Operational procedures Flashcards
When is wake turbulence most hazardous?
1- During take-off and landing
2- During take-off, initial climb, final approach, and landing
3- During take-off and initial climb
4- Wake turbulence is equally dangerous during all stages of flight
During take-off, initial climb, final approach, and landing
All except cruise and descent
**Select the answer which lists only visual signs of wind shear.
1-adjacent clouds moving in the same direction,
2-virga,
3-cumulus clouds,
4-funnel clouds,
5-smoke plumes sheared and moving in different directions,
6-tornadoes,
7-dust raised beneath convective clouds,
8-wind socks around the aerodrome responding to different winds
1- 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
2- 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
3- 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
4- No other answer is correct
2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Virga, Funnel clouds, smoke plumes sheared and moving in different directions, tornadoes, dust raised beneath convective clouds, wind socks around the aerodrome responding to different winds
Which factors determine the characteristics of the wake turbulence generated by an aeroplane? Select the most complete answer.
1- The aeroplane’s wingspan and mass
2- The aeroplane’s airspeed and attitude
3- The aeroplane’s mass and attitude
4- All answers are correct
All answers are correct
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
Which precautionary measures should be taken expecting wind shear during take-off? Select the most complete answer.
1- Selecting the maximum flaps configuration for take-off
2- All answers are correct
3- Selecting the TO mode on the PFD
4- Selecting the maximum take-off thrust
Selecting the maximum take-off thrust
With reference to wake turbulence, crosswind is .
1- dangerous, because it can lead to stagnation of wake turbulence vortices on the runway
2- only a danger to airborne aircraft
3- not dangerous
4- dangerous, because it can cause rapid dispersion of wake turbulence vortices
dangerous, because it can lead to stagnation of wake turbulence vortices on the runway
Noise abatement procedures are designed to .
1- maximize safety while maintaining exposure to noise
2- minimize exposure to noise while maintaining safety
3- minimize exposure to noise while maintaining smooth aerodrome operation
4- maintain low exposure to noise while maximizing operational efficiency
minimize exposure to noise while maintaining safety
What happens to an aeroplane as it flies into a microburst?
1- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed increases, its rate of descent decreases and it rises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and descent rate increase and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.
2- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed and rate of descent decrease and it raises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent increase, and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.
3- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed decreases, its rate of descent increases and it sinks below the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent decrease, and the aircraft keeps rising above the glide path.
4- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed and rate of descent increase and it sinks below the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent decrease, and the aircraft keeps rising above the glide path.
Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed increases, its rate of descent decreases and it rises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and descent rate increase and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.
ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path
INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path
OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent
What aeroplanes is wake turbulence most dangerous to?
1- Aeroplanes with a small wingspan
2- Aeroplanes with large wingspan
3- Heavy aeroplanes
4- Light aeroplanes
Aeroplanes with a small wingspan
Who has the authority on deciding whether to execute take-off and approach noise abatement procedures?
1- The aviation Authority
2- Execution of noise abatement procedures is decided upon by the commander and the operator in co-operation
3- The operator
4- The commander
The commander
Wake turbulence caused by an aeroplane increases with its ____ and decreases with its ___ .
1- speed; wingspan
2- speed; mass
3- mass; speed
4- mass; wingspan
mass; speed
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
What is low altitude windshear?
1- A sudden change of wind velocity encountered by aircraft during take-off or landing
2- A sudden change of wind velocity at an altitude below 7000 ft
3- A sudden change of wind velocity along the final approach path or the runway and the take-off and initial climb-out phase
4- A sudden change of wind velocity at an altitude below 5000 ft
A sudden change of wind velocity along the final approach path or the runway and the take-off and initial climb-out phase
For an operation in visual meteorological conditions that incorporates noise abatement procedures, which system is required for a runway to be selected for preferential use?
1- ILS
2- MLS
3- Any radio communication system
4- VASI
VASI
VMC -> VASI
IMC -> ILS
During an in-flight engine fire on a jet aircraft, the commander has already cut the fuel supply to the engine off and tried to extinguish it. The fire is persisting. What should the commander do?
1- Inform the cabin crew
2- Inform the ATC
3- Use the secondary in-built extinguishant
4- Begin an emergency landing
Use the secondary in-built extinguishant
Actions to be taken in a carburettor fire :
1- Do not have to be remmembered by the pilot and can be found in appropriate in-flight manuals
2- Depend on whether the engine has started but are the same for all aeroplane types
3- Are initially the same, regardless of the aircrafts state and might differ if the fire is not immediatly put out
4- Depend on whether the engine has started and may be type-specific
Depend on whether the engine has started and may be type-specific
In which document can detailed information on noise abatement procedures be found?
1- ICAO document 8168
2- EASA procedures for CAT operations
3- Aeronautical Publication Information (AIP), Part AD
4- In NOTAMs of revelant aerodromes
Aeronautical Publication Information (AIP), Part AD
When encountering increased tailwind during landing, the pilot should ____ the engine thrust.
During recovery, the pitch should be changed using ________.
1- Decrease, the flaps
2- Increase; the flaps
3- Increase; the yoke
4- Decrease, the yoke
Increase; the yoke
Tailwind = - airspeed
Heading = +airspeed
What is an emergency landing?
1- A situation in which an aircraft unavoidably needs to land, usually regardless of terrain. i.e due to engine failure.
2- A situation in which further flight is anadvisible, and an aircraft should land to prevent a potentially dangerous situation
3- A situation in which a landing has to be carried out on a flooded runway
4- A landing carried out with a number of dangerous goods onboard that exceeds the maximum allowable values
A situation in which an aircraft unavoidably needs to land, usually regardless of terrain. i.e due to engine failure.
What is ditching?
1- A deliberate and controlled landing on the surface of the water, of an aircraft not designed for this purpose
2- Reducing the aeroplane’s mass by dumping fuel
3- A situation in which a landing has to be carried out on a contaminated runway
4- A precautionary procedure performed to prevent a potentially dangerous situation
A deliberate and controlled landing on the surface of the water, of an aircraft not designed for this purpose
Who is responsible for alerting the emergency services when an emergency landing is necessary?
1- No other answer is correct
2- Any other aircraft that hears the mayday transmission
3- The Air Traffic Controller
4- The pillot in command
The Air Traffic Controller
The term “flight time” is defined as… (1,00 P.)
the period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing.
the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
the period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown.
the total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights.
the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
Chocks off TO chocks on
What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing? (1,00 P.)
Transponder code 7600 has to be set during the whole flight
Contact to the nearest ATC shall consist during the whole flight
For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present
The flight plan has to contain the exact waypoints
For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present
Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person on the ground?
1) Engine power setting
2) Propeller revolutions per minute
3) Position of the landing gear
4) Flap position
5) Flight track
6) Height above ground
7) Flight rules
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 5, 6
1, 5, 6, 7
3, 4, 5, 6, 7
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
**How can the pilot of an an engine-driven aircraft minimise the noise emission during descent and approach? **
Normal approach with normal power setting, configuration prior to initiating descent, shortest possible arrival route
Descent and approach in landing configuration while maintaining a descent angle of 3°, direct approach whenever possible
Low approach with minimum power setting, late configuration and steep approach, adherence to established arrival routes
High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to established arrival routes
High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to established arrival routes
When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?
In descent
In climb
During the approach
In horizontal flight
In climb
How should departures near villages be carried out?
Slow with a low propeller rotation speed
Low and fast between the villages
Climb and changes in direction should be done as slow as possible
Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude
Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude
Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?
Piston engines
Turbine engines
Electric motors
Turboprop engines
Piston engines
**Why is it dangerous to pump the throttle for engine start in cold weather? **
It may cause a carburettor fire
Carburettor icing can occur
The engine might start with not enough power
The oil will become diluted
It may cause a carburettor fire
Which danger exists during engine start?
Cable fire
Carburettor fire
Sparking
Smoke emission
Carburettor fire
May an engine, which previously was on fire, be restarted?
No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high
Yes, if the aircraft is flying at a safe altitude
Yes, but only on the ground for the purpose of taxiing
Yes, but only if the cause of the fire was a carburettor fire during engine start
No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high
Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
**Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire.
Which actions have to be taken immediately?
Switching off the master switch and the ignition
Switching off the heating and the ventilating system
Switching off the pitot and front window heating
Switching off the avionics and the cabin lighting
Switching off the heating and the ventilating system
What should be the first action in case of a cable fire during a flight?
Close the fuel valve
Open the windows
Turn off the master switch
Open cabin ventialtion
Turn off the master switch
What extinguishing agent is the least suitable for an aircraft fire?
Powder
Halon
Water
Foam
Water
“WATER FOr DRY SPECIALly COntaminated Willies”
WATER = Class A (solids)
FOam = Class A + B (liquids)
DRY powder = Class A + B + C (gases)
SPECIAL powder = Class D (metals)
CO2 / halon = Class E (electrical) –> also used for classes A+B+C (most used extinguishant!)
Wet chemical = Class F (oil and fat)
**In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected.
Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken? **
Turn off the heat
Shut down the engine
Turn off the master switch
Use the fire extinguisher
Turn off the master switch
****In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected.
Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken?
Turn off the heat
Shut down the engine
Use the fire extinguisher
Turn off the master switch
Turn off the heat
A wind shear is…
a slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.
a wind speed change of more than 15 kt.
a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.
a meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.
a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction
Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear?
Fog.
Invernal warm front.
Thunderstorms.
Stable high pressure areas.
Thunderstorms
When do you expect wind shear?
During an inversion
In calm wind in cold weather
During a summer day with calm winds
When passing a warm front
During an inversion
Inversion is a deviation from the normal change of an atmospheric property with altitude –> layer in the atmosphere in which air temperature increases with heigh
During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind.
If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
Path is higher, IAS decreases
Path is lower, IAS increases
Path is higher, IAS increases
Path is lower, IAS decreases
Path is lower, IAS decreases
Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind
tailwind = - airspeed –> below glide path
headwind = + airspeed –> above glide path
**During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind.
If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
Path is higher, IAS decreases
Path is lower, IAS increases
Path is higher, IAS increases
Path is lower, IAS decreases
Path is higher, IAS increases
Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind
tailwind = - airspeed –> below glide path
headwind = + airspeed –> above glide path
During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind.
If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
Path is higher, IAS decreases
Path is higher, IAS increases
Path is lower, IAS decreases
Path is lower, IAS increases
Path is higher, IAS increases
Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind
tailwind = - airspeed –> below glide path
headwind = + airspeed –> above glide path
After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result…
the aeroplane flies above the estimated climb path.
the true airspeed (TAS) will increase.
the ground speed (GS) will decrease.
the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path.
the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path.
Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind
tailwind = - airspeed –> below glide path
headwind = + airspeed –> above glide path
How may windshear be recognised in flight?
Sudden and apparently baseless change in altitude, airspeed, rate of climb or descent.
Sudden and apparently baseless change in heading, turning rate, engine speed or oil temperature.
Sudden and apparently baseless change of oil pressure, oil temperature, engine speed and altitude.
Rather unexpected onset of drizzle associated with high stratus clouds following previously clear skies and calm conditions.
Sudden and apparently baseless change in altitude, airspeed, rate of climb or descent.
**Which phenomenon may be expected INSIDE of the microburst?
**
Constant rate of descent
Decrease of descent rate
Increase of airspeed
Decrease of climb rate
Decrease of climb rate
ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path
INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path
OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent
Which phenomenon may be expected EXITING the miroburst?
Decrease in airspeed
Constant rate of descent
Increase in airspeed
Decrease in climb rate
Decrease in airspeed
ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path
INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path
OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent
How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?
Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms
Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes
Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible
Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas
Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms
What action should be taken when entering a windshear?
1. Reduce speed
2. Retract gear and flaps
3. Maintain current configuration
4. Adjust thrust
2 and 4
1 and 2
1 and 3
3 and 4
3 and 4
TOGA + increase pitch (15º) + No change in configuration
After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase.
What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?
An increased climb rate and decreased airspeed
An increased climb rate and airspeed
A decreased climb rate and airspeed
A decreased climb rate and increased airspeed
A decreased climb rate and airspeed
**Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently.
Which action might avoid an unintentional descent?
Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb speed
Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, pick up speed and perform a left or a right turn in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst on the shortest way
Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, increase pitch until attaining optimum climb speed
Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, pick up speed in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst as fast as possible
Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb speed
Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane…
reaches an altitude of 15 ft.
lifts off with the main gear.
lifts off with the front gear.
accelerates.
lifts off with the front gear
Wake turbulence is caused by…
wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil.
jet blast behind a turbine engine.
turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range.
pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.
pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil
Wake turbulence is particularly strong…
when flying at high speeds.
when flying at high altitudes.
when flying at low speeds.
when flying at low altitudes.
when flying at low speeds.
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
Wake turbulence is particularly strong…
at a high aeroplane weight.
when flying with high thrust.
when flying with low thrust.
at a low aeroplane weight.
at a high aeroplane weight
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
The intensity of wake turbulence depends on…
the propeller pitch.
the temperature.
the weight of the aeroplane.
the altitude of the aeroplane.
the weight of the aeroplane
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
Two aircraft of the same type, same grossweight and same configuration fly at different airspeeds.
Which aircraft will cause more severe wake turbulence?
The aircraft flying at lower altitude.
The aircraft flying at slower speed.
The aircraft flying at higher speed.
The aircraft flying at higher altitude.
The aircraft flying at slower speed
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with different speeds and altitude.
Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence?
The aircraft flying at a higher altitude
The aircraft flying at a lower altitude
The aircraft flying at higher speed.
The aircraft flying at lower speed.
The aircraft flying at lower speed
Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude
GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration
With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?
Wake turbulence on or near the runway.
Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.
Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.
Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.
Wake turbulence on or near the runway
A light aircraft intends to land behind a commercial airliner belonging to wake turbulence category “medium” or “heavy” on a long runway.
How can the wake turbulence of the commercial aircraft be avoided?
By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner’s nose gear
By making a steep approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner’s touchdown point
By making a shallow approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner’s nose gear
By making a shallow approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner’s touchdown point
By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner’s nose gear
What should be observed when taxiing behind a commercial airliner?
To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 700 m should be maintained
To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 600 m should be maintained
To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 300 m should be maintained
To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained
To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained
**A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing.
Which steps, with respect to the pilot’s operating handbook, are necessary? **
Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot’s operating handbook for a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing.
Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency landing.
Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.
Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.
Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.
Which method is appropriate to approach an unprepared landing field?
Flat direct approach to ensure visual ground contact
Steep approach to keep the noise level low
Fast approach, performance check, and landing within a quick stop
Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing
Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing
Which area is suitable for an off-field landing?
Harvested cornfield
Glade with long dry grass
Plowed field
Sports area in a village
Harvested cornfield
An emergency landing is a landing…
conducted without power from the engine.
conducted in an attempt to keep up safety regarding an aircraft and its occupants.
conducted with the flaps retracted.
conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.
conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land
A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an…
precautionary landing.
urgent landing.
emergency landing.
field or out landing.
emergency landing
A precautionary landing is a landing…
conducted without power from the engine.
conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.
conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety.
conducted with the flaps retracted.
conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety
**Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing? **
A lake with an undisturbed surface
A light brown field with short crops
A meadow without livestock
A field with ripe waving crops
A light brown field with short crops
How does the pilot prepare for a VFR flight over a large distance of water, when it is unlikely that land can be reached in case of an engine failure?
File a flight plan including the exact way-points.
Be prepared to fly with transponder only.
Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants.
Maintain continuous radio contact with ATC.
Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants
Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?
How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the competent search and rescue (SAR) center
Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit
Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing
How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home airport
Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing
After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot.
In which way should the pilot approach them?
From the right or left side
At an angle of 45°
From the front or back side
From the front, right or left side
From the front or back side
What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?
The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon
The affected tyres may burst in axial direction
The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation
The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown
The affected tyres may burst in axial direction
In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated…
before disembarking the aircraft.
during disembarking the aircraft.
after disembarking the aircraft at a safe distance of about 10 m.
after disembarking the aircraft.
after disembarking the aircraft
What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?
Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance
Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance
Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance
Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance
Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance
Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated?
When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand
When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand
When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
**What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway
“contaminated”?
50 %
25 %
10 %
75 %
25 %
Wet snow on a runway can lead to…
an increase in lift.
a decrease in lift.
reduced rolling resistance during take-off.
increased rolling resistance during take-off.
increased rolling resistance during take-off
What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?
Decreased rolling resistance during take-off
An increase in lift
Increased rolling resistance during take-off
A decrease in lift
Increased rolling resistance during take-off
Which danger exists after a heavy rain shower for a landing aircraft?
Displacement of the tire slip marking
Difficult flare due to glare
Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning
Decreased braking distance due to aquaplaning
Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning
Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?
Add power and use flaps and spoilers to brake aerodynamically
Apply maximum braking to reduce aircraft speed to less than hydroplaning speed, then continue normal ground roll
Cross rudder and aileron controls in order to use the aircraft fuselage to brake aerodynamically
If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means
If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means
Maximum braking leads to reverted rubber skid!
How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes
Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected off- field landing site.
What technique may be recommended for landing?
Touch down with minimum speed, compensate different ground levels with power lever
Approach with increased speed, push elevetor upon first ground contact
Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop
Approach with increased speed, avoid using wheel brakes
Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop
If Search and Rescue (SAR) is expected not to be available during a flight and the aeroplane does not have survival equipment beyond a flare pistol and an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), what is the farthest distance the aeroplane can be from an area suitable for an emergency landing?
1- 80 minutes of flight at cruising speed
2- 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed
3- 60 minutes of flight at cruising speed
4- 90 minutes of flight at cruising speed
90 minutes of flight at cruising speed
For aeroplanes with turbine engines, what is the minimum fuel required to fly to an isolated aerodrome from the nearest adequate destination alternate?
1- Fuel necessary to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
2- No other answer is correct
3- Fuel necessary to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
4- Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
What types of fuel can an aeroplane be fuelled or defuelled with when passengers are on board?
1- Any fuel, provided the crew is appropriately trained
2- Any fuel except aviation gasoline
3- The aeroplane cannot be fuelled or defuelled with any fuel when passengers are on board
4- Wide-cut fuel
Any fuel except aviation gasoline
Which of the listed parameters must be available during the flight to the 2nd pilot? Select the most complete answer.
1- Stabilised heading
2- Indicated airspeed
3- All answers are correct
4- Slip
All answers are correct
When a violation of local laws was necessary to provide safety of the aeroplane or the passengers, which authorities should be informed by the PIC?
1- The local authorities and ICAO
2- The local authorities, the state of the operator, and ICAO
3- The local authorities and the state of the operator
4- The state of the operator and ICAO
The local authorities and the state of the operator
What is anti-icing?
1- Anti-icing is a reactionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
2- Anti-icing is a process which removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces
3- Anti-icing is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
4- Anti-icing is a reactionary procedure which removes ice, snow, slush, or frost from the aeroplane and by which the aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
Anti-icing is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
De-icing = is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces
What is de-icing?
1- De-icing is a reactionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
2- De-icing is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces
3- De-icing is a reactionary procedure that removes ice, snow, slush, or frost from the aeroplane and by which the aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
4- De-icing is a process by that ice, snow, slush or frost is first removed and then in which aeroplane is protected against the formation of ice on the ground
De-icing is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces
Anti-icing = is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
Which of the listed information must be kept on the ground for each flight or series of flights? Select the most complete answer.
1- A copy of CofA
2- All answers are correct
3- A copy of a certificate of registration
4- Copies of aircraft technical log parts
Copies of aircraft technical log parts
Which part of which ICAO Annex concerns international Commercial Air Transport (CAT) conducted by aeroplanes?
1- Part 2 of ICAO Annex 5
2- Part 1 of ICAO Annex 6
3- Part 1 of ICAO Annex 5
4- Part 2 of ICAO Annex 6
Part 1 of ICAO Annex 6
What is the minimum mass for a jet-driven aeroplane to be equipped with 2 independent static pressure systems?
1- 5,700 kg
2- 5,000 kg
3- 10,000 kg
4- No other answer is correct
What is de-icing/anti-icing?
1- De-icing/anti-icing is a reactionary 2-step procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time
2- De-icing/anti-icing is a 2-step procedure which combines de-icing and anti-icing
3- No other answer is correct
4- De-icing/anti-icing is a 1-step procedure which uses anti-icing fluid to perform aircraft de-icing and anti-icing
No other answer is correct
What conditions are necessary to commence a VFR flight?
1- VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR and during take-off and landing
2- Weather minima met at the destination aerodrome or a destination alternate at the time of arrival
3- Weather minima met at the destination aerodrome and a destination alternate at the time of arrival
4- VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR
VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR
With reference to destination alternates, select the answer that is true. Select the most complete answer.
1- Destination alternate is an aerodrome which a flight can be diverted to regardless of the weather minima
2- Destination alternate is an aerodrome that can be diverted when landing at the destination is not possible or not recommended
3- Destination alternate is an aerodrome where a Non-Precision Approach (NPA) can always be performed in case of a flight being diverted
4- All answers are correct
Destination alternate is an aerodrome that can be diverted when landing at the destination is not possible or not recommended
Which of the listed forms and information must be carried on each flight? Select the most complete answer.
1- All answers are correct
2- Aeronautical charts and meteorological information
3- Aeronautical charts and a journey log or equivalent
4- SAR information
All answers are correct
What does the minimum visibility for circling depend on? Select the most complete answer.
1- Aeroplane category
2- Pilot license
3- Navigational aids
4- All answers are correct
Aeroplane category
Circling = the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach
For aeroplanes with turbine engines, what is the minimum fuel required to fly to an isolated aerodrome from the nearest adequate destination alternate?
1- Fuel necessary to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
2- No other answer is correct
3- Fuel necessary to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
4- Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome
Which of the listed equipment is required when performing an IFR flight in a propeller-driven aeroplane with a take-off mass below 3,000 kg? .
1- Secondary altimeter
2- Secondary pressure system
3- A standby attitude indicator
4- All answers are correct
Secondary altimeter
Who is responsible for operational control throughout an operation, before any delegation of responsibility?
1- The pilot-in-command
2- A designated on-board representative of the operator
3- Either the pilot-in-command or the operator, chosen prior to the flight
4- The operator or a designated representative
The operator or a designated representative
Which of the listed seats must be equipped with a shoulder harness?
1- Non-additional cabin crew seats
2- Pilot seats in the flight crew compartment
3- All answers are correct
4- Non-pilot seats in the flight crew compartment
All answers are correct
Which of the listed information must be kept on the ground for each flight or series of flights? Select the most complete answer.
1- A copy of CofA
2- All answers are correct
3- A copy of a certificate of registration
4- Copies of aircraft technical log parts
Copies of aircraft technical log parts
When can a pilot deviate from an established departure or arrival route?
1- When certified on the aircraft and acknowledging the operating conditions
2- When given the ATC clearance and certified on the aircraft
3- When given an ATC clearance and acknowledging the operating conditions
4- When in uncertified airspace
When given an ATC clearance and acknowledging the operating conditions
If Search and Rescue (SAR) is expected not to be available during a flight and the aeroplane does not have survival equipment beyond a flare pistol and an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), what is the farthest distance the aeroplane can be from an area suitable for an emergency landing?
1- 80 minutes of flight at cruising speed
2- 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed
3- 60 minutes of flight at cruising speed
4- 90 minutes of flight at cruising speed
90 minutes of flight at cruising speed
Which of the listed documents must be carried on each flight?
1- The original CofA and certificate of registration and a true copy of the AOC
2- A true copy of the CofA, the certificate of registration and the AOC
3- The original CofA and a true copy of the certificate of registration and the AOC
4- A true copy of the CofA and the certificate of registration and the original AOC
The original CofA and a true copy of the certificate of registration and the AOC
During which types of operations is a radiocommunication transmit button on the pitch and roll controller required?
1- No other answer is correct
2- All commercial operations
3- All operations with radiocommunications used
4- Only during IFR operations
No other answer is correct
Which of the listed parameters must be available during the flight to the 2nd pilot? Select the most complete answer.
1- Stabilised heading
2- Indicated airspeed
3- All answers are correct
4- Slip
All answers are correct
What should the pilot do if the aeroplane encounters a downdraft?
1- Carefully increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 12 degrees
2- Carefully increase the trust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees
3- Rapidly increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees
4- Rapidly increase the trust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 12 degrees
Rapidly increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees
When recovering from wind shear, what is the initial target attitude to which pitch should be changed?
1- 15 degrees
2- 12 degrees
3- 10 degrees
4- 8 degrees
15 degrees
In which atmospheric conditions is wake turbulence most dangerous?
1- In high winds
2- Atmospheric conditions do not significantly affect wake turbulence
3- In atmospheric turbulence
4- In light wind conditions
In light wind conditions
During an in-flight engine fire on a jet aircraft, the commander has already cut the fuel supply to the engine off and tried to extinguish it. The fire is persisting. What should the commander do?
1- Inform the cabin crew
2- Inform the ATC
3- Use the secondary in-built extinguishant
4- Begin an emergency landing
Use the secondary in-built extinguishant
What is the minimum required number of fire extinguishers on an aeroplane with 95 passenger seats?
1- 3, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers
2- 2, including at least 1 Halon 1211 extinguisher
3- 4, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers
4- 4, including at least 1 Halon 1211 extinguisher
3, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers
7 - 30 = 1
31 - 60 = 2
61 - 200 = 3
201 - 300 = 4
