Meteorology Flashcards

1
Q

What is atmospheric pressure?
1-The force exerted by the atmosphere on any surface in contact with it, divided by the total area of a specified region

2- The force exerted by the atmosphere on any surface in contact with it, divided by a unit of area

3- The sum of the force exerted by the atmosphere on any surface and the aerodynamic force, divided by the total lift-generating area of the aeroplane

4- No other answer is correct

A

2- The force exerted by the atmosphere on any surface in contact with it, divided by a unit of area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are surface temperature inversions frequently generated?

1- By gusting winds, increasing surface friction during the day, with consequent mixing at the lower levels

2- By terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night

3- By compression, causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform clouds

4- By an unstable air mass, causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels

A

2- By terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the troposphere?

1- The part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere

2- The boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

3- The boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere

4- The part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

A

4- The part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main components of the atmosphere?

1- Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Xenon

2- Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon

3- Sulphur Dioxide, Carbon Dioxide, Particulates

4- Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Ozone

A

2- Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the reason for the temperature increase during condensation?

1- The heating is a result of the latent heat being released

2- Rising air cools adiabatically and descends, so only warm air remains at altitude

3- Rising air cools adiabatically and starts ascending faster, so only warm air remains at the initial altitude

4- No other answer is correct

A

1- The heating is a result of the latent heat being released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is true when the ambient temperature decreases and the dew point temperature remains unchanged?

1- The Relative Humidity (RH) increases

2-The Relative Humidity (RH) decreases

3- The amount of water vapour decreases

4- The amount of water vapour increases

A

The Relative Humidity (RH) increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is radiation fog most likely to form?

1- Early morning

2- At midday

3- Around 4 p.m.

4- Just before sunset

A

Early morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is true about St and Ns clouds?

1- St may produce heavier rain than Ns

2- St is typically associated with much better visibility than Ns

3- Turbulence is stronger within St than within Ns

4- Ns may produce heavier rain than St

A

Ns may produce heavier rain than St

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which clouds can showers fall from?

1- Only cumulus clouds
2- Only heap clouds
3- Only cumulonimbus clouds
4- No other answer is correct

A

Only heap clouds

Heap = Convective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A parcel of the saturated air would consist of more water vapour ______ .

1- when aloft than at MSL

2- when at the poles than on the equator

3- when on the equator than at the poles

4- when on Sahara than on Greenland

A

when on the equator than at the poles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the true altitude when flying from a warm to a cold region with a constant FL indication on the altimeter?

1-True altitude decreases

2- True altitude increases

3- True altitude will remain unchanged

4- True altitude will increase or decrease, depending on the relative humidity

A

True altitude decreases

From warm to cold don´t be bold!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Consider a parked aircraft at the airport. What effect will decreasing pressure have on the altimeter-indicated altitude?

1- The indicated altitude will decrease

2- The indicated altitude will increase

3- The indicated altitude will remain unchanged

4- The indicated altitude will increase or decrease, depending on the ISA temperature deviation

A

The indicated altitude will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to the ISA model, at which altitude the air density reaches 50% of the MSL density?

11 000 ft
22 000 ft
40 000 ft
31 000 ft

A

22 000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What errors may altimeters be subject to? Select the most complete answer.

1-All answers are correct
2-Mechanical errors
3-Barometric errors
4-Temperature errors

A

All answers are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter indication during the resetting procedure?

1-It is not possible to give a definitive answer
2-The altimeter indication will remain the same
3-The altimeter indication will decrease
4-The altimeter indication will increase

A

The altimeter indication will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sea breeze is a wind
that blows XXXXXX
during the XXXXXX

A

[ from sea to land ]
[ day ]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the indication of a large pressure gradient?

1- Closely spaced isobars and light winds

2- Closely spaced isobars and strong winds

3- Distantly spaced isobars and strong winds

4- Distantly spaced isobars and light winds

A

Closely spaced isobars and strong winds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is the thermal turbulence most pronounced?

1- During sunny days in the early afternoon

2- During cloudy days in the morning
In the evening

3-During sunny days in the morning

A

During sunny days in the early afternoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is true about mechanical turbulence?

1- Mechanical turbulence is another term for wake turbulence

2- Mechanical turbulence is caused by physical obstructions like buildings, trees and any irregularities of the terrain

3- Mechanical turbulence is caused by the vertical movement of the air in an unstable airmass

4- Mechanical turbulence can be experienced at FL350

A

Mechanical turbulence is caused by physical obstructions like buildings, trees and any irregularities of the terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where should pilots expect the occurrence of mountain waves? Select the most complete answer.

1- Up to the tropopause

2- All answers are correct

3- On the leeward side of the mountain range

4- Below Altocumulus lenticularis clouds

A

All answers are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the name of an elongated low-pressure system?

1- Ridge
2- Trough
3- Col
4- Secondary depression

A

Trough

Ridge = elongated high-pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which air mass affecting Europe originates in the North Atlantic?

1-Arctic maritime

2- Tropical maritime

3- Polar maritime

4- No other answer is correct

A

3- Polar maritime

North atlantic =Polar maritime
Subtropical atlantic = Tropical maritime
Siberia = Polar continental
Southern Balkan region and Near East = Tropical continental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

* ________ creates ______ systems near the ground.*

1- High-level convergence / low-pressure

2- High-level divergence / low-pressure

3- Low-level convergence / high-pressure

4- High-level divergence / high-pressure

A

High-level divergence / low-pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cold fronts are associated with _____ .

1- fog, heavy rains, and thunderstorms

2- light winds and heavy rains

3- clear sky

4- strong gusts, heavy rains, and thunderstorms

A

strong gusts, heavy rains, and thunderstorms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is true about orographic depressions?

1- Orographic depressions form on the leeward sides of mountains

2- Orographic depressions are common in the North European Plain

3- Orographic depressions are associated with stable weather

4- No other answer is correct

A

Orographic depressions form on the leeward sides of mountains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The flight visibility is 1,500 m and the relative humidity is 98%. Which obscurant causes the visibility reduction?

1- Haze
2- No other answer is correct
3- Fog
4- Mist

A

Mist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In which conditions is the risk of carburettor icing the highest?

