Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Specialties > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What is an arcuate scotoma? (1)

A

An arc-shaped defect of vision arising in an area near the blind spot and extending toward it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the pathophysiology of primary open angle glaucoma? (3)

A

Gradual increasing of resistance to outflow of aqueous humour through the trabecular network
The increasing pressure slowly causes nerve damage and visual loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is seen on fundoscopy in primary open angle glaucoma? (2)

A

Cupped optic disc
Disc haemorrhages
Optic atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is normal intraoccular pressure?

A

10-22 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When and how often is glaucoma screening done for at risk patients? (2)

A

Over 30 years old

Every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first line management for open angle glaucoma? (2)

A

Topical prostaglandin analogue

Topical beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the presenting features of acute closed angle glaucoma? (3)

A

Red, painful eye
Visual disturbance - haloes
Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an exacerbating and a relieving factor for closed angle glaucoma? (2)

A

Worse in the dark (as the pupil dilates)

Relieved by sleep (as the pupil constricts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are risk factors for acute angle glaucoma? (3)

A

Longsightedness with a shallow anterior chamber
Diabetes
Medications that causes dilation - such as antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the acute management for acute closed angle glaucoma? (4)
What is the definitive treatment? (1)

A

Topical B-blockers (Timolol) – decrease aqueous production
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (Acetazolamide) – decreases aqueous production
Osmotic agents (oral glycerin + IV mannitol)
Miotic (pilocarpine) – constrict pupil to open outflow angle

Surgery - laser iridotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs as arcuate scotomas progress? (1)

A

Tunnel vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occular condition is associated with inflammatory bowel disease? (1)
How does this eye condition present? (3)

A

Uveitis

Painful, red photophobic eye with blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the lesion located in bitemporal hemianopia? (1)

A

The optic chiasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If there is cotralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, what is the pathology? (1)

A

Posterior cerebellar artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name two causes of bitemporal hemianopia and whether they affect inferior of superior vision first (4)

A

Crainopharyngioma - inferior (grow above the optic chiasm)

Pituitary tumour - superior (grow below the optic chiasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In which lobe of the brain is a lesion if there is superior quadrantanopia? Is it ipsilateral or contralateral visual loss? (2)

A

Temporal, contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In which lobe of the brain is a lesion if there is inferior quadrantanopia? Is it ipsilateral or contralateral visual loss? (2)

A

Parietal, contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What visual defect would a lesion of the right optic tract cause? (2)

A

Left homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the features of Holmes-Adie syndrome? (3)

A

A slow reacting pupil to bight light ‘sluggish reflexes’
Excess sweating
Loss of deep tendon reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the triad of symptoms in Horner’s syndrome? (3)

A

Ptosis
Miosis
Anhidrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the stages of diabetic retinopathy? (3)

A

Background
Pre-proliferative
Proliferative

22
Q

What changes may be seen on fundoscopy in background diabetic retinopathy? (4)

A 
micro-aneurysms
Haemorrhages
Retinal thickening
<5 microinfarcts
Normal blood vessels
23
Q

In which type of diabetes is proliferative retinopathy more common? (1)

A

Type 1

24
Q

What is seen in grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy? (2)

A

Ateriolar narrowing

Silver wiring

25
Q

What is seen in grade 2 hypertensive retinopathy? (2)

A

Arteriovenous nipping

Venous constriction

26
Q

What is seen in grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy? (3)

A

Flame haemorrhages
Cotton wool spots
Hard exudates

27
Q

What is seen in grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy? (4)

A

Papilloedema

28
Q

What do drusen spots represent? (1)

A

Poor functioning retinal pigment epithelium

29
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended in dry age related macular degeneration? (2)

A

Quit smoking

Eat plenty of leafy greens, fruit and veg

30
Q

What can be used to treat wet age related macular degeneration? (1)

A

Injections of anti-vascular endothelial growth factor - Ranibizumab

31
Q

What are causes of sudden loss of vision?

A

Vascular occlusions - branch and central retinal arteries and veins
Inflammation - Optic neuritis
Retinal detachment

32
Q

How is a relative afferent pupillary defect detected? (1)

A

Swinging torch test

33
Q

In what direction does the affected eye look in a 3rd nerve palsy? (2)
What nerve is this? (1)

A

Outwards and downwards

Occulomotor nerve

34
Q

What visual disturbance is seen in a 3rd nerve palsy? (2)

A

Horizontal diplopia

Reduced vision related to ptosis

35
Q

What artery is commonly affected in a 3rd nerve palsy? (1)

A

Posterior communicating artery

36
Q

What direction is diplopia seen in a 4th nerve palsy? (1)

What exacerbates it? (1)

A

Vertical

Looking downwards

37
Q

What muscle does the trochlear nerve control? (1)

What movements does this control? (2)

A

The superior oblique muscle

Abduction and internal rotation

38
Q

What is the visual disturbance seen in 6th cranial nerve palsy? (3)

A

Horizontal diplopia that worsens when looking at distant objects

39
Q

What is a characteristic fundoscopy finding in neuroretinitis? (1)

A

Macular star (exudate line up in the macula)

40
Q

What is the risk of using Chloramphenicol in pregnancy? (1)

What should be used instead for the management of bacterial conjunctivitis? (1)

A

Neonatal grey baby syndrome

Topical fusidic acid

41
Q

What form of detachment is common in myopic patients? (1)

A

Posterior vitreous detachment

42
Q

Where is the most common location for retinal tears and detachment? (1)

A

Superotemporal

43
Q

What imaging is used to rule out retinal detachment? (1)

A

Ultrasound B-scan

44
Q

What is the management of CMV retinitis? (Seen in HIV/AIDS) (1)

A

Ganciclovir

45
Q

What test is used to assess for corneal abrasions? (1)

A

Fluorescein stain

46
Q

What eye condition is seen secondary to giant cell arteritis? (1)

A

Arteritis anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

47
Q

What is a common complication after cataract surgery that affects sight? What is the treatment for this? (2)

A

Posterior capsule opacification

Laser capsulotomy

48
Q

What is the firstline management for periorbital cellulitis? (1)

A

IV Co-amoxiclav

49
Q

What does a dendritic ulcer on fluorescin staining suggest?

A

Viral keratitis

50
Q

What can be used to artificially replace the fluid in dry eyes? (1)

A

Hypromellose

51
Q

What is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis? (1)

A

Ethmoid sinusitis

Specialties (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions