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captains test > OPM 400 > Flashcards

OPM 400 Flashcards

1
Q

When will bio hazardous waste not be disposed of at the receiving emergency department?

A

When they refuse it. (400.01)

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2
Q

What is the maximum fine for not adhering to bio hazardous waste rules?

A

Up to $10,000 per violation. (400.01)

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3
Q

It is mandatory that all FF will wear SCBA or SAR under the following conditions: (3)

A

1) During all phases of active firefighting including structural, aerial, vehicle, dumpster, and overhaul
2) emergency situations including but not limited to confined space that may be toxic or oxygen deficient
3) while working in spaces where hazardous atmospheres are present. (400.02)

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4
Q

When may the airline respirator of HM92, TRT92 or aerials be used and what must be used with it?

A

Exterior ff, confined space, trench, and certain haz-mat incidents, and must be used with an escape SCBA. (400.02)

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5
Q

Firefighters in an IDLH must remain in what type of contact at all times?

A

Visual or voice. (400.02)

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6
Q

May members of RIT be assigned other roles?

A

1 may, such as IC or safety, as long as long as he is able to perform assistance or rescue activities w/o jeopardizing the safety or health of any other ff. (400.02)

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7
Q

Can radio or electronic communication count as voice contact in an IDLH?

A

No. (400.02)

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8
Q

Which NFPA refers to SCBA?

A

NFPA 1404. (400.02)

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9
Q

When must FF pass a face piece fit test? (6)

A

Initial hire, annually, significant weight change, facial trauma, reconstructive surgery, or major dental work. (400.02)

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10
Q

Where are SCBA that are unfit for use forwarded?

A

Station 59. (400.02)

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11
Q

How often must Scott carbon fiber cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 5 years. (400.02)

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12
Q

How often must fiberglass escape cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 3 years. (400.02)

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13
Q

What is the maximum service life for any cylinder?

A

15 years. (400.02)

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14
Q

What is the minimum air quality for SCBA breathing air according to the Commodity Specification for Air?

A

Grade D. (400.02)

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15
Q

How often must the purity of air from all air compressors be tested?

A

At least annually. (400.02)

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16
Q

How long must a face mask be worn to asses comfort?

A

At least 5 minutes. (400.02-1)

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17
Q

What points are included to asses comfort of a face mask? (4)

A

Position of mask on nose, room for eye protection, room to talk, positioning mask on face and cheeks. (400.02-1)

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18
Q

What shall the pressure in the air pump be set to for fit testing?

A

200 mm/min. (400.02-1)

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19
Q

What is in the smoke tube for fit testing?

A

Stannic oxychloride. (400.02-1)

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20
Q

How far away from the face piece should the smoke tube start for fir testing?

A

At least 12 inches. (400.02-1)

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21
Q

How long shall fir test results be maintained?

A

At least 3 years. (400.02-1)

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22
Q

What shall fit test results contain? (5)

A

Name of subject, test date, test conductor, respirator selected, testing agent. (400.02-1)

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23
Q

When shall FF exit an IDLH?

A

Prior to activation of their low air alarm. (400.02-2)

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24
Q

Who must members immediately notify upon activation of their low air alarm?

A

First their officer then command. (400.02-2)

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25
Q

What must air pressure be prior to initial entry?

A

90% or 4050 psi. (400.02-2)

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26
Q

At what % or heads up display shall the officer notify command?

A

50% or amber light flashing slowly. (400.02-2)

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27
Q

After how long from a 50% notification shall RIT notify command if the unit has not exited the structure?

A

1 minute. (400.02-2)

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28
Q

In what position on a 3 or more man team should the low air ff be?

A

2nd. (400.02-2)

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29
Q

Which day is deemed Air Fill Day?

A

Wednesday. (400.02-3)

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30
Q

Where does each station fill all their bottles every Wednesday, unless____?

A

39, 59, 72 @ 59. 83, 92 @ 92. Unless personnel permits then TRT 92 (376) shall go to each station and fill bottles.(400.02-3)

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31
Q

At what rate should SCBA bottles be filled?

A

300-500 psi / min, not to exceed 600 psi/min, (400.02-3)

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32
Q

What is considered full protective clothing?

A

Helmet (with visor or shield), turnout coat and pants, boots, fire gloves, and hood. Goggles are also available and should be worn when the SCBA mask is not. (400.03)

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33
Q

Who determines the level of protective clothing during overhaul?

A

Incident command. (400.03)

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34
Q

What type of protective clothing will be worn while operating forcible entry equipment, saws, extrication equipment, and gas powered tools.

A

Full protective clothing. (400.03)

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35
Q

What type of protective clothing is required while operating on an EMS scene?