1- Temperature – 10 °C and relative humidity – 40%
2- Temperature – 10 °C and relative humidity – 80%
3- Temperature – 30 °C and relative humidity – 80%
4- Temperature – 30 °C and relative humidity – 40%

A

Temperature – 10 °C and relative humidity – 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In which circumstances is hoar frost the most likely to occur?

1- When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a low level of humidity in the air

2- When the aircraft flies from a warm region into a cold region with a high level of humidity in the air

3- When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a high level of humidity in the air

4- When the aircraft flies from a warm region into a cold region with a low level of humidity in the air

A

When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a high level of humidity in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Large supercooled droplets are _____ dangerous than the small ones, because they can form _____ ice.

1- less; clear

2- less; rime

3- more; rime

4- more; clear

A

more; clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a non-intentional entry into IMC occurs, the pilot without Instrument Rating should ____.

1- continue the flight

2- make a 180° turn relying solely on instruments such as an attitude indicator and a turn coordinator

3- make a very steep turn as quick as possible

4- begin to climb

A

make a 180° turn relying solely on instruments such as an attitude indicator and a turn coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ATIS is an abbreviation for _____ .

1- Aeronautical Terminal Information Service

2- Automatic Terminal Information Service

3- Aerodrome Terminal Information Service

4- Aviation Terminal Information Service

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

METARs are issued every ____.
60 minutes
6 hours
2 hours
30 minutes

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The first section (SECN I) of a GAMET gives details on ____ and the second one (SECN II) gives details on ____ .

1- significant weather phenomena; forecast weather

2- forecast weather; significant weather phenomena

3- current weather; forecast weather

4- forecast weather; current weather

A

significant weather phenomena; forecast weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the METAR code ‘BKN002’ mean?

1- That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 m

2- That between 3 and 4 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 m

3- That between 3 and 4 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

4- That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

A

That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the listed surfaces will heat up most quickly?

1- Sea
2- Grass
3- Concrete
4- Wet soil

A

Concrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the troposphere?

1- The part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
2- The boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
3- The boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
4- The part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

A

The part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How are surface temperature inversions frequently generated?

1- By gusting winds, increasing surface friction during the day, with consequent mixing at the lower levels

2- By terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night

3- By compression, causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform clouds

4- By an unstable air mass, causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels

A

By terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the main components of the atmosphere?

1- Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Xenon

2- Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon

3- Sulphur Dioxide, Carbon Dioxide, Particulates

4- Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Ozone

A

Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Argon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to the ISA model, at which altitude the air density reaches 50% of the MSL density?

11 000 ft
22 000 ft
40 000 ft
31 000 ft

A

22 000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Consider a parked aircraft at the airport. What effect will decreasing pressure have on the altimeter-indicated altitude?

1- The indicated altitude will decrease

2- The indicated altitude will increase

3- The indicated altitude will remain unchanged

4- The indicated altitude will increase or decrease, depending on the ISA temperature deviation

A

The indicated altitude will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter indication during the resetting procedure?

1- It is not possible to give a definitive answer

2- The altimeter indication will remain the same

3- The altimeter indication will decrease

4- The altimeter indication will increase

A

3- The altimeter indication will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The natural tendency of the air is that it flows ____.

1- from the area of low pressure to the area of high pressure

2- from mountainous regions towards the flat terrain

3- from the land towards the sea

4- from the area of high pressure to the area of low pressure

A

from the area of high pressure to the area of low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is true when the ambient temperature decreases and the dew point temperature remains unchanged?

1- The Relative Humidity (RH) increases

2- The Relative Humidity (RH) decreases

3- The amount of water vapour decreases

4- The amount of water vapour increases

A

The Relative Humidity (RH) increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A parcel of the saturated air would consist of more water vapour ___ .

1- when aloft than at MSL

2- when at the poles than on the equator

3- when on the equator than at the poles

4- when on Sahara than on Greenland

A

when on the equator than at the poles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When is radiation fog most likely to form?

1- Early morning
2- At midday
3- Around 4 p.m.
4- Just before sunset

A

Early morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the average value of the DALR?

0.6 °C/100 m

1.8 °C/100 m

3 °C/100 m

1 °C/100 m

A

1 °C/100 m

3ºC/1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is true about mechanical turbulence?

1- Mechanical turbulence is another term for wake turbulence

2- Mechanical turbulence is caused by physical obstructions like buildings, trees and any irregularities of the terrain

3- Mechanical turbulence is caused by the vertical movement of the air in an unstable airmass

4- Mechanical turbulence can be experienced at FL350

A

Mechanical turbulence is caused by physical obstructions like buildings, trees and any irregularities of the terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

During a sunny afternoon, an aircraft is approaching an airfield, the runway of which is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on the final approach?

1- A crosswind from the left

2- A crosswind from the right

3- A tailwind

3- A headwind

A

A crosswind from the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is true about orographic depressions?

1- Orographic depressions form on the leeward sides of mountains

2- Orographic depressions are common in the North European Plain

3- Orographic depressions are associated with stable weather

4- No other answer is correct

A

Orographic depressions form on the leeward sides of mountains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sea breeze is a wind that blows ____ during the ____.

A

[ from sea to land ] [ day ]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The zone of the subtropical highs is located at the latitude of around ___.

30°N
10°N
50°S
10°S

A

30°N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

* ____ creates____ systems near the ground.*

1- High-level convergence / low-pressure

2- High-level divergence / low-pressure

3- Low-level convergence / high-pressure

4- High-level divergence / high-pressure

A

High-level divergence / low-pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an occluded front?

1- A front that moves at the speed of 5 knots or less

2- A front that is created as warm air accumulated in the warm sector gets trapped over the cold air

3- A boundary created as warm air pushes cold air out

4- A front created when a quickly travelling warm front meets a slow cold front

A

A front that is created as warm air accumulated in the warm sector gets trapped over the cold air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If a non-intentional entry into IMC occurs, the pilot without Instrument Rating should ____.

1- continue the flight

2- make a 180° turn relying solely on instruments such as an attitude indicator and a turn coordinator

3- make a very steep turn as quick as possible

4- begin to climb

A

make a 180° turn relying solely on instruments such as an attitude indicator and a turn coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which type of ice can be best described as transparent, heavy and structurally strong?

