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AGK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic principle of safe-life design philosophy?

1- The structure is replaced or removed based on its design life

2- The structure is safe for the whole life of the aeroplane, hence the safe-life name

3- If one part of the structure fails, its loads are taken by another adjacent part

4- Premature failure of any part is compensated by spreading the load

A

The structure is replaced or removed based on its design life

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2
Q

What is the basic principle of hard time maintenance?

1- Aeroplanes are designed with multiple systems or elements that serve the same purpose

2- Items or assemblies are removed for service when a sign of imminent failure present themselves

3- Items or assemblies are removed based on their operational time

4- Items or assemblies are removed for service when maintenance personnel decides to do so

A

Items or assemblies are removed based on their operational time

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3
Q

What is the basic principle of fail-safe design philosophy?

1- The structure is replaced or removed based on its design life

2- Multiple systems or elements serve the same purpose

3- The structure is designed in such a way, that a failure is impossible, hence the fail-safe name

4- If one part of the structure fails, its loads are taken by another adjacent part

A

If one part of the structure fails, its loads are taken by another adjacent part

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4
Q

Which of these areas are susceptible to stress corrosion?

1- All answers are correct
2- Empennage
3- Wingtips
4- Landing gear legs

A

Landing gear legs

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5
Q

What are the basic loads that occur in bending?
Select the most complete answer.
I. Tension II. Torsion III. Shear IV. Compression

1- I and IV
2- I, II, III and IV
3- I, III, and IV
4- I, II and IV

A

I, III, and IV

Tension, Shear, Compression

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6
Q

What types of aeroplanes are included in the CS-23 certification specification? Select the most complete answer.
i.Normal ii. Large aeroplanes iii. Aerobatic and Commuter iv. Utility

1- I, III and IV

2- I and III

3- I, II and IV

4- Only II

A

I, III and IV

Normal, Aerobatic and Commuter, Utility

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7
Q

What is the unit of strain?

1- mm
2- Strain is unitless
3- N/mm^2
4- mm^2

A

Strain is unitless

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8
Q

What is the cause of material fatigue?

1- Cyclic loading
2- Static loading
3- Dynamic loading
4- Buckling of the structure

A

Cyclic loading

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9
Q

What characterises the dynamic loads?

1- They are dependent on time

2- They are very large compared to the durability of the airframe

3- They are independent of time

4- They most frequently occur when the aircraft is parked near the runway

A

They are dependent on time

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10
Q

What is the maximum capacity of commuter category aeroplanes?

1- 19 or fewer seats, excluding pilot(s)
2- 19 or fewer seats, including pilot(s)
3- 21 or fewer seats, excluding pilot(s)
4- 21 or fewer seats, including pilot(s)

A

19 or fewer seats, excluding pilot(s)

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11
Q

What is the main function of the stringers?

1- They support the skin

2- They provide traction for the control surfaces

3- They pass loads from the landing gear, engines and control surfaces to wing spars and ribs

4- They take the loads generated by the pressure differences

A

They support the skin

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12
Q

What is the main function of the firewall in the aircraft’s structure?

1- It protects the crew and passengers in the event of an engine fire

2- It protects the system network from unauthorised access from the outside

3- It protects the engine in case of a fire inside a fuselage

4- It provides access into the fuselage for firefighting services

A

It protects the crew and passengers in the event of an engine fire

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13
Q

Which of these followings are not an attachment method used in aeroplanes?

1- Bolting
2- Riveting
3- Welding
4- Hammering

A

Hammering

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14
Q

What is the main function of the wing spar?

1- It absorbs the compression generated by the lift force

2- It absorbs the bending generated by the lift force

3- It absorbs the shear generated by the lift force

4- It absorbs the compression and shear generated by the lift force

A

It absorbs the bending generated by the lift force

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15
Q

What is the main function of the ribs?

1- They provide traction for the control surfaces

2- They absorb the shear generated by the lift force

3- They absorb the bending generated by the lift force

4- They support the skin and maintain its aerofoil shape

A

They support the skin and maintain its aerofoil shape

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16
Q

What is the most serious disadvantage of the T-tail configuration?

1- Decreased pitch authority in level flight due to disturbed air coming from the wings

2- Increased height of the aeroplane, which required more hangar space

3- Susceptibility to a deep stall, with the tailplane placed in the stream of highly disturbed air coming off the wings

4- Decreased rearward visibility from the cockpit

A

Susceptibility to a deep stall, with the tailplane placed in the stream of highly disturbed air coming off the wings

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17
Q

What is the advantage of a high-mounted wing configuration?

1- Reduced upward visibility

2- Better flight stability in flight than other configurations

3- Reduced upwards pitching moment from the engines compared to low-mounted wing

4- Reduced bending loads in the wing roots

A

Better flight stability in flight than other configurations

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18
Q

What is the main function of the skin?

1- It takes the loads generated by the pressure differences

2- It absorbs the bending generated by the lift force

3- Passes loads from the landing gear, engines and control surfaces to wing spars

4- It supports the ribs and allows them to maintain their aerofoil shape

A

It takes the loads generated by the pressure differences

|the ribs support the skin

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19
Q

Which statement is NOT true for rivets?

1- Rivets work the best in tension.

2- Rivets work the best in shear.

3- Rivets have very little strength in tension.

4- Rivets are placed in pre-drilled holes.

A

Rivets work the best in tension.

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20
Q

What is the advantage of a low-mounted wing configuration?

