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Battalion's Test > OPM 400 > Flashcards

OPM 400 Flashcards

1
Q

When will bio hazardous waste not be disposed of at the receiving emergency department?

A

When they refuse it. (400.01)

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2
Q

What is the maximum fine for not adhering to bio hazardous waste rules?

A

Up to $10,000 per violation. (400.01)

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3
Q

It is mandatory that all FF will wear SCBA or SAR under the following conditions: (3)

A

1) During all phases of active firefighting including structural, aerial, vehicle, dumpster, and overhaul2) emergency situations including but not limited to confined space that may be toxic or oxygen deficient3) while working in spaces where hazardous atmospheres are present. (400.02)

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4
Q

When may the airline respirator of HM92, TRT92 or aerials be used and what must be used with it?

A

Exterior ff, confined space, trench, and certain haz-mat incidents, and must be used with an escape SCBA. (400.02)

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5
Q

Firefighters in an IDLH must remain in what type of contact at all times?

A

Visual or voice. (400.02)

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6
Q

May members of RIT be assigned other roles?

A

1 may, such as IC or safety, as long as long as he is able to perform assistance or rescue activities w/o jeopardizing the safety or health of any other ff. (400.02)

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7
Q

Can radio or electronic communication count as voice contact in an IDLH?

A

No. (400.02)

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8
Q

Which NFPA refers to SCBA?

A

NFPA 1404. (400.02)

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9
Q

When must FF pass a face piece fit test? (6)

A

Initial hire, annually, significant weight change, facial trauma, reconstructive surgery, or major dental work. (400.02)

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10
Q

Where are SCBA that are unfit for use forwarded?

A

Station 59. (400.02)

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11
Q

How often must Scott carbon fiber cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 5 years. (400.02)

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12
Q

How often must fiberglass escape cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 3 years. (400.02)

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13
Q

What is the maximum service life for any cylinder?

A

15 years. (400.02)

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14
Q

What is the minimum air quality for SCBA breathing air according to the Commodity Specification for Air?

A

Grade D. (400.02)

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15
Q

How often must the purity of air from all air compressors be tested?

A

At least annually. (400.02)

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16
Q

How long must a face mask be worn to asses comfort?

A

At least 5 minutes. (400.02-1)

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17
Q

What points are included to asses comfort of a face mask? (4)

A

Position of mask on nose, room for eye protection, room to talk, positioning mask on face and cheeks. (400.02-1)

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18
Q

What shall the pressure in the air pump be set to for fit testing?

A

200 mm/min. (400.02-1)

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19
Q

What is in the smoke tube for fit testing?

A

Stannic oxychloride. (400.02-1)

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20
Q

How far away from the face piece should the smoke tube start for fir testing?

A

At least 12 inches. (400.02-1)

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21
Q

How long shall fit test results be maintained?

A

At least 3 years. (400.02-1)

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22
Q

What shall fit test results contain? (5)

A

Name of subject, test date, test conductor, respirator selected, testing agent. (400.02-1)

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23
Q

When shall FF exit an IDLH?

A

Prior to activation of their low air alarm. (400.02-2)

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24
Q

Who must members immediately notify upon activation of their low air alarm?

A

First their officer then command. (400.02-2)

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25
Q

What must air pressure be prior to initial entry?

A

90% or 4050 psi. (400.02-2)

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26
Q

At what % or heads up display shall the officer notify command?

A

50% or amber light flashing slowly. (400.02-2)

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27
Q

After how long from a 50% notification shall RIT notify command if the unit has not exited the structure?

A

1 minute. (400.02-2)

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28
Q

In what position on a 3 or more man team should the low air ff be?

A

2nd. (400.02-2)

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29
Q

Which day is deemed Air Fill Day?

A

Wednesday. (400.02-3)

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30
Q

Where does each station fill all their bottles every Wednesday, unless____?

A

39, 59, 72 @ 59. 83, 92 @ 92. Unless personnel permits then TRT 92 (376) shall go to each station and fill bottles.(400.02-3)

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31
Q

At what rate should SCBA bottles be filled?

A

300-500 psi / min, not to exceed 600 psi/min, (400.02-3)

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32
Q

What is considered full protective clothing?

A

Helmet (with visor or shield), turnout coat and pants, boots, fire gloves, and hood. Goggles are also available and should be worn when the SCBA mask is not. (400.03)

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33
Q

Who determines the level of protective clothing during overhaul?

A

Incident command. (400.03)

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34
Q

What type of protective clothing will be worn while operating forcible entry equipment, saws, extrication equipment, and gas powered tools.

A

Full protective clothing. (400.03)

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35
Q

What type of protective clothing is required while operating on an EMS scene?

A

Whatever is appropriate to afford complete personal protection. (400.03)

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36
Q

When are personnel required to wear safety vests?

A

While not wearing full bunker gear or rain gear with reflective trim. (400.03)

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37
Q

When must face shields or safety goggles be utilized?

A

Whenever the need for eye protection seems apparent. (400.03)

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38
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ensure everyone utilizes safety gear when appropriate?