A

Whatever is appropriate to afford complete personal protection. (400.03)

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36
Q

When are personnel required to wear safety vests?

A

While not wearing full bunker gear or rain gear with reflective trim. (400.03)

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37
Q

When must face shields or safety goggles be utilized?

A

Whenever the need for eye protection seems apparent. (400.03)

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38
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ensure everyone utilizes safety gear when appropriate?

A

The offices. (400.03)

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39
Q

Where shall gear be stored on rescues?

A

Either in the extra cab portion or the left rear. (400.03)

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40
Q

Who is the EAP available to?

A

All employees. (400.05)

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41
Q

Who is entitled to confidential EAP information without the employees written consent?

A

Nobody. (400.05)

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42
Q

How many free EAP sessions does each employee get?

A
  1. (400.05)
43
Q

Who is the current EAP provider and what is their phone number?

A

Clinical Provider Organization (CPO) 954-979-1611 or 1-800-329-5EAP. (400.05)

44
Q

What will be included in the daily station inspections by the station commander? (7)

A

Grooming, uniform, personal protective gear, DL, EMT or Paramedic, CPR, ACLS. (400.06)

45
Q

Who will any problems in the daily inspection be forwarded to?

A

The fire chief via the chain of command. (400.06)

46
Q

Who will conduct the quarterly station inspections?

A

The fire chief or his staff personnel. (400.06)

47
Q

How often is “right to know” training provided to personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals?

A

Annually. (400.07)

48
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a green light mean?

A

Power applied to the unit. (400.08)

49
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a flashing green light mean?

A

The vehicle is in disable mode. (400.08)

50
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device, what does a amber/green light in the GPS indicator mean?

A

Amber- not receiving GPS, radio not transmitting. Green- GPS has good 3D fix. (400.08)

51
Q

On the traffic pre-emption device what does a amber/green light on the radio indicator mean?

A

Amber- no communication between radio/GPS unit and vehicle control unit. Green- Good communication between radio/GPS unit and vehicle control unit. (400.08)

52
Q

How do you reactivate the traffic pre-emption device?

A

By pressing the on/off button on the control head twice. (400.08)

53
Q

What type of call is a red flag for more violence?

A

Shooting, stabbing, fighting (domestic or public). (400.00)

54
Q

How will units stage while waiting for PD to clear a scene?

A

Out of sight of the incident, with lights and sirens off. (400.09)

55
Q

What are the two types of weapons, and examples?

A

Common-guns and knives. Makeshift-anything not designed to be a weapon but can be used as one. (400.09)

56
Q

How should the vehicle be spotted at an unsafe scene?

A

Turn off sirens several blocks away, drive by slowly and pass the house, spot the vehicle 100 ft past or before the residence. (400.09)

57
Q

Where should you stand while waiting at the door?

A

On the doorknob side, never directly in front of the door. (400.09)

58
Q

Who is the final authority on all recommendations and decisions made by the safety officer?

A

The incident commander. (400.10)

59
Q

What is the minimum rank for a safety officer?

A

(Company Officer) Captain or acting captain. (400.10)

60
Q

What is the definition of a responsible agency?

A

An agency with specific responsibilities on the scene of emergency operations. (400.11)

61
Q

On a traffic scene, when shall the FD be the IC?

A

When they involved injured persons or hazardous materials. (400.11)

62
Q

On a traffic scene, what are PD responsibilitie?

A

Traffic flow, scene control/security, investigation. (400.11)

63
Q

On a traffic scene, what are FD responsibilities?

A

Scene safety, medical treatment, hazardous materials. (400.11)

64
Q

When can units respond to scenes in the opposite direction of normal traffic flow?

A

Only at the request of law enforcement units and only when it has been confirmed that all traffic has been stopped in that direction. (400.11)

65
Q

On large scale accident scenes where your agency was presented with unusual challenges, who should you report these findings to?

A

The freeway management team. (400.11)

66
Q

Which units have carbon monoxide gas monitors?

A

All inservice pumpers, the platform, the battalions and EMS vehicle. (400.12)

67
Q

Where shall the CO monitor be worn?

A

On the SCBA strap when worn or on the flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat. (400.12)

68
Q

How many alarms does the CO monitor have?

A

3 visual, audible, and vibration. (400.12)

69
Q

When do the CO alarms go off?

A

At 35-70 ppm. (400.12)

70
Q

How do you know the CO monitor battery is low?

A

The icon indicator and a single beep every 30 seconds. (400.12)

71
Q

How shall the CO monitors be tested?