1- Mixed ice
2- Rime ice
3- Clear ice or glaze
4- Hoar frost

A

Clear ice or glaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In which type of clouds is rime rice likely to accrete?

1- Cumulus, Stratocumulus and Nimbostratus

2- Cumulus, Stratocumulus and Altostratus

3- Stratus, Stratocumulus and Nimbostratus

4- Stratus, Cumulonimbus and Altostratus

A

Stratus, Stratocumulus and Nimbostratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where can the en-route forecasts regarding weather conditions be found?

1- In METARs
2- On weather charts
3- In TAFs
4- In SPECIs

A

On weather charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A METAR wind group is ‘09009G25KT’. What does it mean?

1- That the wind speed varies between 9 kt and 25 kt

2- That gusts with a maximum speed of 25 kt may be experienced

3- That gusts with an average speed of 25 kt may be experienced

4- That the wind blows from the direction of 250°T

A

That gusts with a maximum speed of 25 kt may be experienced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are thermals?

1- Downward cooling currents caused by uneven heating of the earth’s surface by solar radiation

2- Upward convective currents caused by uneven heating of the earth’s surface by solar radiation

3- Deviations from the standard trend of atmospheric properties’ change with altitude

4- Boundaries separating air masses of different characteristics, such as air density, temperature and humidity

A

Upward convective currents caused by uneven heating of the earth’s surface by solar radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How is temperature defined?

1- Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of all molecules forming a system

2- The quantity of energy transferred as heat in a process

3- The sum of the system’s internal energy and the product of its pressure and volume

4- No other answer is correct

A

Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of all molecules forming a system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The QNH is equal to the QFE if ______ .

1- the elevation of the aerodrome is equal to 0 ft AMSL

2- the actual temperature equals the standard temperature

3- the actual temperature is lower than the standard temperature

4- the actual temperature is higher than the standard temperature

A

the elevation of the aerodrome is equal to 0 ft AMSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Regarding air density, which of the following statements is true?

1- Cold air is less dense than warm air

2- Air density is not influenced by air humidity

3- Warm air is less dense than cold air

4- If the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease

A

Warm air is less dense than cold air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the name of the ragged clouds formed below the Ns when the turbulence is present at the lowest level of the stratosphere?

1- Altocumulus lenticularis

2- Altocumulus castellanus

3- Stratus fractus

4- Startus humilis

A

Stratus fractus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

1- Haze is reported only when the visibility is reduced to less than 2,500 m

2- Fog is reported to the upper limit of 5,000 m

3- Mist is reported to the upper limit of 5,000 m

4- No other answer is correct

A

Mist is reported to the upper limit of 5,000 m

FOG /FG):
-Water microdroplet suspension
-Visibility less than 1000m

HAZE (HZ):
-Dust suspension
-Visibility 1000 to 5000m

MIST (BR):
-Water microdroplet
-Visibility 1000 to 5000m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Coalescence is powered by__ _. It occurs ___ and causes rain or ___.

1- oversaturation; below 0 °C; snow

2- oversaturation; above 0 °C; drizzle

3- drafts; above 0 °C; drizzle

4- drafts; above 0 °C; snow

A

drafts; above 0 °C; drizzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When is the thermal turbulence most pronounced?

1- During sunny days in the early afternoon

2- During cloudy days in the morning

3- In the evening

4- During sunny days in the morning

A

During sunny days in the early afternoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Behind a warm front, pressure ____ and temperature ____.

1- does not increase; increases

2- decreases; increases

3- increases; decreases

4- remains constant; increases

A

does not increase; increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The passage of _____ warm front is associated with ____.

1- stable; good flight visibility

2- unstable; long and continuous precipitation

3- stable; long and continuous precipitation

4- unstable; thunderstorms and good ground visibility

A

stable; long and continuous precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In which circumstances is hoar frost the most likely to occur?

1- When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a low level of humidity in the air

2- When the aircraft flies from a warm region into a cold region with a high level of humidity in the air

3- When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a high level of humidity in the air

4- When the aircraft flies from a warm region into a cold region with a low level of humidity in the air

A

When the aircraft flies from a cold region into a warm region with a high level of humidity in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The flight visibility is 1,500 m and the relative humidity is 98%. Which obscurant causes the visibility reduction?

1- Haze
2- No other answer is correct
3- Fog
4- Mist

A

Mist

FOG /FG):
-Water microdroplet suspension
-Visibility less than 1000m

HAZE (HZ):
-Dust suspension
-Visibility 1000 to 5000m

MIST (BR):
-Water microdroplet
-Visibility 1000 to 5000m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the METAR code ‘BKN002’ mean?

1- That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 m

2- That between 3 and 4 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 m

3- That between 3 and 4 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

4- That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

A

That between 5 and 7 oktas are covered by the clouds, the base of which is at 200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What clouds and weather may result from an humid and instable air mass, that is pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise?
(1,00 P.)

 Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain.

 Thin Altostratus and Cirrostratus clouds with light and steady precipitation.

 Overcast low stratus (high fog) with no precipitation.

 Smooth, unstructured NS cloud with light drizzle or snow (during winter).

A

Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air, is forced to rise upslope of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailling wind? (1,00 P.)

 Orographic fog
 Steaming fog
 Radiation fog
 Advection fog

A

Orographic fog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What situation is called “over-development” in a weather report? (1,00 P.)

 Vertical development of Cumulus clouds to rain showers

 Widespreading of Cumulus clouds below an inversion layer

 Change from blue thermals to cloudy thermals during the afternoon

 Development of a thermal low to a storm depression

A

Vertical development of Cumulus clouds to rain showers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the gas composition of “air”? (1,00 P.)

 Oxygen 21 %
Water vapour 78 %
Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

 Oxygen 78 %
Water vapour 21 %
Nitrogen 1 %

 Nitrogen 21 %
Oxygen 78 %
Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

 Oxygen 21 %
Nitrogen 78 %
Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

A

Oxygen 21 %
Nitrogen 78 %
Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

**Weather phenomena are most common to be found in which atmospheric layer? **

 Stratosphere
 Tropopause
 Thermosphere
 Troposphere

A

Troposphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the mass of a “cube of air” with the edges 1 m long, at MSL according ISA?

 1,225 kg
 0,01225 kg
 0,1225 kg
 12,25 kg

A

1,225 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

At what rate does the temperature change with increasing height according to ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere) within the troposphere? (1,00 P.)

 Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft
 Increases by 2° C / 1000 ft
 Decreases by 2° C / 100 m
 Increases by 2° C / 100 m

A

Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft

= 0.65ºC / 100 m

79
Q

What is the mean height of the tropopause according to ISA
(ICAO Standard Atmosphere)? (1,00 P.)

 18000 ft
 11000 ft
 11000 m
 36000 m

A

11000 m

= 36 000 ft

80
Q

The term “tropopause” is defined as… (1,00 P.)

 the layer above the troposphere showing an increasing temperature.
 the boundary area between the mesosphere and the stratosphere.
 the boundary area between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
 the height above which the temperature starts to decrease.

A

 the boundary area between the troposphere and the stratosphere.

81
Q

Temperatures will be given by meteorological aviation services in Europe in which unit? (1,00 P.)

 Degrees Centigrade (° C)
 Kelvin
 Gpdam
 Degrees Fahrenheit

A

Degrees Centigrade (° C)

82
Q

What is meant by “inversion layer”? (1,00 P.)

 An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height

 A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere

 An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height

 An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

A

An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

83
Q

What is meant by “isothermal layer”? (1,00 P.)

 An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

 An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height

 A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere

 An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height

A

An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height

84
Q

The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according ISA is… (1,00 P.)

 0,65° C / 100 m.
 3° C / 100 m.
 1° C / 100 m.
 0,6° C / 100 m.

A

0,65° C / 100 m.

= 2ºC / 1000 ft

85
Q

Which process may result in an inversion layer at about 5000 ft (1500 m) height?

 Intensive sunlight insolation during a warm summer day
 Widespread descending air within a high pressure area
 Ground cooling by radiation during the night
 Advection of cool air in the upper troposphere

A

Widespread descending air within a high pressure area

86
Q

An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by… (1,00 P.)

 ground cooling during the night.

 large-scale lifting of air.

 intensifying and gusting winds.

 thickening of clouds in medium layers.

A

ground cooling during the night.

87
Q

What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)? (1,00 P.)

 250 hPa
 300 hPa
 1013.25 hPa
 500 hPa

A

500 hPa

If at MSL density = 1013.25 hPa
At 22 000 density = 50% of MSL — 500 h

88
Q

**The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL) by means of the actual atmospheric conditions is called… (1,00 P.)
**

 QNH.
 QNE.
 QFE.
 QFF.

A

QFF

QFE (“FE”irport) = read 0 ft on ground.
QNE = (“NE”utral) SPS = 1013.25 hPa
QNH = (“H”20) = Reads elevation when on ground – Reduced to MSL – ISA condition
QFF = Surface atmospheric pressure — Reduced to MSL – Actual condition

QNH Vs QFF:
-If at MSL – QNH = QFF
- if temp AND height is above ISA —- QNH bigger than QFF
- if temp AND height is bellow ISA —- QNH is bigger than QFF

89
Q

Which processes result in decreasing air density? (1,00 P.)

 Decreasing temperature, increasing pressure
 Increasing temperature, decreasing pressure
 Increasing temperature, increasing pressure
 Decreasing temperature, decreasing pressure

A

Increasing temperature, decreasing pressure

90
Q

The pressure at MSL in ISA conditions is… (1,00 P.)

 113.25 hPa.
 15 hPa.
 1013.25 hPa.
 1123 hPa.

A

113.25 hPa.

91
Q

**The height of the tropopause of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is at…
**

 5500 ft.
 11000 ft.
 36000 ft.
 48000 ft.

A

36000 ft.

= 11 000 m

92
Q

The barometric altimeter indicates height above… (1,00 P.)

 a selected reference pressure level.
 mean sea level.
 standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
 ground.

A

a selected reference pressure level.

93
Q

The altimeter can be checked on the ground by setting… (1,00 P.)

 QFE and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

 QNH and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

 QNE and checking that the indication shows zero on the ground.

 QFF and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

A

QNH and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

94
Q

The barometric altimeter with QFE setting indicates… (1,00 P.)

 height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.

 true altitude above MSL.

 height above MSL.

 height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.

A

height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.

95
Q

The barometric altimeter with QNH setting indicates… (1,00 P.)

 height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
 height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.
 true altitude above MSL.
 height above MSL.

A

height above MSL.

QFE (“FE”irport) = read 0 ft on ground.
QNE = (“NE”utral) SPS = 1013.25 hPa
QNH = (“H”20) = Reads elevation when on ground – Reduced to MSL – ISA condition
QFF = Surface atmospheric pressure — Reduced to MSL – Actual condition

QNH Vs QFF:
-If at MSL – QNH = QFF
- if temp AND height is above ISA —- QNH bigger than QFF
- if temp AND height is bellow ISA —- QNH is bigger than QFF

96
Q

Given the following information, what is the true altitude?
(rounded to the nearest 50 ft)
QNH: 983 hPa
Altitude: FL 85
Outside Air Temperature: ISA - 10° (1,00 P.)

 7900 ft
 9400 ft
 7300 ft
 7600 ft

A

7300 ft

Press corr = (QNH - 1

True alt = Indicated alt + Press corr + Temp corr

97
Q

How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts?

 By alignment and distance of isobaric lines
 By alignment and distance of hypsometric lines
 By alignment of lines of warm- and cold fronts.
 By annotations from the text part of the chart

A

By alignment and distance of isobaric lines

98
Q

Which force causes “wind”? (1,00 P.)
 Centrifugal force
 Thermal force
 Coriolis force
 Pressure gradient force

A

Pressure gradient force

99
Q

Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is…

 perpendicular to the isohypses.
 at an angle of 30° to the isobars towards low pressure.
 parallel to the isobars.
 perpendicular to the isobars.

A

parallel to the isobars.

100
Q

Which of the stated surfaces will reduce the wind speed most due to ground friction?

 Flat land, deserted land, no vegetation
 Oceanic areas
 Mountainous areas, vegetation cover
 Flat land, lots of vegetation cover

A

Mountainous areas, vegetation cover

101
Q

The movement of air flowing together is called… (1,00 P.)

 convergence.
 divergence.
 soncordence.
 subsidence.

A

convergence.

102
Q

The movement of air flowing apart is called… (1,00 P.)

 convergence.
 concordence.
 divergence.
 subsidence.

A

divergence

103
Q

What weather development will result from convergence at ground level? (1,00 P.)

 Descending air and cloud formation
 Ascending air and cloud dissipation
 Descending air and cloud dissipation
 Ascending air and cloud formation

A

Ascending air and cloud formation

104
Q

When air masses meet each other head on, how is this referred to and what air movements will follow? (1,00 P.)

 Convergence resulting in sinking air

 Divergence resulting in sinking air

 Convergence resulting in air being lifted

 Divergence resulting in air being lifted

A

Convergence resulting in air being lifted

105
Q

What are the air masses that Central Europe is mainly influenced by? (1,00 P.)

 Arctic and polar cold air

 Polar cold air and tropical warm air

 Equatorial and tropical warm air

 Tropical and arctic cold air

A

Polar cold air and tropical warm air

106
Q

With regard to global circulation within the atmosphere, where does polar cold air meets subtropical warm air?

 At the equator
 At the geographic poles
 At the subtropical high pressure belt
 At the polar front

A

At the polar front

107
Q

Winds blowing uphill are defined as… (1,00 P.)

 katabatic winds.
 anabatic winds.
 convergent winds.
 subsident winds.

A

anabatic winds.

108
Q

Winds blowing downhill are defined as… (1,00 P.)

 anabatic winds.
 katabatic winds.
 convergent winds.
 subsident winds.

A

katabatic winds.

109
Q

Air descending behind a mountain range is defined as… (1,00 P.)

 katabatic wind.
 convergent wind.
 anabatic wind.
 divergent wind.

A

katabatic wind.

110
Q

“Foehn” conditions usually develop with… (1,00 P.)

 instability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.

 stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.

 instability, high pressure area with calm wind.

 stability, high pressure area with calm wind.

A

stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.

111
Q

What type of turbulence is typically found close to the ground on the lee side during Foehn conditions? (1,00 P.)

 Inversion turbulence
 Turbulence in rotors
 Clear-air turbulence (CAT)
 Thermal turbulence

A

Turbulence in rotors

112
Q

Light turbulence always has to be expected… (1,00 P.)

 above cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.

 below stratiform clouds in medium layers.

 when entering inversions.

 below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.

A

below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection

113
Q

Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected… (1,00 P.)

 with the appearance of extended low stratus clouds (high fog).

 overhead unbroken cloud layers.

 below thick cloud layers on the windward side of a mountain range.

 on the lee side of a mountain range when rotor clouds are present.

A

on the lee side of a mountain range when rotor clouds are present

114
Q

Which answer contains every state of water found in the atmosphere? (1,00 P.)

 Liquid and solid

 Liquid, solid, and gaseous

 Gaseous and liquid

 Liquid

A

Liquid, solid, and gaseous

115
Q

**How do dew point and relative humidity change with decreasing temperature? (1,00 P.)

 Dew point remains constant, relative humidity decreases

 Dew point decreases, relative humidity increases

 Dew point increases, relative humidity decreases

 Dew point remains constant, relative humidity increases

A

Dew point remains constant, relative humidity increases

116
Q

How do spread and relative humidity change with increasing temperature? (1,00 P.)

 Spread increases, relative humidity decreases

 Spread remains constant, relative humidity decreases

 Spread increases, relative humidity increases

 Spread remains constant, relative humidity increases

A

Spread increases, relative humidity decreases

Spread = difference between actual temperature and dew point

117
Q

The “spread” is defined as… (1,00 P.)

 relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air.

 maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air.

 difference between dew point and condensation point.

 difference between actual temperature and dew point.

A

difference between actual temperature and dew point

118
Q

With other factors remaining constant, decreasing temperature results in… (1,00 P.)

 decreasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.

 increasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.

 increasing spread and increasing relative humidity.

 decreasing spread and increasing relative humidity.

A

decreasing spread and increasing relative humidity.

Spread = difference between actual temperature and dew point

119
Q

What process causes latent heat being released into the upper troposphere? (1,00 P.)

 Descending air across widespread areas
 Stabilisation of inflowing air masses
 Cloud forming due to condensation
 Evaporation over widespread water areas

A

Cloud forming due to condensation

120
Q

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is… (1,00 P.)

 lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
 proportional to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
 higher than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
 equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

A

lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

DALR = Unstaturated = Unstable = Turbulent = 3ºC/1000ft = 1ºC/100m
SALR = Stable = Saturated = 1.8ºC/1000ft = 0.6ºC/100m

SALR is less than DALR because heat is released during condensation process!

121
Q

The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of… (1,00 P.)

 1,0° C / 100 m.
 2° / 1000 ft.
 0,6° C / 100 m.
 0,65° C / 100 m.

A

1,0° C / 100 m.

DALR = Unstaturated = Unstable = Turbulent = 3ºC/1000ft = 1ºC/100m
SALR = Stable = Saturated = 1.8ºC/1000ft = 0.6ºC/100m

SALR is less than DALR because heat is released during condensation process!

122
Q

**The saturated adiabatic lapse rate should be assumed with a mean value of: **

 1,0° C / 100 m.
 0° C / 100 m.
 0,6° C / 100 m.
 2° C / 1000 ft.

A

0,6° C / 100 m.

DALR = Unstaturated = Unstable = Turbulent = 3ºC/1000ft = 1ºC/100m
SALR = Stable = Saturated = 1.8ºC/1000ft = 0.6ºC/100m

SALR is less than DALR because heat is released during condensation process!

123
Q

What weather conditions may be expected during conditionally unstable conditions?

 Layered clouds up to high levels, prolonged rain or snow
 Shallow cumulus clouds with base at medium levels
 Sky clear of clouds, sunshine, low winds
 Towering cumulus, isolated showers of rain or thunderstorms

A

Towering cumulus, isolated showers of rain or thunderstorms

DALR = Unstaturated = Unstable = Turbulent = 3ºC/1000ft = 1ºC/100m
SALR = Stable = Saturated = 1.8ºC/1000ft = 0.6ºC/100m

SALR is less than DALR because heat is released during condensation process!

124
Q

Which conditions are likely for the formation of advection fog? (1,00 P.)

