Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Specialties > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three key enzymes involved in HIV pathogenesis?

A

Reverse Transcriptase, Integrase, Protease

Note: these are the targets of many HIV drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What CD4 count is needed to classify as AIDS?

A

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What diseases are HIV patients at risk of with a CD4 count of 200-500?

A 
Oral hairy leukoplakia
Shingles
Thrush 
Skin infections
TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is used to treat PCP?

A

Co-trimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What stain is used for microscopy of PCP?

A

Silver stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the five classes of antiretroviral drugs used in HIV treatment?

A

Nucleoside/tide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
Protease inhibitors (PIs)
Integrase inhibitors (IIs)
Entry inhibitors (EIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What two opportunistic conditions cause ring lesions in the brain?
How can they be differentiated?

A

Lymphoma - One lesion

Toxoplasmosis - Multiple lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do HIV antibodies become detectable?

What can be used before this point for diagnosis?

A

4 weeks after exposure

PCR can be used 1 week after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is used as PEP and PrEP for HIV? How often are they used

A

Truvada
PrEP - either taken daily or 12 hours before exposure
PEP - give after high risk exposure for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What diagnostic tests would you do in suspected malaria?

A

Blood films - thick and thin

or antigen detection test (dipstick) (Rapid Diagnostic Test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do thick and thin blood films show in malaria investigations?

A

Thick - How much

Thin - what type of parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name four strains of malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which strains of malaria have a dormant liver stage?

A

Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What level of parasitaemia is considered severe?

What is the treatment?

A

> 2%

IV artesunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 4 complications of malaria?

A 
Cerebral malaria
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Spontaneous bleeding and coagulopathy
Septicaemia
Severe anaemia (Haemolytic)
Hypoglycaemia
Metabolic acidosis
Acute kidney injury
Nephrotic syndrome
Jaundice
Splenic rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What prophylaxis can be used for malaria?

A

Doxycycline

Malarone (atovaquone/proguanil)

17
Q

What is a Gohn focus?

A

The primary lesion in TB - it is a caseating granuloma

Once it calcifies it becomes a Ranke focus that is visible on x-ray

18
Q

What is a Gohn complex?

A

Gohn focus plus pulmonary lymph node involvement

19
Q

What investigations are done in suspected TB?

A

Sputum sample - Ziehl Neelson stain for acid fast bacilli OR aura amine phenol staining and detection with fluorescent microscopy
Broncheo-alveolar lavage
Mantoux (false positive if had bCG)
Interferon gamma release assay - Quantiferon
PCR

20
Q

What is the treatment for TB? and a side effect of each drug?

A

Rifamicin - 6 months - Orange secretions
Isoniazid - 6 months - Peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide - 2 months - Deranged LFTs, elevated uric acid, arthralgia
Ethambutol - 2 months - EYES, colour blindness, reduced visual acuity, optic neuritis

21
Q

What is given to prevent side effects of Isoniazid?

A

Pyridoxine

22
Q

What are the TB findings on chest x-ray?

A

Cavitation
Consolidation
Calcification
Fibrosis

23
Q

What would be seen on an MRI head in CJD?

A

Cortical and basal ganglion changes

24
Q

What are some features of measles?

A

Koplick spots (oral - red spots with white centre)
Dry cough
Conjunctivitis
Maculopapular rash starting in the hair line

25
Q

What is the causative agent of measles?

A

Morbillivirus

26
Q

What is the management of exposure to chicken pox in pregnancy?

A

Check immunity - varicella IgG

If non-immune, treat with varicella immunoglobulin

27
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in HIV?

A

Cryptosporidium

28
Q

What is the management for C.diff infection?

A

Metronidazole

29
Q

What is a longterm neurological side effect of measles?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

30
Q

How quickly must a notifiable disease be notified?

A

Within 3 days

Specialties (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions