shall drivers use LDH to supply a stand pipe?

A

Never. (701.05)

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85
Q

Drivers conducting pump evolutions within __ ft of a bldg shall wear __?

A

100 ft, helmet and bunker coat. (701.05)

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86
Q

Stair wells shall be pressurized with what and when?

A

Positive pressure ventilation at the base, early on. (701.05)

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87
Q

How would the stairwell support group operate?

A

When necessary to shuttle equipment, they should stage on every other floor and if conditions allow remove bunker gear. They should not have to travel more than 2 flights each. (701.05)

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88
Q

When shall a base staging area be established, where, radio designation?

A

During extended ff operations above the 3rd floor. 2 floors below the fire floor. The Base. (701.05)

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89
Q

What shall take place at the base?

A

Stage air bottles and equipment, rehab, medical, and patient triage. (701.05)

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90
Q

What shall RIT do while staging on the floor below?

A

Make themselves familiar with the floor plan. (701.05)

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91
Q

Unless otherwise directed by command, who shall assume RIT on a high rise?

A

The 3rd arriving engine company. (701.05)

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92
Q

What equipment should the 1st arriving engine and rescue bring to a high rise?

A

Officer-hand light, elevator keys, utility line.D/O-establish lobby control with Knox Box FF eng-high rise kit FF res-extend-a-bag, hand light FF res-rabbit tool and irons (701.05)

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93
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving engine/rescue of a high rise?

A

Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for fire attack. (701.05)

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94
Q

What should the first arriving ladder company bring to a high rise?

A

Officer-hand light, elevator keys, irons Driver- pike pole, utility line FF-rabbit tool, 2 spare SCBA bottles (701.05)

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95
Q

What is the mission of the second arriving engine/rescue on a high rise?

A

Report to the floor below the fire and prepare to support the attack crew. (701.05)

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96
Q

What should the 2nd arriving engine/rescue bring to a high rise fire?

A

Officer-hand light, elevator keys, spare SCBA bottle D/O-drop off crew, proceed to support standpipes FF eng-high rise kit FF res-extend-a-bag, hand light FF res-2 spare SCBA bottles (701.05)

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97
Q

What is the mission of the 3rd arriving engine on a high rise fire?

A

Report to command to obtain TIC, prepare to serve as RIT on floor below the fire. (701.05)

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98
Q

What should the 3rd arriving engine bring to a high rise fire?

A

Officer-TIC, search rope, hand light, elevator keysD/O-spare SCBA pack, spare SCBA bottleFF-irons and spare SCBA bottle (701.05)

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99
Q

In regards to terrorism, what does NBC stand for?

A

Nuclear, biological, chemical. (701.06)

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100
Q

What is contained in the WMD PPE kits on the units, and how many?

A

Each set contains 1 Scott cartridge adapter, 1 NBC air purifying cartridge, 1 pair of silver shield gloves, and a hooded Sairnex splash resistant coverall. Each rescue contains 2 and each engine contains 3. (701.06)

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101
Q

What equipment must be used with the WMD PPE kits?

A

Your personal Scott mask and FF boots. (701.06)

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102
Q

What level protection is the WMD PPE kits?

A

Level C. (701.06)

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103
Q

How would you make the WMD PPE kit level B?

A

Use of an SCBA. (701.06)

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104
Q

In the WMD PPE kit, what zone can you operate in and what are you protected against?

A

The warm zone and residual contamination. (701.06)

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105
Q

What is the duration of the NBC cartridge?

A

It is effective for several days and can be expected to provide a minimum of 6-8 hours protection against secondary chemical exposure. (701.06)

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106
Q

What unit is the platform?

A

387 unit. (701.07)

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107
Q

No one shall operate the platform vehicle unless they have been trained in?

A

Advanced platform operations. (701.07)

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108
Q

Can FF operate anything on the platform?

A

The can operate the basket controls when supervised by a trained operator at the pedestal. (701.07)

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109
Q

Who can operate the turntable controls on the platform?

A

Only trained D/Os and captains. (701.07)

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110
Q

What shall be done when personnel are climbing or transferring in/out of the bucket?

A

The emergency stop shall be activated. (701.07)

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111
Q

At what angle can personnel return to the base not facing the rungs (facing down)?

A

Never. (701.07)

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112
Q

How close can the platform operate to power lines that have not been verified deactivated by FPL?

A

Not closer than 25 ft. In exigent circumstances it can go within 25 but never closer than 10, and it must then have a dedicated safety officer. (701.07)

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113
Q

The platform must not be operated within ___ ft of a structure without a operator/spotter in the basket?

A

4 ft. (701.07)

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114
Q

When is the only time forcible entry should occur?

A

When exigent circumstances exist. An emergency situation requiring swift action to prevent imminent danger to life or serious damage to property. (701.08)

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115
Q

What should be done if forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found on a medical call?

A

PD should be contacted for assessment and a report. (701.08)

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116
Q

What should be done if forcible entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present on a fire call?

A

Dispatch shall be notified. (701.08)

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117
Q

When responding to fire alarms, what will fire rescue units be dispatched based on?

A

Type of alarm and occupancy of structure. (702.01)

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118
Q

For a multi unit response to a fire alarm when no other information is present, how shall units respond?

A

Only the first due fire unit will respond code 3. All other units will respond under a code 1 condition. (702.01)

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119
Q

For a single family dwelling, what shall the 1st in unit and all additional units do?

A

The 1st in unit shall provide a size up and establish command. All other units will institute level 1 staging. (702.01)

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120
Q

How are all alarms to be treated?

A

As possible structure fires. (702.01)

121
Q

On a multi family dwelling, what shall the first in unit and all additional units do?

A

1st in unit shall provide a size up and establish command. The 2nd arriving engine shall locate the nearest hydrant and check it, report to command and enter level 1 staging but be prepared to establish the water supply. Additional units shall enter level 1 staging and await orders. (702.01)

122
Q

On a patient care facility or target hazard, what shall the 1st in unit and additional units do?

A

1st in unit shall provide a size up and establish command. 2nd arriving unit shall locate a hydrant for standpipe/sprinkler operations, check the hydrant and the FDC and report to command and enter level 1 staging. Additional units will enter level 1 staging and await orders. (702.01)

123
Q

Does the fire dept. reset fire alarms?

A

The fire department can assist the property party in reseting the system, however the building is responsible for proper continued function. (702.01)

124
Q

What shall be done about an alarm in trouble mode that has failed to reset?

A

Trouble mode is acceptable. The alarm company should be notified and given reasonable time to make repairs. FLS should be notified before the end of the shift. (702.01)

125
Q

Is a fire watch required for an unoccupied office type building during weekends for example? What shall be done?

A

No, every effort shall be made to contact the owner. The IC shall then place a note on the main entrance and advise FLS. (702.01)

126
Q

Why is it imperative to supplement private fire protection systems with fire department engine operations?

A

To gain early control of structure fires and reduce property damage. (702.02)

127
Q

Who has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system with additional water flow?

A

The second arriving engine. (702.02)

128
Q

How should connections to FDCs be made and why?

A

With dual 2 1/2s. Due to the increased pressures often required in standpipe/sprinkler operations. (702.02)

129
Q

How should hydrant to engine connections be made?

A

With LDH. (702.02)

130
Q

What shall be done when the first arriving units find a fully involved structure and a primary search would not be practical until fire extinguishment is well underway?

A

Command shall advise dispatch the primary search will be delayed. (702.04)

131
Q

In addition to the attack lines, what tools should be part of the initial entry crew?

A

Forcible entry tools, hand lights, and a rope. (702.04)

132
Q

Which fires shall require a secondary means of egress?

A

Fires involving multi story structures. (702.04)

133
Q

When is a secondary means of egress on a multi story building not required?

A

A building equipped with its own alternate means. (fire escape or multiple stair wells) (702.04)

134
Q

When shall an aerial device be used to provide a secondary means of egress?

A

On all structures where ground ladders are unable to reach due to height or other obstacles. (702.04)

135
Q

What are considered secondary actions of a basic fire attack? (5)

A

Utilities, water supply, ventilation, secondary search, salvage and overhaul. (702.04)

136
Q

Who developed the framework for our controlled substance policy?

A

Ft Lauderdale Fire Rescue. (702.05)

137
Q

Who maintains the records of the controlled substances?

A

The administrative deputy chief. (702.05)

138
Q

What is the percentage mixture of Nitrous Oxide?

A

50% mixture. (702.05)

139
Q

How long must controlled substance records be maintained for?

A

2 years. (702.05)

140
Q

Who shall maintain inventory records of all controlled substances?