A

The officers. (400.03)

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39
Q

Where shall gear be stored on rescues?

A

Either in the extra cab portion or the left rear. (400.03)

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40
Q

What will be included in the daily station inspections by the station commander? (7)

A

Grooming, uniform, personal protective gear, DL, EMT or Paramedic, CPR, ACLS. (400.06)

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41
Q

Who will any problems in the daily inspection be forwarded to?

A

The fire chief via the chain of command. (400.06)

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42
Q

Who will conduct the quarterly station inspections?

A

The fire chief or his staff personnel. (400.06)

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43
Q

How often is “right to know” training provided to personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals?

A

Annually. (400.07)

44
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a green light mean?

A

Power applied to the unit. (400.08)

45
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a flashing green light mean?

A

The vehicle is in disable mode. (400.08)

46
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a amber/green light in the GPS indicator mean?

A

Amber- not receiving GPS, radio not transmitting. Green- GPS has good 3D fix. (400.08)

47
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device what does a amber/green light on the radio indicator mean?

A

Amber- no communication between radio/GPS unit and vehicle control unit. Green- Good communication between radio/GPS unit and vehicle control unit. (400.08)

48
Q

How do you reactivate the traffic pre-emption device?

A

By pressing the on/off button on the control head twice. (400.08)

49
Q

What type of call is a red flag for more violence?

A

Shooting, stabbing, fighting (domestic or public). (400.00)

50
Q

How will units stage while waiting for PD to clear a scene?

A

Out of sight of the incident, with lights and sirens off. (400.09)

51
Q

What are the two types of weapons, and examples?

A

Common-guns and knives. Makeshift-anything not designed to be a weapon but can be used as one. (400.09)

52
Q

How should the vehicle be spotted at an unsafe scene?

A

Turn off sirens several blocks away, drive by slowly and pass the house, spot the vehicle 100 ft past or before the residence. (400.09)

53
Q

Where should you stand while waiting at the door?

A

On the doorknob side, never directly in front of the door. (400.09)

54
Q

Who is the final authority on all recommendations and decisions made by the safety officer?

A

The incident commander. (400.10)

55
Q

What is the minimum rank for a safety officer?

A

(Company Officer) Captain or acting captain. (400.10)

56
Q

What is the definition of a responsible agency?

A

An agency with specific responsibilities on the scene of emergency operations. (400.11)

57
Q

On a traffic scene, when shall the FD be the IC?

A

When they involved injured persons or hazardous materials. (400.11)

58
Q

On a traffic scene, what are PD responsibilitie?

A

Traffic flow, scene control/security, investigation. (400.11)

59
Q

On a traffic scene, what are FD responsibilities?

A

Scene safety, medical treatment, hazardous materials. (400.11)

60
Q

When can units respond to scenes in the opposite direction of normal traffic flow?

A

Only at the request of law enforcement units and only when it has been confirmed that all traffic has been stopped in that direction. (400.11)

61
Q

On large scale accident scenes where your agency was presented with unusual challenges, who should you report these findings to?

A

The freeway management team. (400.11)

62
Q

When shall the emergency alert feature of the radio be used?

A

For perilous situations not covered by the Mayday policy. (400.13)

63
Q

Each radio has a ____?

A

6 digit individual ID number. (400.13)

64
Q

Who are the first responders to a hazardous atmosphere or chemical attack?

A

FD. (400.13)

65
Q

How do you activate the radios EAB?

A

Hold it down (the orange button on top) for at least 2 seconds until it rapidly beeps. (400.13)

66
Q

What does the radio screen display when the EAB is pressed?

A

Emergency. (400.13)

67
Q

How can you reset the EAB?

A

Depress the EAB for approx 2 seconds until a steady reset tone is heard, or turn the radio off and on again. (400.13)

68
Q

What can you do if an emergency alert is not acknowledged?

A

Briefly depress the EAB again. (400.13)

69
Q

What will the dispatcher ask when the EAB is pushed?

A

Is everything 10-24 (Is there an emergency). (400.13)

70
Q

What should you respond if you have an emergency over the radio?

A

10-24, followed by a brief explanation if possible. (400.13)

71
Q

What shall follow a response of 10-24 or no response?

A

Code 3 police response immediately, shift commander notified on a separate channel, code 3 full station assignment on a separate channel, shift commander shall monitor both channels, staff all call. (400.13)

72
Q

Within how long must an ER notify an EMS agencies designated officer that a patient transported to their ER has an infectious disease?

A

48 hours. (401.01)

73
Q

For illness to occur from a virus exposure, what 5 things must occur?

A

There must be blood/body fluid containing the virus, an opening to the inner part of the body, a means of getting the virus inside the opening, a large enough amount of the virus, and a defense system that does not already have immunity built up. (401.01)

74
Q

How old must shaving/scabs be to allow significant exposure?

A

Shaving within 2 hours and scabs with 24 hours. (401.01)

75
Q

What must you fill out for a non-significant exposure?

