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OPM 600 Flashcards

1
Q

Who prepared the incident command procedures and when?

A

The Fire Chief’s Association of Broward County in 1998, revised in 2001. (600.01)

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2
Q

When did the fire chiefs of Broward County officially adopt incident command?

A

Spring of 1996. (600.01)

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3
Q

Which natural disaster reinforced the need for one incident command system?

A

Hurricane Andrew. (600.01)

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4
Q

The incident commander is flexible in that he can ___, ___, ___ depending on the needs of the incident?

A

Activate, consolidate, or delete. (600.01)

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5
Q

It is recommended that the person taking command of the incident is at least at the rank of?

A

Chief officer. (600.01)

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6
Q

In emergency situations, what is the accepted limit for span of control?

A
  1. (600.01)
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7
Q

In which direction is responsibility and performance built.

A

From the top down. (600.01)

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8
Q

What are the 4 sections of the command structure?

A

Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration. (600.01)

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9
Q

Which section is responsible for all activities directed toward hazard reduction and control.

A

Operations. (600.01)

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10
Q

Which section is responsible for collection, evaluation, and dissemination of all information?

A

Planning. (600.01)

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11
Q

Which section provides support needs to the incident?

A

Logistics. (600.01)

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12
Q

Which section is responsible for all costs incurred at the incident?

A

Finance/ Administration. (600.01)

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13
Q

In addition to the 4 sections, command staff may also include? (4)

A

Safety officer, public information officer, liaison officer, incident commander aide. (600.01)

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14
Q

What are the four parts of the command sequence?

A

Incident priorities, size-up, goals and objectives, and tactical operations. (600.01)

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15
Q

What are the incident priorities?

A

Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation. (600.01)

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16
Q

What are the goals considered in relation to incident priority ?

A

Rescue, exposures, confinement, extinguishment, overhaul. (600.01)

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17
Q

Which part of the command sequence is considered to be “solutions to the problem”?

A

Tactical operations. (600.01)

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18
Q

Where are incident operations directed and planning performed?

A

Command post. (600.01)

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19
Q

This area will house all equipment and personnel support operations. This is where primary support personnel activities will be performed.

A

Incident base. (600.01)

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20
Q

Who establishes the staging area?

A

The operations section officer. (600.01)

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21
Q

Who can the operations section officer assign to be in charge of staging?

A

A staging area manager. (600.01)

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22
Q

What is the title for the command staff?

A

Officer. (600.01)

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23
Q

What is the title for sections?

A

Section officer. (600.01)

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24
Q

What is the title for branches?

A

Branch director. (600.01)

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25
Q

What is the title for divisions and groups?

A

Supervisor. (600.01)

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26
Q

What is the title for strike teams and task forces?

A

Leader. (600.01)

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27
Q

What is the title assigned to specific geographical areas?

A

Division. (600.01)

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28
Q

How are divisions designated?

A

Letters going around the building with A being the address side and going clockwise and numbers for the floors. (600.01)

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29
Q

What name is given to a group of people determined by the function that they perform?

A

Groups. (600.01)

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30
Q

Who reports to the division/group supervisor?

A

Unit officers. (600.01)

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31
Q

As the span of control begins to become complex, what can be added, usually to the operations section?

A

Branches. (600.01)

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32
Q

What must the first unit on scene of an incident do?

A

Transmit an arrival, report a size up, and establish commend. (600.01)

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33
Q

What can/not be used to establish location of command?

A

Geographic location or well known landmark, not unit numbered command locations. (600.01)

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34
Q

If there are 2 incidents on the same street, how should you define a more exact location?

A

The hundred block designator. (600.01)

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35
Q

If a higher ranking officer wants to effect a change in the management of the incident, what must he do?

A

He must be present on the scene, then utilize the transfer of command procedure. (600.01)

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36
Q

When will fast attack mode end?

A

The situation is stabilized, the situation is not stabilized and the company officer must withdraw, command is transferred to another officer. (600.01)

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37
Q

Who should agency representatives report directly to upon arrival at an incident?

A

Liaison officer at the command post. (600.01)

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38
Q

What is unity of command?

A

Each person reports to one supervisor. (600.01)

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39
Q

Can command be transferred by radio?

A

Yes but it should be done face to face. (600.01)

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40
Q

A situation with how many units require an IC?

A

Any incident requiring 2 or more units. (600.01)

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41
Q

Who approves requests for extended resources?

A

Incident commander. (600.01)

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42
Q

Who authorizes release of information to the media?

A

Incident commander. (600.01)

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43
Q

Who is responsible for site control and security of the command post?

A

The IC aide, with assistance from the police. (600.01)

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44
Q

Who is in charge of all task-oriented resources participating on scene?

A

The operations section officer. (600.01)

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45
Q

At haz mat incidents, what is the requirement of the safety officer?

A

Must be a haz mat tech. (600.01)

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46
Q

When is the safety officer activated?

A

Any time individuals will be operating in any type of hazardous atmosphere, or high-risk operation, or potentially dangerous situation. (600.01)

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47
Q

Does the safety officer have the emergency authority or prevent to halt unsafe acts?

A

The safety officer SHOULD have the authority to prevent or halt unsafe acts. (600.01)

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48
Q

All personnel who have expended at least two bottles of air shall have what checked at rehab?

A

Pulse, BP, respirations, and lung sounds. (600.01)

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49
Q

Who shall coordinate the distribution of food during long term incidents?

A

Rehab. (600.01)

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50
Q

How many times shall the evacuation announcement be repeated by dispatch?

A

Twice. (600.01)

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51
Q

What is the air horn blast for evacuation?

A

1 second on 1 second off for 30 seconds. (600.01)

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52
Q

If personnel are missing, how shall command notify dispatch?

A

Either face to face or telephone, never over the radio. (600.01)

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53
Q

What id the designation for a helicopter or fixed wing aircraft?

A

Air. (600.01)

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54
Q

What is an Ambulance?

A

A BLS transport unit. (600.01)

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55
Q

What is attack?

A

A mini pumper (600.01)

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56
Q

What is an off road vehicle with a water tank and pump?

A

Brush. (600.01)

57
Q

What is an engine?

A

NFPA compliant class A pumper. (600.01)

58
Q

What is Foam?

A

Vehicle or trailer other than crash truck with minimum 50 gallons of foam. (600.01)

59
Q

What is a ladder?

A

Straight aerial ladder at least 75 feet. (600.01)

60
Q

What is Medical?

A

ALS transport unit with civilian staffing. (600.01)

61
Q

What is Platform?

A

Telescoping boom with platform of at least 75 feet. (600.01)

62
Q

What is a QUINT?

A

Class A pumper with at least 75 foot straight aerial. (600.01)

63
Q

What is a rescue?

A

ALS transport unit with cross trained firefighters. (600.01)

64
Q

What is a snorkel?

A

Articulating platform device. (600.01)

65
Q

What is a SQUAD?

A

Heavy, medium, or light rescue or personnel carrier. (600.01)

66
Q

What is a SQURT?

A

Class A pumper with 55-70 foot aerial water tower. (600.01)

67
Q

What is support?

A

SCBA refill truck. (600.01)

68
Q

What is a tanker?

A

Apparatus with minimum 1500 gallons of onboard water. (600.01)

69
Q

What is a tender?

A

Foam tanker with a minimum 1000 gallons of foam. (600.01)

70
Q

What is a truck?

A

Airport crash truck with foam. (600.01)

71
Q

What is utility?

A

Light/generator/ventilation vehicle. (600.01)

72
Q

What is the minimum equipment for the RIT?

A

Full bunker gear, complete SCBA with PASS, one flashlight for each member, a search rope, halligan and flat headed axe, one spare airpack with mask, two way communication with IC. (600.01)

73
Q

Where shall RIT report unless otherwise specified?

A

The command post. (600.01)

74
Q

After ___ attempts to contact a person with an activated PASS device, the division supervisor will activate the search and rescue team.

A

Two. (600.01)

75
Q

Which system has been designated as the mutual aid system of talk groups?

A

System 12. (600.01)

76
Q

Which talk group within system 12 has been designated the mutual aid talk group?

A

Talk group A. (600.01)

77
Q

The width of a trench can not be greater than?

A

15 ft. (600.01)

78
Q

Category ____ haz-mat incidents recommend the automatic response of 2 regional haz-mat teams?

A

3 and 4. (600.01)

79
Q

Category ___ haz-mat incidents should be initially investigated by first responders and assessed for the need for assistance from one of the regional response teams?

A

1 and 2. (600.01)

80
Q

When responding to a confirmed confined space incident the automatic response of ___ regional teams is recommended?

A
  1. (600.01)
81
Q

What differentiates between a technical and non-technical rope rescue?

A

40 degrees. (600.01)

82
Q

For a water rescue incident, generally the time frame for a rescue is considered to be submersion up to ___?

A

1 hour. (600.01)

83
Q

Any area that requires an SCBA will be known as?

A

The hazard zone., (600.01)

84
Q

A ____ must supervise all crews entering a hazard zone.

A

Lieutenant or higher ranking individual. (600.01)

85
Q

What colors are each ranks PAR tags?

A

FF, PM, D/O-yellow, Company officer-red, Chief officer-white. (600.01)

86
Q

How big is a passport tag?

A

1”x2” (600.01)

87
Q

How big is a passport unit?

A

2”x3” (600.01)

88
Q

Where should a passport unit be located?

A

At or near the center of the dashboard. (600.01)

89
Q

When is a PAR required? (6)

A

Report of missing or trapped FF, change from offensive to defensive, any sudden hazardous event, by all crews reporting all clear, at each 30 min interval, at fire under control. (600.01)

90
Q

On single company incidents, who assumes accountability responsibilities?

A

The driver/operator. (600.01)

91
Q

For any report of a missing FF, command must request____ assignment?

A

The next greater. (600.01)

92
Q

Where will a search begin for a lost FF?

A

The last reported work area. (600.01)

93
Q

What call will receive the highest communication priority from dispatch?

A

Mayday. (600.01)

94
Q

What is the NFPA for Incident Management Systems?

A

NFPA 1561. (600.01)

95
Q

Which incident priority is defined as actions designed to stop the escalation of an incident?

A

Incident stabilization. (600.01)

96
Q

Which incident priority is defined as efforts to reduce the long term economic and social impact of the incident?

A

Property conservation. (600.01)

97
Q

Which incident priority is defined as actions which reduce the threat of life or injury which involves civilians as well as responders?

A

Life safety. (600.01)

98
Q

Which incident priority is always first?

A

Life safety. (600.01)

99
Q

Which part of the command sequence involves gathering information about an incident, evaluating the information, and determining how the specific incident should be handled?

A

Size up. (600.01)`

100
Q

What are specific actions carried out to accomplish goals and objectives?

A

Tactical operations. (600.01)

101
Q

Where is the planning function performed?

A

At the command post. (600.01)

102
Q

Where is the field communications center normally located?

A

At the command post. (600.01)

103
Q

The implementation of the action plan will be done under the direction of a single individual, the___?

A

The operations section officer. (600.01)

104
Q

What is the difference between a landing zone and a helibase?

A

LZ- where helicopters can take off and land from. HB- location where helicopters are staged for possible action. (600.01)

105
Q

What is the title for a single resource?

A

Company officer. (600.01)

106
Q

Who shall determine the initial need for groups/divisions? As the operation increases in size, who shall recommend the need for additional groups/divisions?

A

Initial-IC, additional-section officers. (600.01)

107
Q

What is the primary reason for using divisions/groups?

A

Safety of personnel and maintaining span of control. (600.01)

108
Q

Where should RIT initially stage?

A

At the command post. (600.01)

109
Q

What are the 4 modes of command that may be utilized?

A

Nothing showing mode, Fast attack mode, defensive mode, command mode. (600.01)

110
Q

In what command mode would the officer go with the company to investigate while utilizing a portable radio to command the incident?

A

Investigation mode. (600.01)

111
Q

What command mode requires immediate action to stabilize the incident and require the officers assistance and direct involvement in the attack?

A

Fast attack mode. (600.01)

112
Q

What mode of command is used when conditions or hazards preclude direct entry into the hazard zone?

A

Defensive mode. (600.01)

113
Q

What creates a gap in the command process and compromises incident management?

A

The passing of command to a unit that is not on scene. (600.01)

114
Q

In what situations may it be advantageous for the first arriving officer to pass command to the next arriving officer who is in position to assume command?

A

When initial commitment of the first arriving company requires a full crew such as high rise or immediate rescue situation. (600.01)

115
Q

What is preferred over passing command to a unit not yet on scene?

A

Continue to operate in fast attack mode until command can be passed to an on scene unit. (600.01)

116
Q

When 2 or more staging areas are used, they can be identified by___ or ___?

A

Function or location. (600.01)

117
Q

What is the preferred training for a safety officer?

A

An officer trained to NFPA safety officer, Florida fire officer 1, and ICS level. (Haz mat=Haz mat)(600.01)

118
Q

In unified command there should be ____ PIOs?

A

Only 1 PIO. (600.01)

119
Q

Who provides escort services for media and VIPs?

A

The PIO. (600.01)

120
Q

Who can be staffed as the rehab officer?

A

Any medically trained person appointed by command. (600.01)

121
Q

In haz-mat situations, personnel must complete ___ prior to reporting to rehab?

A

Decon. (600.01)

122
Q

Which section serves as the clearing house for information?

A

The planning section. (600.01)

123
Q

Which section officer can be staffed by a civilian?

A

Finance/Admin. (600.01)

124
Q

When the IC makes the decision to evacuate, he shall announce “emergency traffic.” Then what will happen?

A

Dispatch shall sound the radio alert tone and state “All personnel evacuate the building or area immediately.” This shall be repeated twice. (600.01)

125
Q

What type of phone circuit does the mutual aid system use?

A

800 MHz radio system and regular telephone lines to provide a redundant system. (600.01)

126
Q

How many talk groups are on the trunked mutual aid system, named system 12? What is the mutual aid calling channel and what are the tactical channels?

A

there are 15 talk groups. A is the calling, B-O are tactical. (600.01)

127
Q

Requesting agencies may use what 3 methods to notify broward county communications of a mutual aid request?

A

MARS circuit (primary), radio (secondary), or telephone (last resort). (600.01)

128
Q

What is defined as any response to emergencies requiring specialized equipment and personnel trained to effectively mitigate emergencies involving hazardous materials, confined space and technical rescue, and dive emergencies?

A

Special operations. (600.01)

129
Q

What is defined as any incident involving the leak, fire or spill of any radioactive, chemical, or biological substance?

A

Hazardous materials incident. (600.01)

130
Q

What is defined as any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment necessary to safely gain access to, and remove victims from hazardous geographic areas with limited access such as high rise buildings, above or below grade structures, by means of rope systems?

A

Rope rescue incidents. (600.01)

131
Q

What is defined as those areas that are not intended for continual occupancy, have limited means of egress, and have potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment?

A

Confined space. (600.01)

132
Q

The hazard zone will be defined as any area that requires an SCBA or…? (3)

A

in which a FF is at risk of becoming lost, trapped or injured by the environment or structure. ,(600.01)

133
Q

A minimum crew size will be considered___ and ___ will be required?

A

Two members, a radio. (600.01)

134
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur at any incident _____?

A

That requires the use of SCBA. (600.01)

135
Q

For a missing FF, after requesting the next greater alarm command must next___?

A

do an immediate roll call of all companies assigned in the hazard zone. (600.01)

136
Q

The company officer will _____ any time a radio failure occurs?

A

exit the hazard zone with an intact crew. (600.01)

137
Q

Upon completion of assignment and release from an incident, company officers will pick up the passport at the____ and return it to the ___?

A

Command post, apparatus dash. (600.01)

138
Q

When will the term Mayday be utilized?

A

Whenever a fire rescue unit or are member encounters an immediately perilous situation such as a downed or trapped FF. (600.01)

139
Q

For a MAYDAY after the IC gathers all the necessary information including confirmation of the problem, he shall immediately?

A

Advise dispatch to initiate the mayday protocol. Dispatch shall activate an alert tone and announce MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY.(600.01)

captains test (23 decks)

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