A

The support services division. (702.05)

141
Q

Which controlled substances are Schedule 3 and 4?

A

Versed, and NO. (702.05)

142
Q

What are the only places that controlled substances can be stored?

A

PSC, ALS units, and medical supply kits. (702.05)

143
Q

Where can controlled substances be stored at PSC?

A

In a locked safe in a locked area. (702.05)

144
Q

Where shall controlled substances be kept in ALS units?

A

In the controlled substance box or container in the on-board medical cabinet secured by a lock. (702.05)

145
Q

What shall be done with controlled substances that have become damaged, or expired?

A

The vial will be placed in a clear bio hazard bag with the seal and returned to the EMS shift supervisor. (702.05)

146
Q

Nitrous oxide seals shall be ____ than other controlled substance seals?

A

A different color. (702.05)

147
Q

Who are the only people who should have access to the written controlled substance logs?

A

Captains and rescue lieutenants. This can not be delegated to an EMT. (702.05)

148
Q

What shall be done if any problems are found with the controlled substance log?

A

Notification shall be immediately made to the EMS shift supervisor through the chain of command. He shall then notify the battalion chief and administrative deputy chief if necessary. (702.05)

149
Q

What is the second paramedic responsible for in regards to controlled substances?

A

Witnessing all transactions. (702.05)

150
Q

The drug inventory shall be done every day no later than?

A

0805 under normal circumstances. (702.05)

151
Q

What is the order of personnel for the Sunday review of the controlled substance log?

A

First the rescue LT, then the captain, then the EMS shift supervisor. (702.05)

152
Q

Who are competed controlled substance logs forwarded to?

A

Administrative deputy chief. (702.05)

153
Q

Who and how many people must controlled substance disposals be in the presence of?

A

At least 2 personnel, 1 of which must be the officer in charge of the truck. (702.05)

154
Q

What shall happen if there is a discrepancy with the controlled substance?

A

The on duty BC and EMS shift supervisor shall be notified immediately. The EMS shift supervisor shall respond to the location and the BC and Admin deputy chief shall be notified. (702.05)

155
Q

What shall happen if there is a missing or tampered with controlled substance?

A

The station Capt or rescue LT shall instruct the crew not to touch anything and treat the truck as a potential crime scene. The BC and EMS shift supervisor will be notified and dispatch will be notified to take the truck out of service. All members including off duty crews will remain at the location. The BC and EMS Capt will determine if PD is needed. A report shall be completed and forwarded to the Admin Deputy chief. (702.05)

156
Q

What calls require the response of the BC? and why

A

Mutual aid responses excluding medical rescue calls. To monitor the safety of SFD personnel. The duty chief will then be notified to take over the city.(702.06)

157
Q

What is the EMS shift captains role on all MCIs?

A

Assume command of the medical branch. (702.06)

158
Q

At Sawgrass, what is the response assignment for a confirmed false alarm by mall security?

A

1 engine. (703.01)

159
Q

At Sawgrass, what is the response assignment for a fire alarm or smell of smoke?

A

A 1st alarm assignment. (703.01)

160
Q

At Sawgrass, what is the response assignment for smoke/fire showing?

A

A 1st alarm plus notification of the duty chief. (703.01)

161
Q

At Sawgrass, what is the response assignment for a working fire?

A

A 1st alarm plus 2 alarm fire. (703.01)

162
Q

What are the objectives of a fire at the mall? (3)

A

Minimize life endangerment by evacuating occupants using mall security, locate confine and extinguish the fire, and keep property damage to a minimum. (703.01)

163
Q

At sawgrass mills what is the mission of the 1st arriving engine?

A

Determine the extent of the emergency and initiate actions to mitigate it. (703.01)

164
Q

On a confirmed fire at the mall, what shall the 1st arriving engine do.

A

Advise a size up from the exterior and establish command. Locate apparatus nearest the reported site of the fire. The entire crew shall enter with full PPE. The officer shall transfer command as early as possible and start to mitigate the emergency. (703.01)

165
Q

What shall the 1st arriving engine entry the mall with?

A

The full crew shall enter in full PPE with SCBA, forcible entry tools, and lights, and a high rise kit. (703.01)

166
Q

What shall the 1st arriving rescue do at the mall?

A

Contact the first arriving officer to meet up with them. Bring 100’ 2 1/2”, hand light, and rope. Deliver equipment to engine and perform a primary search of the immediate area of the hazard. (703.01)

167
Q

What shall the 2nd arriving engine do upon arrival at the mall.

A

In the absence of the BC assume command. Otherwise assume the role of RIT. (703.01)

168
Q

What is the mission of the 1st arriving ladder at the mall?

A

Forcible entry and search and rescue. (703.01)

169
Q

Why are typical vertical ventilation techniques not appropriate at the mall and roof entry should be avoided?

A

The mall has a well engineered smoke removal system and the light weight construction of the roof. (703.01)

170
Q

When are personnel to enter the roof of the mall?

A

All personnel are to stay off the roof of the mall at all times. (703.01)

171
Q

How long do effects of pepper spray last?

A

30-45 minutes with diminished effects lasting for hours. (704.01)

172
Q

How long do to effects of mace last?

A

30 minutes -2 hours. (704.01)

173
Q

Medications should be stored in temperatures that range from?

A

55-85 degrees. (704.02)

174
Q

When wil temperatures of mediations be checked?

A

Twice daily at 0800 and 1600. (704.02)

175
Q

What is done with completed medication temperature check sheets?

A

Sent by interoffice mail monthly to the logistics division. (704.02)

176
Q

What will happen if after the 2nd attempt the dispatched unit does not answer?

A

Dispatch will request the next closest appropriate company, attempt phone contact with the station, and notify the shift commander. (705.00)

177
Q

What will happen if a dispatched unit requests a closer unit to respond?

A

The 2nd company will respond without dispute or delay. (705.00)

178
Q

What is the response for an accident on the highway?

A

2 eng, 2 res, BC, EMS. (705.00)

179
Q

What is the response for a commercial structure fire?

A

3 eng, 2 res, 1 lad, BC, EMS. (705.00)

180
Q

What is the response for a dumpster/brush fire?

A

1 eng. (705.00)

181
Q

What is the response for a dive call?

A

1 eng, 1 res, DV92. (705.00)

182
Q

What is the response for a residential structure fire?

A

2 eng, 2 res, 1 lad, BC, EMS. (705.00)

183
Q

What is the response for a vehicle fire?

A

1 eng 1 res. If confirmed fire an additional eng will respond. (705.00)

184
Q

What shall happen if an initial arriving companies size up includes “nothing showing” or similar information?

A

All responding units will reduce their response to code 1. (705.00)

185
Q

What shall happen if an initial arriving companies size up includes “smoke/fire showing” or any information dictating the need for RIT, rehab, or any other component of IMS?

A

All responding units shall upgrade their response. (705.00)

186
Q

Who is not eligible to participate in a special detail?

A

Personnel restricted by the fire chief. Personnel on probation, light duty, medical leave, or administrative suspension. (706.00)

187
Q

What are the detail sign up hours?

A

From 0930-1130 hours. (706.00)

188
Q

If an employee expected to work a detail becomes ill, who must he notify and when?

A

The detail officer, Rescue Lt, or BC via direct person to person contact a minimum of 4 hours prior to the start of the detail. (706.00)

189
Q

Failure to comply with the detail policy can result in what action?

A

1st offense, suspension form details for 6 months. 2nd offense, 1 year. (706.00)

190
Q

When can detail personnel eat at the arena caterer?

A

For panthers home games but never concerts or other events. (706.00)

191
Q

What is the uniform for details?

A

Class B unless otherwise specified. (706.00)

192
Q

What is the minimum staffing for a medical standby?

A

Minimum 2 personnel. (706.01)

193
Q

Who will determine if a fire watch is necessary?

A

The BC will call out an inspector, who will call the fire chief and they will all concur the watch is necessary. (706.02)

194
Q

Shall an incident occur during a fire watch, what shall the FF do?

A

Immediately activate the buildings alarm system and begin evacuation, simultaneously notify dispatch, if necessary offensive fire attack may be started. (706.02)

195
Q

Which fire watch details shall have a supervisor?

A

Ones requiring more than 3 personnel. (706.02)

196
Q

What equipment shall be on hand at the fire watch?

A

A radio and a BLS kit. (706.02)

197
Q

What will the MERC and BERT be staffed with? (Mobile Emergency Response Cart and Bicycle Emergency Response Team)

A

A minimum of 2 personnel. (706.03-4)

198
Q

Established ____ and tasks however are consistent with almost every structure fire?