A

Infectious disease exposure report form. (401.01)

76
Q

What must you fill out for a significant exposure? (6)

A

Infectious disease exposure report form, first report of injury/illness, supervisor accident/injury report, FD 30, Sunrise EMS report, workers comp report from employee,. (401.01)

77
Q

What is the EAP/CISM OPM?

A

OPM 400.05

78
Q

What are the exposure, the injury, and the vehicle accident reporting OPM?

A

OPM 401.01, 401.02, and 401.03

79
Q

What are the 2 exposure levels FF may face when treating a patient?

A

Significant and non-significant. (401.01)

80
Q

The initial list of job classifications and tasks for exposure determination were compiled on or before when?

A

May 5. 1992. (401.01)

81
Q

What is the primary function of the EAP?

A

To assist people who need help with their personal issues as well as work/life support issues. (400.05)

82
Q

How many sessions are included in the EAP?

A

6 free sessions then the employee can continue at cost. (400.05)

83
Q

Which apparatus have CO monitors?

A

All in service frontline apparatus. (400.12)

84
Q

Where shall CO monitors be used?

A

All interior salvage/overhaul operations at structure fires and any environment where CO could be produced. (400.12)

85
Q

Where shall the CO monitor be worn?

A

On the SCBA strap or on the flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat. (400.12)

86
Q

What 3 alarms does the CO monitor have and at what range will they alert?

A

Visual, audible, vibrate. 35-70 ppm. (400.12)

87
Q

If the CO alarm activates and the environment can not be ventilated what shall happen?

A

Personnel shall don full SCBA and enter with accountability and RIT in place. (400.12)

88
Q

What type of battery does the CO monitor use and what is the low battery alert.

A

1 AA and the icon and a single beep every 30 seconds. (400.12)

89
Q

Who shall be notified for any real or potential injury, exposure, or illness?

A

Station officer, B/C, and duty chief. (401.02)

90
Q

What must an employee complete after requesting a log # for an injury/exposure/illness? (9)

A

1) first report of injury/illness
2) employee workers comp report
3) employer section
4) physician section
5) patient care report
6) supervisors report of accident/injury
7) incident report in RMS
8) casualty report for all injuries as part of RMS report
9) FD 30. (401.02)

91
Q

What department must be called to report the injury and if after hours what should message include?

A

Risk management 954-572-2497. Employee name and phone #, details of injury, where employee was treated, supervisors name. (401.02)

92
Q

Who should first report of injury/illness and supervisors report of accident/injury be emailed to?

A

riskmanagement@sunrisefl.gov (401.02)

93
Q

If employee can not sign who signs for them?

A

Write “unavailable” in signature line” (401.02)

94
Q

If there is no injury or likelihood of future from accident what must be filled out?

A

Supervisors report of accident/injury and FD30. (401.02)

95
Q

At any time if damage is found to a vehicle and the cause is unknown ___?

A

Report the damage to officer and B/C, complete a vehicle incident report, and enter a work order online. (401.03)

96
Q

For a vehicle accident w/o injuries? (7)

A

1) notify officer and B/C
2) notify PD for a report
3) complete vehicle incident report
4) enter a work order online
5) supervisors investigation report
6) drive vehicle to garage or have towed and notify logistics
7) B/C shall notify risk management

97
Q

What shall a vehicle incident report include?

A

Vehicle #, extent of damage, personnel involved, actions taken, brief description of incident. (if damage found include time found) (401.03)

98
Q

For vehicle accident with injuries?

A

1) follow medical protocol
2) notify officer, B/C, duty chief, and fire chief
3) notify PD for report
4) complete vehicle incident report
5) drive vehicle or have towed to garage and notify logistics
6) workers comp paperwork on all personnel suspected of having injuries
7) B/C shall notify risk management

99
Q

Upon inspection members who believe they have a problem with their bunker gear should?

A

Notify their immediate supervisor who will contact the shift commander to make arrangements with the division chief of support services to have the gear further evaluated. (400.03 s1)

100
Q

How often will advanced cleaning of bunker gear be performed?

A

Minimum of every 12 months by the Dept’s independent service provider. (400.03 s1)

101
Q

In regards to smoke on bunker gear, what duration of time in interior operations denotes contamination? What can indicate a potential exposure?

A

ANY amount of time. The smell of products of combustion indicates a potential exposure. (400.03 s2)

102
Q

What are the two types of decon? Which kind do we perform?

A

Emergency/gross decon and technical/secondary decon. We do Gross (400.03 s2)

103
Q

After which type of fires shall gross decon of gear be utilized?

A

Brush, vehicle, training, and any other incident where the combustion process occurs. (400.03 s2)

104
Q

What unit shall set up gear decon and who shall be responsible to oversee it?

A

The first arriving suppression apparatus closest to the incident and overseen by the D/O (400.03 s2)

105
Q

With whom and where will FF exchange their gloves and hoods that were exposed to products of combustion?

A

With the BC who responded to the scene (400.03 s2)

Battalion's Test (10 decks)

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