 Cold, humid air moves over a warm ocean

 Warm, humid air moves over a cold surface

 Warm, humid air cools during a cloudy night

 Humidity evaporates from warm, humid ground into cold air

A

Warm, humid air moves over a cold surface

Can appear suddenly

125
Q

Clouds are basically distinguished by what types? (1,00 P.)

 Stratiform and ice clouds
 Layered and lifted clouds
 Cumulus and stratiform clouds
 Thunderstorm and shower clouds

A

Cumulus and stratiform clouds

126
Q

Clouds in high layers are referred to as… (1,00 P.)

 Nimbo-.
 Strato-.
 Alto-.
 Cirro-.

A

Cirro-

Low level = Strato
Medium level = Alto
High level = Cirro

127
Q

What weather phenomenon occurs at the top of standing waves on the lee side during “Foehn” conditions?

 Altocumulus Castellanus
 Nimbostratus
 Cumulonimbus
 Altocumulus lenticularis

A

Altocumulus lenticularis

128
Q

What factor may affect the top of cumulus clouds?

 Relative humidity
 The spread
 The presence of an inversion layer
 The absolute humidity

A

The presence of an inversion layer

129
Q

What factors may indicate a tendency to fog formation? (1,00 P.)

 Low pressure, increasing temperature

 Low spread, decreasing temperature

 Low spread, increasing temperature

 Strong winds, decreasing temperature

A

Low spread, decreasing temperature

Spread = Difference between actual temp and dew point temp

-Advection fog = warm + moist over cold surfaces
-Orographic fog = warm + moist + across mountain
-Radiation fog = Surface cooling at night (clear sky) + lightwind + after sunrise + low spread
-Steam fog = cold + over water
-Frontal fog = warm and moist + cold and moist + in advance of a warm front

130
Q

What condition may prevent the formation of “radiation fog”? (1,00 P.)

 Overcast cloud cover
 Calm wind
 Low spread
 Clear night, no clouds

A

Overcast cloud cover

-Advection fog = warm + moist over cold surfaces
-Orographic fog = warm + moist + across mountain
-Radiation fog = Surface cooling at night (clear sky) + lightwind + after sunrise + low spread
-Steam fog = cold + over water
-Frontal fog = warm and moist + cold and moist + in advance of a warm front

131
Q

What process results in the formation of “advection fog”? (1,00 P.)

 Cold, moist air is being moved across warm ground areas

 Warm, moist air is moved across cold ground areas

 Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air

 Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds

A

Warm, moist air is moved across cold ground areas

-Advection fog = warm + moist over cold surfaces
-Orographic fog = warm + moist + across mountain
-Radiation fog = Surface cooling at night (clear sky) + lightwind + after sunrise + low spread
-Steam fog = cold + over water
-Frontal fog = warm and moist + cold and moist + in advance of a warm front

132
Q

What process results in the formation of “orographic fog” (“hill fog”)? (1,00 P.)

 Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds

 Warm, moist air is moved across a hill or a mountain range

 Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air

 Evaporation from warm, moist ground area into very cold air

A

Warm, moist air is moved across a hill or a mountain range

-Advection fog = warm + moist over cold surfaces
-Orographic fog = warm + moist + across mountain
-Radiation fog = Surface cooling at night (clear sky) + lightwind + after sunrise + low spread
-Steam fog = cold + over water
-Frontal fog = warm and moist + cold and moist + in advance of a warm front

133
Q

What factors are required for the formation of precipitation in clouds? (1,00 P.)

 High humidity and high temperatures

 The presence of an inversion layer

 Calm winds and intensive sunlight insolation

 Moderate to strong updrafts

A

Moderate to strong updrafts

134
Q

The formation of medium to large precipitation particles requires… (1,00 P.)

 a high cloud base.

 strong wind.

 an inversion layer.

 strong updrafts.

A

strong updrafts

135
Q

Which type of cloud is associated with prolonged rain? (1,00 P.)

 Cumulonimbus

 Cirrostratus

 Nimbostratus

 Altocumulus

A

Nimbostratus

136
Q

Regarding the type of cloud, precipitation is classified as… (1,00 P.)

 light and heavy precipitation.

 showers of snow and rain.

 prolonged rain and continuous rain.

 rain and showers of rain.

A

rain and showers of rain.

137
Q

How is an air mass described when moving to Central Europe via the Russian
continent during winter? (1,00 P.)

 Maritime tropical air
 Continental tropical air
 Continental polar air
 Maritime polar air

A

Continental polar air

138
Q

The character of an air mass is given by what properties? (1,00 P.)

 Temperatures at origin and present region

 Wind speed and tropopause height

 Region of origin and track during movement

 Environmental lapse rate at origin

A

Region of origin and track during movement

139
Q

What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?

 In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of clouds during evening and night

 Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high fog layers during winter

 Squall line with showers of rain and thunderstorms (Cb), gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain

 Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus

A

Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus

140
Q

**What clouds and weather can typically be observed during the passage of a cold front? **

 In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of clouds during evening and night

 Strongly developed cumulus clouds (Cb) with showers of rain and thunderstorms, gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain

 Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus

 Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high fog layers during winter

A

Strongly developed cumulus clouds (Cb) with showers of rain and thunderstorms, gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain

141
Q

What visual flight conditions can be expected within the warm sector of a polar front low during summer time?

 Visibilty less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground
 Good visibility, some isolated high clouds
 Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
 Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms

A

Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds

142
Q

What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front?

 Scattered cloud layers, visibility more than 5 km, formation of shallow cumulus clouds

 Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow

 Medium visibility with lowering cloud bases, onset of prolonged precipitation

 Poor visibility, formation of overcast or ground-covering stratus clouds, snow

A

Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow

143
Q

A boundary between a cold polar air mass and a warm subtropical air mass showing no horizontal displacement is called…

 cold front.
 warm front.
 occluded front.
 stationary front.

A

stationary front

144
Q

What is the usual direction of movement of a polar front low?

 To the northwest during winter, to the southwest during summer
 To the northeast during winter, to the southeast during summer
 Parallel to the warm front line to the south
 Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars

A

Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars

145
Q

What pressure pattern can be observed during the passage of a polar front low?

 Rising pressure in front of the warm front,
constant pressure within the warm sector,
rising pressure behind the cold front

 Falling pressure in front of the warm front,
constant pressure within the warm sector,
rising pressure behind the cold front

 Falling pressure in front of the warm front,
constant pressure within the warm sector,
falling pressure behind the cold front

 Rising pressure in front of the warm front,
rising pressure within the warm sector,
falling pressure behind the cold front

A

Falling pressure in front of the warm front,
constant pressure within the warm sector,
rising pressure behind the cold front

146
Q

What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing?

 Continually decreasing pressure
 Shortly decreasing, thereafter increasing pressure
 Continually increasing pressure
 Constant pressure pattern

A

Shortly decreasing, thereafter increasing pressure

147
Q

Extensive high pressure areas can be found throughout the year …

 in areeas showing extensive lifting processes.
 in mid latitudes along the polar front
 over oceanic areas at latitues around 30°N/S.
 in tropical areas, close to the equator.

A

over oceanic areas at latitues around 30°N/S.

= Subtropical High

148
Q

What cloud type can typically be observed across widespread high pressure areas during summer?

 Overcast low stratus
 Scattered Cu clouds
 Overcast Ns clouds
 Squall lines and thunderstorms

A

Scattered Cu clouds

149
Q

What pressure pattern may result from cold-air inflow in high tropospheric layers?

 Formation of a low in the upper troposphere
 Formation of a high in the upper troposphere
 Formation of a large ground low
 Alternating pressure

A

Formation of a low in the upper troposphere

150
Q

Cold air inflow in high tropospheric layers may result in…

 showers and thunderstorms.
 stabilisation and calm weather.
 frontal weather.
 calm weather and cloud dissipation.

A

showers and thunderstorms

151
Q

**

How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers? (1,00 P.)

 Increasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)

 Decreasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)

 Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)

 Increase in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)

A

Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)

152
Q

What weather phenomena have to be expected around an upper-level trough? (1,00 P.)

 Calm wind, forming of shallow cumulus clouds

 Calm weather, formation of lifted fog layers

 Formation of high stratus clouds, ground-covering cloud bases

 Development of showers and thunderstorms (Cb)

A

Development of showers and thunderstorms (Cb)

153
Q

What frontal line divides subtropical air from polar cold air, in particular across Central Europe? (1,00 P.)

 Occlusion
 Cold front
 Polar front
 Warm front

A

Polar front

154
Q

What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer?

 Changing weather with passing of frontal lines

 Squall lines and thunderstorms

 Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

 Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu

A

Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu

155
Q

What weather conditions in Central Europe are typically found in high pressure areas during summer?

 Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems

 Large isobar spacing with strong prevailing westerly winds

 Small isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems

 Small isobar spacing with strong prevailing northerly winds

A

Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems

156
Q

**What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter?
**

 Changing weather with passing of frontal lines

 Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu

 Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

 Squall lines and thunderstorms

A

Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

157
Q

What wind conditions can be expected in areas showing large distances between isobars?

 Formation of local wind systems with strong prevailing westerly winds

 Strong prevailing easterly winds with rapid backing

 Strong prevailing westerly winds with rapid veering

 Variable winds, formation of local wind systems

A

Variable winds, formation of local wind systems

158
Q

What weather conditions can be expected during “Foehn” on the windward side of a mountain range?

 Dissipating clouds with unusual warming, accompanied by strong, gusty winds

 Scattered cumulus clouds with showers and thunderstorms

 Layered clouds, mountains obscured, poor visibility, moderate or heavy rain

 Calm wind and forming of high stratus clouds (high fog)

A

Layered clouds, mountains obscured, poor visibility, moderate or heavy rain

159
Q

Which of the stated wind phenomena will increase in speed since its path is narrowed by mountains?

 Bora
 Mistral
 Scirocco
 Passat

A

Mistral

160
Q

What is the name of the the cold, katabatic wind phenomena blowing from northeast into the Adriatic Sea?

 Scirocco
 Mistral
 Bora
 Passat

A

Bora

161
Q

**Which of the following conditions are most favourable for ice accretion? **

 Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds)

 Temperaturs below 0° C, strong wind, sky clear of clouds

 Temperatures between +10° C and -30° C, presence of hail (clouds)

 Temperatures between -20° C and -40° C, presence of ice crystals (Ci
clouds)

A

Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds)

162
Q

What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to airframe icing? (1,00 P.)

 +5° to -10° C
 0° to -12° C
 -20° to -40° C
 +20° to -5° C

A

0° to -12° C

163
Q

Which type of ice forms by very small water droplets and ice crystals hitting the front surfaces of an aircraft? (1,00 P.)

 Clear ice
 Mixed ice
 Hoar frost
 Rime ice

A

Rime ice

CLEAR ice = transparent = Large drops = Slow freezing = MORE DANGREOUS!

RIME ice = Milky = Small drops = immediate freezing = forming on leading edges = stratiform clouds

164
Q

Which type of ice forms by large, supercooled droplets hitting the front surfaces of an aircraft?

 Hoar frost
 Clear ice
 Rime ice
 Mixed ice

A

Clear ice

CLEAR ice = transparent = Large drops = Slow freezing = MORE DANGREOUS!

RIME ice = Milky = Small drops = immediate freezing = forming on leading edges = stratiform clouds

165
Q

What situation may result in the occurrence of severe wind shear?

 Flying ahead of a warm front with visible Ci clouds

 Cross-country flying below Cu clouds with about 4 octas coverage

 During final approach, 30 min after a heavy shower has passed the airfield

 When a shower is visible close to the airfield

A

When a shower is visible close to the airfield

166
Q

What conditions are favourable for the formation of thunderstorms?

 Warm humid air, conditionally unstable environmental lapse rate

 Calm winds and cold air, overcast cloud cover with St or As.

 Clear night over land, cold air and patches of fog

 Warm and dry air, strong inversion layer

A

Warm humid air, conditionally unstable environmental lapse rate

167
Q

What conditions are mandatory for the formation of thermal thunderstorms?

 Conditionally unstable atmosphere, low temperature and low humidity

 Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity

 Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and low humidity

 Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity

A

Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity

168
Q

With regard to thunderstorms, strong up- and downdrafts appear during the…

 initial stage.
 dissipating stage.
 mature stage.
 thunderstorm stage.

A

mature stage

169
Q

Which stage of a thunderstorm is dominated by updrafts?

 Dissipating stage
 Upwind stage
 Mature stage
 Cumulus stage

A

Cumulus stage

Mature stage = up AND down- drafts
Cumulus stage = up-drafts

170
Q

What danger is most immenent when an aircraft is hit by lightning?

 Rapid cabin depressurization and smoke in the cabin

 Surface overheat and damage to exposed aircraft parts

 Explosion of electrical equipment in the cockpit

 Disturbed radio communication, static noise signals

A

Surface overheat and damage to exposed aircraft parts

171
Q

Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected…

 during cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog.

 near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms.

 during approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze.

 during warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.

A

near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms.

172
Q

What phenomenon is caused by cold air downdrafts with precipitation from a fully developed thunderstorm cloud?

 Electrical discharge
 Anvil-head top of Cb cloud
 Gust front
 Freezing Rain

A

Gust front

173
Q

What has to be considered when taking off in a ground inversion?

 Climb should be performed with the lowest possible speed and maximum power

 Due to low temperatures close to the ground, icing has to be expected

 During climb, a sudden decrease in speed and climb performance has to be expected

 During the climb, a sudden increase in speed and climb performance has to be expected

A

During climb, a sudden decrease in speed and climb performance has to be expected

174
Q

What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge?

 Reduced visibilty, maybe loss of sight to the airfield during final approach

 Formation of medium to heavy clear ice on all aircraft surfaces

 Heavy downdrafts within rainfall areas below thunderstorm clouds

 Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°

A

Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°

175
Q

What kind of reduction in visibility is not very sensitive to changes in temperature?

 Haze (HZ)
 Patches of fog (BCFG)
 Radiation fog (FG)
 Mist (BR)

A

Haze (HZ)

176
Q

Information about pressure patterns and frontal situation can be found in which chart?

 wind chart.
 surface weather chart.
 Significant Weather Chart (SWC).
 hypsometric chart.

A

surface weather chart.

177
Q

Which weather chart shows the actual air pressure as in MSL along with pressure centers and fronts?

 Hypsometric chart
 Surface weather chart
 Prognostic chart
 Wind chart

A

Surface weather chart

178
Q

What information can be obtained from satallite images?

 Temperature and dew point of environmental air

 Turbulence and icing

 Flight visibility, ground visibility, and ground contact

 Overview of cloud covers and front lines

A

Overview of cloud covers and front lines

179
Q

What chart shows areas of precipitation?

 GAFOR
 Wind chart
 Satellite picture
 Radar picture

A

Radar picture

180
Q

What information is NOT found on Low-Level Significant Weather Charts (LLSWC)?

 Information about icing conditions

 Radar echos of precipitation

 Information about turbulence areas

 Front lines and frontal displacements

A

Radar echos of precipitation

181
Q

Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are displayed by the…

 prognostic chart.
 Significant Weather Chart (SWC).
 surface weather chart.
 hypsometric chart.

A

surface weather chart.

182
Q

In a METAR, “heavy rain” is designated by the identifier…

 RA.
 +SHRA.
 SHRA.
 +RA.

A

+RA

183
Q

**In a METAR, “(moderate) showers of rain” are designated by the identifier… **

 +RA.
 SHRA.
 +TSRA.
 TS.

A

SHRA

184
Q

What information can be found in the ATIS, but not in a METAR?

 Information about current weather, for example types of precipitation

 Operational information such as runway in use and transition level

 Information about mean wind speeds, maximum speeds in gusts if applicable

 Approach information, such as ground visibility and cloud base

A

Operational information such as runway in use and transition level

185
Q

**Weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained during the flight by… **

 VOLMET.
 PIREP.
 ATIS.
 SIGMET.

A

ATIS

186
Q

SIGMET warnings are issued for…

 specific routings.
 airports.
 FIRs / UIRs.
 countries.

A

FIRs / UIRs

187
Q

An inversion is a layer …

 with increasing pressure with increasing height.

 with decreasing temperature with increasing height.

 with constant temperature with increasing height.

 with increasing temperature with increasing height.

A

with increasing temperature with increasing height.

188
Q

What can be expected for the prevailling wind with isobars on a surface weather chart showing large distances?

 Strong pressure gradients resulting in strong prevailling wind

 Strong pressure gradients resulting in low prevailling wind

 Low pressure gradients resulting in strong prevailling wind

 Low pressure gradients resulting in low prevailling wind

A

Low pressure gradients resulting in low prevailling wind

Large isobar distance = Low press gradient, Low wind
Small isobar distante = Large press gradient, Large wind

189
Q

What is referred to as mountain wind?

 Wind blowing uphill from the valley during daytime.

 Wind blowing uphill from the valley during the night.

 Wind blowing down the mountain side during the night

 Wind blowing down the mountain side during daytime.

A

Wind blowing down the mountain side during the night

190
Q

Under which conditions “back side weather” (“Rückseitenwetter”) can be expected?

 before passing of an occlusion

 During Foehn at the lee side

 After passing of a warm front

 After passing of a cold front

A

After passing of a cold front

191
Q

What wind is reportet as 225/15 ?

 north-east wind with 15 kt

 south-west wind with 15 km/h

 north-east wind with 15 km/h

 south-west wind with 15 kt

A

south-west wind with 15 kt

192
Q

How does air temperatur change in ISA from MSL to approx. 10.000 m height?

 from +20° to -40°C
 from +30° to -40°C
 from -15° to 50°C
 from +15° to -50°C

A

from +15° to -50°C

193
Q

What weather is likely to be experienced during “Foehn” in the Bavarian area close to the alps?

 High pressure area overhead Biskaya and low pressure area in Eastern Europe

 Cold, humid downhill wind on the lee side of the alps, flat pressure pattern

 Nimbostratus cloud in the northern alps, rotor clouds at the windward side, warm and dry wind

 Nimbostratus cloud in the southern alps, rotor clouds at the lee side, warm and dry wind

A

Nimbostratus cloud in the southern alps, rotor clouds at the lee side, warm and dry wind

194
Q

Mountain side updrafts can be intensified by …

 Solar irradiation on the windward side

 Solar irradiation on the lee side

 By warming of upper atmospheric layers

 thermal radiation of the windward side during the night

A

Solar irradiation on the windward side