A

benchmarks. (702.04)

199
Q

On structure fires, all functions are directed towards either ___ or ___?

A

Saving lives or property conservation. (702.04)

200
Q

If the initial arriving company have determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, the 2nd arriving unit (eng, lad, or res) will?

A

Become RIT. (702.04)

201
Q

What tools/equipment shall be part of the initial entry crew? (3)

A

Forcible entry tools, hand light, rope. (702.024)

202
Q

What are considered secondary actions on a structure fire? (6)

A

utilities, water supply, ventilation, secondary search, salvage, overhaul. (702.04)

203
Q

Sunrise fire rescue will make all attempts to release a patients personal belongings to ? (3)

A

The patient, their family, their designee. (702.07)

204
Q

SFD may accept custody of a patients belongings when ? (4)

A

It is in the patients best interest, it is not likely to compromise normal operations concerning the patient or employee safety, all other reasonable efforts to secure the items have been made, the patient is not capable of being responsible for the items and no one else is available. (702.07)

205
Q

When taking custody of items, what should be written on the patient care report?

A

“All property has been transferred to (hospital name) and handed to (name of person) at that facility.” (702.07)

206
Q

The first arriving ladder at the mall should prepare to either? (4)

A

Reposition the apparatus for ladder operations, reposition the apparatus for an elevated observation post, become RIT, provide assistance as directed. (703.01)

207
Q

If the ladder becomes RIT, who shall it be?

A

The captain and driver. (703.01)

208
Q

When the Rescue Lieutenant (EMS39) becomes the IC aid, what are his primary responsibilities?

A

Passport accountability, mall liaison, tactical worksheet monitor. (703.01)

209
Q

In the mall, primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims come ____ to fire control?

A

Second. (703.01)

210
Q

Due to radio interference caused by the malls steel construction, it may be necessary to use ____ to improve radio communications which are not monitored by dispatch?

A

The non-repeated radio channel. (703.01)

211
Q

During fires, FD should contact mall security to (4)

A

Control HVAC 2) use cameras to evaluate interior conditions 3) obtain keys to doors and gates 4) obtain dollies and carts for hose/equipment. (703.01)

212
Q

In the medical clearance and police intervention policy, in all cases the patient ___?

A

Shall be transported by SFD to the closest appropriate facility. (704.01)

213
Q

Medical clearance for PD can only be completed by who__?

A

A FL state licensed physician. (704.01)

214
Q

What is a state in which a person is in a psychotic or extremely agitated state?

A

Excited delirium. (704.01)

215
Q

What are some causes of excited delirium? (5)

A

Overdose, drug withdrawals, psychiatric patients, head trauma, diabetics. (704.01)

216
Q

What will help alleviate the discomforts of a chemical exposure such as pepper spray?

A

Copious amounts of water and flushing of the eyes. (704.01)

217
Q

How do you deal with the probes of an ECD?

A

The probes will be treated as an impaled object and not be removed. The wires may need to be cut. (704.01)

218
Q

Who is responsible for receiving the dispatch assignment?

A

The company officer. (705.00)

219
Q

On multiple company assignments, who will acknowledge the assignment? What will all others do?

A

Only the first due company. Immediately report to the assigned radio channel and prepare for response. (705.00)

220
Q

All companies will respond within ___?

A

Sixty seconds. (705.00)

221
Q

Any companies not reporting enroute within this time will be ___?

A

Roll called. (705.00)

222
Q

Upon the primary companies response, dispatch will ____ in an effort to eliminate any discrepancies.

A

Repeat the address and issue the appropriate zone number. At this time dispatch will also add any further information. (705.00)

223
Q

When companies anticipate their response times may be less than the company dispatched, they shall ___?

A

Advise dispatch. (705.00)

224
Q

Under ___ circumstances will a company officer delay a response?

A

No. (705.00)

225
Q

Who may request a closer company to respond while they are responding?

A

Any company officer. (705.00)

226
Q

Any dispute between companies, with the dispatcher, or failure to respond will be___?

A

Immediately reported to the shift commander. (705.00)

227
Q

Who will have final authority over all dispatch discrepancies?

A

The shift commander. (705.00)

228
Q

Under ____ circumstances shall field personnel contact dispatch directly to lodge complaints.

A

No. (705.00)

229
Q

Companies dispatched to medical emergencies shall make no alteration of the response until __?

