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Battalion's Test > OPM-200 > Flashcards

OPM-200 Flashcards

1
Q

What ICS should a FF have a basic working knowledge of?

A

100, 200, 700, 800. (200.01)

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2
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for a firefighter/paramedic? (2)

A

a) state of florida paramedic.
b)AHA ACLS. (200.02)

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3
Q

After what date must paramedics hired maintain their paramedic status?

A

October 1, 1997. (200.02)

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4
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for a fire inspector (7)?

A

a) FF certificate
b) EMT certificate
c) FL fire inspector certificate
d) Broward county fire inspector certificate
e) high school diploma or GED
f) CPR card
g) Driver license Class D with EVOC (200.03)

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5
Q

What should a D/O do when a conflict arises between the Rules and Regulations and their company officer?

A

They shall advise the officer of the conflict, then abide by the decision of the officer. (200.04)

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6
Q

A captain could be responsible for maintaining a supervisory role in the following areas? (5)

A

Fire suppression, rescue/medical operations, fire prevention, personnel management, emergency management. (200.06)

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7
Q

What NIMS ICS classes must a Capt be familiar with?

A

100, 200, 300, 400, 700, 800. (200.06)

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8
Q

Who does the EMS captain report to?

A

Shift B/C for operational issues and support service B/C for administrative duties. (200.06-1)

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9
Q

Who is the first line liaison for the EMS division when problems arise between department personnel and employees at a medical facility?

A

EMS captain. (200.06-1)

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10
Q

Who does the logistics captain report directly to?

A

Battalion chief of support services. (200.06-4)

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11
Q

Who is responsible for the maintenance and repairs of vehicles, equipment, buildings, supplies and services?

A

Logistics. (200.06-4)

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12
Q

Who is responsible for conducting in-house repairs of FD vehicles and equipment?

A

Logistics captain. (200.06-4)

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13
Q

Who has the primary responsibility to ensure FFs are proficiently trained to perform tasks, meet minimum standards of training, and ensure required certificates are kept current?

A

Training captain. (200.06-6)

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14
Q

Whose duty is it to plan, organize, and direct department training activities?

A

Training Captain. (200.06-6)

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15
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for FF/PM? (7)

A

18 y/o,
no tobacco for previous 1 year
FF
HS diploma
CPR
Class D drivers license with EVOC
If hired after Oct 1, 1997 must maintain Paramedic. (201.01)

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16
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for driver? (5)

A

3 years minus 1 with degree
after Oct 1, 1997 must be paramedic
class E drivers license and EVOC
Fire Apparatus and Procedures
Paramedic 1 rating (201.02)

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17
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for Lieutenant? (5)

A

3 years minus 1 with degree
Paramedic
Class E drivers license with EVOC
Paramedic 1 rating
Fire Officer 1 (201.03)

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18
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for Battalion Chief? (5)

A

10 years of service minus 1 with a degree
Captain for 3 years in permanent status
Paramedic
Fire officer 2
Class E driver’s license with EVOC endorsement

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19
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for captain? (6)

A

6 years minus 1 with AS or BS
1 of 3: Driver for 6 years, Lt for 2 years in permanent status, or inspector for 2 years
Paramedic
Class E drivers license with EVOC
Fire Officer 1
Certified by Board of Rules and Appeals and State of Florida (inspectors only) (201.04)

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20
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for Special Ops team member? (7) After what date?

A

1 year of service and completed probation
160 hour Haz Mat tech course
Certified by state of FL as Haz Mat tech
completed all 5 Operations level FLUSAR courses
complete FLUSAR team member evaluation form by special ops captain
complete Haz Mat tech competency assessment check off
assignment by fire chief.
After Jan 31, 2012. (201.07)

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21
Q

How often must all members of the special ops team complete the Haz Mat tech competency assessment check off and the FLUSAR evaluation form?

A

Once every 2 years. (201.07)

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22
Q

What is the maximum number of special ops members per rank?

A

non-shift as determined by fire chief
battalion chief-4
captain-15
drivers-12
lieutenants-9
FF-9 (201.07)

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23
Q

The employee performance evaluation provides a basis for personnel decisions such as: (5)

A

compensation, promotion, training, retention, and performance related disciplinary action. (202.01)

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24
Q

Any questions on the employee performance evaluation should be directed to the?

A

Administrative officer. (202.01)

25
Q

What are employee benefits of the evaluation system? (5)

A

feedback on performance, understanding performance evaluations, participation in goal setting, identification of training and developmental needs. (202.01)

26
Q

What are the supervisors benefits of the employee evaluation system?

A

Increased managerial effectiveness and documentation of employee performance. (202.01)

27
Q

What are the organizational benefits of the employee evaluation system?

A

Increased organizational effectiveness and basis for determining applicable merit-based pay increases. (202.01)

28
Q

When should an employee performance evaluation form be sent to an officer?

A

Approx 2 weeks prior to its expected completion date. (202.01)

29
Q

What are the four common biases at work during performance management?

A

Haloing, stereotyping, just like me, projection. (202.02)

30
Q

What is haloing?

A

The positive or negative general reactions supervisors have to others. Few people are always good or bad. “mental glare” or “horn effect”(202.02)

31
Q

What is stereotyping?

A

Comes from early values programming and is making judgments about peoples physical, age, sex, race, or other criteria. (202.02)

32
Q

What is the “just like me” bias?

A

Selecting people who are a good match or negatively judging people who may be different. (202.02)

33
Q

What is the projection bias?

A

When an assumption is made about the reasons people behave the way they do. When the reasons come from the observer and not the person being evaluated. (202.02)

34
Q

What is recency?

A

Giving to much weight to recent events. (202.02)

35
Q

What is initial impression?

A

Distorting subsequent information based on initial impression. (202.02)

36
Q

What is leniency?

A

Grading everyone higher than deserved. (202.02)

37
Q

What is contrasting?

A

Evaluating an employee relative to the last person graded. (202.02)

38
Q

What is central tendency?

A

Placing everyone in the middle of the scale. (202.02)

39
Q

What is attribution?

A

Taking credit vs. blaming. Providing an evaluation based on feedback from previous personal encounters with the person being evaluated. (202.02)

40
Q

What are the 5 levels of competency of the evaluation program?

A

unsatisfactory, needs improvement, satisfactory, above average, excellent. (202.03)

41
Q

What is the lowest performance category rating and includes performance that is obviously below what is required?

A

Unsatisfactory. (202.03)

42
Q

What performance category is just below satisfactory, may be near competent performance however leaves something to be desired. ?

A

Needs improvement. (202.03)

43
Q

Which performance category is the trial and error phase, performance meets standards in some areas but not others.?

A

Needs improvement. (202.03)

44
Q

Which performance category should be assigned to employees who have demonstrated consistently competent work?

A

Satisfactory. (202.03)

45
Q

Which performance category includes consistently solid performance that would meet and slightly exceed what is required for the position?

A

Satisfactory. (202.03)

46
Q

What is the level of performance that is noticeably above satisfactory?

A

Above average. (202.03)

47
Q

What are the tools required for the performance evaluation interview? (3)

A

A quiet, private location with no interruptions, relevant work records for discussion, the completed performance appraisal form. (202.05)

48
Q

At the conclusion of the evaluation performance interview the evaluator should have answered these four questions?

A

1) how am I doing
2) where do I go from here
3) what are my major skills and abilities
4) what areas of performance need improvement. (202.05)

49
Q

Which ratings require justification statements?

A

unsatisfactory, needs improvement, and excellent. (202.06)

50
Q

What is the purpose of evaluating SFRD probies during their first year is to ensure they can do their job ___?(4)

A

Properly, safely, efficiently, legally. (202.07)

51
Q

How often should B/Cs assign the proby to a different company officer for evaluation?

A

Every three months. (202.07)

52
Q

According to the OPMs at or very close to which months should the station officer complete the probys formal performance evaluation?

A

4,8,11. (202.07)

53
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing and filing all the proby daily performance reports?

A

Training division. (202.07)

54
Q

When are the proby written and practical exam?

A

6 and 11 month. (202.07)

55
Q

Who are the 4, 8, and 11 month proby evaluations forwarded to?

A

4 and 8 to the training division. 11 to the fire chief. (202.07)

56
Q

If the proby spent a considerable amount of time on the rescue who should sign the proby evaluation?

A

The Lt may complete the report however the station commander must review and sign it. (202.07)

57
Q

What is done with the white, yellow, and pink copies of the proby evaluation?

A

White is sent to training, yellow is sent to shift commander, pink is retained at station level. (202.07)

58
Q

What additional rating factors are added for all supervisors? (3)

A

Utilization of resources, administrative decision making, accomplishing objectives. (202.04)

Battalion's Test (10 decks)

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