A

By the operations division chief every 6 months. (400.12)

72
Q

When shall the emergency alert feature of the radio be used?

A

For perilous situations not covered by the Mayday policy. (400.13)

73
Q

Each radio has a ____?

A

6 digit individual ID number. (400.13)

74
Q

Who are the first responders to a hazardous atmosphere or chemical attack?

A

FD. (400.13)

75
Q

How do you activate the radios EAB?

A

Hold it down (the orange button on top) for at least 2 seconds until it rapidly beeps. (400.13)

76
Q

What does the radio screen display when the EAB is pressed?

A

Emergency. (400.13)

77
Q

How can you reset the EAB?

A

Depress the EAB for approx 2 seconds until a steady reset tone is heard, or turn the radio off and on again. (400.13)

78
Q

What can you do if an emergency alert is not acknowledged?

A

Briefly depress the EAB again. (400.13)

79
Q

What will the dispatcher ask when the EAB is pushed?

A

Is everything 10-24 (Is there an emergency). (400.13)

80
Q

What should you respond if you have an emergency over the radio?

A

10-24, followed by a brief explanation if possible. (400.13)

81
Q

What shall follow a response of 10-24 or no response?

A

Code 3 police response immediately, shift commander notified on a separate channel, code 3 full station assignment on a separate channel, shift commander shall monitor both channels, staff all call. (400.13)

82
Q

Within how long must an ER notify an EMS agencies designated officer that a patient transported to their ER has an infectious disease?

A

48 hours. (401.01)

83
Q

For illness to occur from a virus exposure, what 5 things must occur?

A

There must be blood/body fluid containing the virus, an opening to the inner part of the body, a means of getting the virus inside the opening, a large enough amount of the virus, and a defense system that does not already have immunity built up. (401.01)

84
Q

How old must shaving/scabs be to allow significant exposure?

A

Shaving within 2 hours and scabs with 24 hours. (401.01)

85
Q

What must you fill out for a non-significant exposure?

A

Infectious disease exposure report form. (401.01)

86
Q

What must you fill out for a significant exposure? (5)

A

Infectious disease exposure report form, first report of injury/illness, supervisor accident/injury report, FD 30, Sunrise EMS report, workers comp report from employee,. (401.01)

87
Q

When should an injury/illness be reported?

A

If an incident involves an injury or illness OR it is likely that an injury or illness may result. (401.02)

88
Q

What forms must be filled out for the injury report? (7)

A

First report of injury/illness, supervisors report of accident/injury, report from employee, standard patient report, NFIRS-1, NFIRS-5, FD 30. (401.02)

89
Q

Who do you call to report an injury?

A

Risk management 954-572-2497. (401.02)

90
Q

What information must you tell risk management about the injury?

A

Name of employee, details of the injury, where the employee was treated, employee phone # and supervisor name. (401.02)

91
Q

What must immediately be faxed to risk management?

A

First report of injury/illness and supervisor report of accident/injury. (401.02)

92
Q

What is the risk management fax #?

A

954-572-2278. (401.02)

93
Q

What must you fill out after an incident if there is no injury and it is not likely that there will be one?

A

First report of injury/illness, supervisors report of accident/injury, FD 30. (401.02)

94
Q

If the employee can not sign, what is written in for his signature?

A

Unavailable. (401.02)

95
Q

Who must be notified of the injury/illness incident if there is not an emergency?

A

BC or greater. (401.02)

96
Q

If vehicle damage is found and the cause is not known, what shall be documented on the vehicle incident report?

A

Vehicle number, extent of damage, personnel, involved, time found, and a brief description of the incident. (401.03)

97
Q

If vehicle damage is found and the cause is not known who is notified?

A

The station officer and on duty battalion chief. (401.03)

98
Q

Who is notified for all vehicle accidents, with or w/o injuries?

A

The station officer and on duty battalion chief. The appropriate police department shall also be notified for a report. (401.03)

99
Q

For all vehicle accidents, who shall notify risk management and forward all paperwork the the administrative officer?

A

The on duty battalion chief. (401.03)

100
Q

Who is additionally notified if the vehicle accident involves injuries?

A

The BC shall have dispatch notify the duty chief and operations chief. (401.03)

101
Q

What is the EAP/CISM OPM?

A

OPM 400.05

102
Q

What are the exposure, the injury, and the vehicle accident reporting OPM?

A

OPM 401.01, 401.02, and 401.03

103
Q

What are the 2 exposure levels FF may face when treating a patient?

A

Significant and non-significant. (401.01)

104
Q

The initial list of job classifications and tasks for exposure determination were compiled on or before when?

A

May 5. 1992. (401.01)

captains test (23 decks)

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