A

Patient contact is made to determine the appropriate resource. (705.00)

230
Q

Response for accident?

A

Engine (705.00)

231
Q

Response for Accident with injuries or pedestrian?

A

1 Engine 1 rescue EMS. (705.00)

232
Q

Response for a dead person?

A

1 eng 1 res EMS. (705.00)

233
Q

What is added to any confirmed working fire?

A

Additional engine. (705.00#)

234
Q

Response for haz mat incident?

A

1 eng 1 re 1 lad BC EMS HM92 (705.00)

235
Q

Response for bomb threat?

A

1 eng 1 res. (705.00)

236
Q

Response for fire or medical alarm?

A

1 eng (705.00)

237
Q

Response for biological hazard?

A

1 eng (705.00)

238
Q

Who will request a closer company to relocate?

A

Any company officer. (705.00)

239
Q

At any time an aerial is not able to respond, ___?

A

An additional engine will be aded to the initial response criteria. (705.00)

240
Q

Who shall coordinate on duty and off duty details?

A

The detail officer. (706.00)

241
Q

Details may include (5)?

A

Fire watch, medical standby, fire prevention, public relations/demonstrations, or other special details. (706.00)

242
Q

Special details can consist of ____ functions?

A

Fire and/or EMS. (706.00)

243
Q

If sufficient time allows, greater than ___, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift, starting with?

A

Generally 72 hours. The shift that was on duty. (706.00)

244
Q

If detail personnel have an unexpected conflict arise they must find a ___ and the replacement will be finalized by ___?

A

Equally qualified replacement. Notifying the detail officer and receiving approval. (706.00)

245
Q

It is the responsibility of ___ to be at PSC to ensure all detail personnel arrive on time and are provided proper equipment?

A

Rescue Lt (EMS39). (706.00)

246
Q

When on a detail, personnel are to park the vehicle in such a way that would provide ___?

A

Visibility of the unit. (706.00)

247
Q

When will special detail personnel transport patients?

A

Only in extreme circumstances. (706.00)

248
Q

When shall an EMS standby detail be implemented?

A

When requested by an outside organization or the fire chief. (706.01)

249
Q

A fire watch involving more than 1 inspector will require the approval of the ___?

A

Fire chief. (706.02)

250
Q

The Scott mask and NBC cartridge can not be used in?

A

Oxygen deficient atmospheres or atmospheres containing carbon monoxide. (701.06)

251
Q

The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of ___ and filters out particles greater than ___?

A

Of 99.997% and 0.3 microns. (701.06)

252
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against ___ and ___ chemical compounds?

A

Organic and inorganic. (701.06)

253
Q

These NBC cartridges should be expected to provide a minimum of ____ hours protection against ____ chemical exposures?

A

Minimum 6-8 hours, secondary (residual). (701.06)

254
Q

Which components of the WMD kit or not disposable? Which must be deconed?

A

Mask, adapter, boots. Mask and boots deconed. (701.06)

255
Q

What kind of gloves are recommended for decon?

A

Butyl (701.06)

256
Q

During emergency decon procedures casualties should be separated by? (3)

A

Symptomatic, Asymptomatic, and non-ambulatory. (701.06)

257
Q

Separate decon areas should be set up for ___ and ___, also ___ and ___.

A

Emergency service personnel and civilians, and males and females. (701.06)

258
Q

Mixing 1 part household bleach to 9 parts water yields a ____% bleach solution, appropriate for___?

A

A 0.5%, appropriate for skin. (701.06)

259
Q

What do you decon clothing and equipment with?

A

Full strength household bleach (5%)(701.06)

260
Q

How do you mix dry chlorine granules to get 0.5% and 5% solutions?

A

For 0.5% 1 oz chlorine to 1 gallon water.For 5% 10 oz chlorine to 1 gallon water. (701.06)

261
Q

What should water temp be for decon?

A

Between 60-70(701.06)

262
Q

What are the types of decon? (5)

A

Passive (removal of clothing), dry, wet, cross ventilation (electric fans preferred), combination. (701.06)

263
Q

Who would control 1. water supply, 2. cross ventilation, and 3. security and control at decon?

A

Engine companies, truck companies, PD. (701.06)

264
Q

What is the maximum interval crews can perform decon for?

A

Max 1 hr intervals. (701.06)

265
Q

____ and ____ are critical to the success of the decon operation if lives are to be saved?

A

Speed and thoroughness (whole body decon) (701.06)

266
Q

Upon recognition that a situation is a WMD incident, the IC shall make sure that dispatch notifies ___?

A

The county warning point (954)320-0520 (701.06)

267
Q

What are some secondary functions of aerial companies?

A

Utility control, RIT, engine company operations. (700.03)

268
Q

What is the platform command to reach out with the ladder?

A

Extend ladder. (701.07)

269
Q

What is the platform command to return an outstretched ladder?

A

Retract ladder. (701.07)

270
Q

What is the platform command to increase the angle of elevation?

A

Raise ladder. (701.07)

271
Q

What is the platform command to decrease the angle of elevation?

A

Lower ladder. (701.07)

272
Q

What is the platform command to rotate the ladder to the pedestal operators left?

A

Ladder left. (701.07)

273
Q

What is the platform command to rotate the ladder to the pedestal operators right?

A

Ladder right. (701.07)

274
Q

What is the definition of vehicle extrication?

A

Removing a vehicle from around a person who has become entrapped where normal or conventional means of exit are impossible. (702.08)

275
Q

What is the term freeze? What is a tap on the shoulder?

A

The universal safety term to stop all activity on scene, can be called by anyone on scene witnessing unsafe acts. A tap on the shoulder is a signal for an individual to freeze. (702.08)

276
Q

What is stabilization?

A

The process of evaluating, controlling, and rendering safe for operations. (702.08)

277
Q

What are the 3 phases of stabilization?

A

Scene stabilization, vehicle stabilization, patient stabilization. (702.08)

278
Q

What are action circles?

A

An area extending out from a vehicle where rescuers will determine the best course of action to remove a victim. Generally described as outer and inner. (702.08)

279
Q

Where is the tool staging area located?

A

Outside the action circles. (702.08)

280
Q

What are the 5 steps of extrication size up?

A

1) # and condition of vehicles (minor, moderate, heavy)
2) hazards
3) number of patients or potential patients
4) need for extrication
5) additional resources. (702.08)

281
Q

Who should complete the outer and inner circle?

A

Officer-outer and FF-inner. (702.08)

282
Q

What should be used for fire suppression on extrications?

A

A dry chem at a minimum with a 1 3/4” with foam capabilities preferred. (702.08)

283
Q

How far should a smart key be placed from a vehicle?

A

At least 15 feet. (702.08)

284
Q

What are orange and bright blue cables in cars?

A

High voltage 750 volts of direct current. (702.08)

285
Q

Where are hybrids generally marked?

A

In the rear but there is no standard. (702.08)

286
Q

What is the electrical drain down time for airbags?

A

30 seconds-20 minutes. (702.08)

287
Q

What is the deployment distance for side, steering, and passenger airbags?

A

Side-5”-10”, steering-10”, passenger-20”. (702.08)

288
Q

What can be used to stabilize a vehicle?

A

Step chocks, box cribbing, struts (rescue 42’s), cargo straps. (702.08)

289
Q

What can be used to remove tempered glass?

A

Rescue hammer, glass master, center punch. (702.08)

290
Q

What can be used to remove laminated glass?

A

Glass master or saw. (702.08)

291
Q

Where are Boron and Ultra Strength Steel usually found in cars?

A

Around posts, roof rails, and rocker panels. (702.08)

292
Q

If the Knox Box key can not be secured in the Knox Box where should it be secured?

A

SupraSafe. (702.09)

293
Q

If an employee notices a Knox box key is missing he should?

A

Notify the B/C and complete a missing equipment form. (702.09)

294
Q

Where is the casualty collection point located?

A

Cold zone. (701.10)

295
Q

What is an area cleared by the contact team and therefore declared for entry by the RTF?

A

Warm zone. (701.10)

296
Q

What does THREAT stand for?

A

Threat suppression, Hemorrhage control, Rapid Extrication, Assessment, Transport. (701.10)

297
Q

Ideally who shall have command at an active killer scene.

A

Ideally unified command with law enforcement having authority. (701.10)

298
Q

An RTF ideally will have what personnel?

A

The intent is to provide 4 law enforcement officers with 2 fire rescue personnel. (701.10)

299
Q

Which controlled substances are schedule 1?

A

Fentanyl. (702.05)

Battalion's Test (10 decks)

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