1- Increased landing distance due to ground effect

2- Limited ground clearance for engines mounted under wings

3- Increased susceptibility to debris present on the runway

4- Good upward visibility

A

Good upward visibility

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

1- Mineral and synthetic hydraulic fluids can be mixed, but vegetable fluids must not be mixed with any other type of fluid

2- Different types of hydraulic fluids can be mixed freely

3- Vegetable and mineral hydraulic fluids can be mixed, but synthetic hydraulic fluids must not be mixed with any other type of fluid

4- Different types of hydraulic fluids must not be mixed

A

Different types of hydraulic fluids must not be mixed

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22
Q

What is a hydraulic lock?

1- The situation, when the hydraulic fluid is trapped on both sides of the actuators

2- The device, which prevents the actuator from making any undesirable movement

3- The situation when hydraulic pipes are clogged

4- The device, which provides the lubrication of a pump in case of leakages

A

The situation, when the hydraulic fluid is trapped on both sides of the actuators

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23
Q

What does Pascal’s law state?

1- For every action, there is an opposite and equal reaction

2- The state of an amount of gas is determined by its pressure, volume, and temperature

3- In open containers, the hydrostatic pressure depends only on the height of the fluid

4- A pressure change in one part of the confined and incompressible fluid will be transmitted throughout the fluid without loss, so the same change occurs everywhere

A

A pressure change in one part of the confined and incompressible fluid will be transmitted throughout the fluid without loss, so the same change occurs everywhere

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24
Q

Why is it important to be very careful when handling hydraulic fluids? Select the most complete answer.

1- Because hydraulic fluids are skin and eye irritants

2- Because hydraulic fluids are typically flammable

3- Because hydraulic fluids are highly volatile

4- All answers are correct

A

Because hydraulic fluids are skin and eye irritants

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25
Q

What is true about closed hydraulic systems?

1- The operating pressure is maintained in the part of a closed hydraulic system leading to the selector valves

2- Closed hydraulic systems are able to operate only one service at the same time

3- Closed hydraulic systems are commonly used in light aircraft

4- No other answer is correct

A

The operating pressure is maintained in the part of a closed hydraulic system leading to the selector valves

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26
Q

What is true about the open-centre hydraulic systems? Select the most complete answer.

1 - All answers are correct

2- Open-centre hydraulic systems are able to operate only one service at the same time

3- Open-centre hydraulic systems are pressurised only on specific demand

4- Open-centre hydraulic systems are commonly used in light aircraft

A

All answers are correct

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27
Q

Why are the hydraulic systems fitted with reservoirs? Select the most complete answer.

1- To store an extra volume of hydraulic fluid in a reservoir to be able to compensate for small leaks

2- All answers are correct

3- To provide sufficient air space to allow for any variations of fluid

4- To provide storage space for hydraulic fluid supplying ahead of fluid for pumps

A

All answers are correct

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28
Q

In hydraulic systems, reservoirs are pressurised to .

1- prevent pump cavitation

2- seal the system

3- maintain the optimum temperature of the hydraulic fluid

4- reduce the viscosity of the hydraulic fluid

A

prevent pump cavitation

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29
Q

The force, the value of which is 2,000 N, made the piston on the left-hand side (0.004 m2) travel a distance of 0.5 m. What is the distance travelled by the piston on the right-hand side (0.01 m2)?

1- 0.125 m
2- 0.2 m
3- 0.5 m
4- 0.25 m

A

0.2 m

Area 1 x Displacement 1 = Area 2 x Displacement 2

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30
Q

* In which component of a hydraulic system, the temperature of the hydraulic fluid is measured?*

1- At the actuators

2- At the pumps

3- In the filter

4- In the reservoir

A

In the reservoir

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31
Q

Which of the following landing gear configurations is considered a nose wheel?

1- Bicycle
2- None of the answers is correct
3- Quadricycle
4- Tricycle

A

Tricycle

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32
Q

What is the most common way to reduce shimmy?

1- Use a hydraulic shimmy damper
2- Applying the brakes harder
3- Use of larger wheel sizes
4- None of the answers is correct

A

Use a hydraulic shimmy damper

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33
Q

What is the most common type of brake actuation system?

1- Hydraulic
2- Pneumatic
3- Electrical
4- Mechanical

A

Hydraulic

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34
Q

What percentage of weight is applied to the front wheel in the nose wheel configuration?

1- 80%-90%
2- 10%-20%
3- 30%-40%
4- 60%-70%

A

10%-20%

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35
Q

What are the most common landing gear configurations?

1- Conventional and bicycle
2- Tricycle and bicycle
3- Tricycle and conventional
4- Quadricycle and bicycle

A

Tricycle and conventional

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36
Q

What material is the latest generation of multi-disc brakes made of?

1- Carbon fibre
2- Steel
3- Aluminium
4- Brass

A

Carbon fibre

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37
Q

What percentage of weight is applied to the front wheels in the conventional configuration?

1- 80%-90%
2- 10%-20%
3- 30%-40%
4- 60%-70%

A

80%-90%

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38
Q

How can the thickness of brakes linings be monitored?

1- Using wear indicator hole
2- None of the answers is correct
3- Only by disassembling the brake
4- Using wear indicator pin

A

Using wear indicator pin

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39
Q

Which of the following are the advantages of carbon fibre brakes compared to steel brakes? Select the most complete answer.
I – They are lighter,
II – They are cheaper,
III – They wear out slower,
IV – They resist higher temperature

II, III, IV
I, III, IV
I, II, III
I, II, IV

A

I, III, IV

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40
Q

How can redundancy be provided with regard to the flight control system?

1- By employing two or more flight control systems with separate hydraulic systems

2- By interconnecting the captain and first officer controls to enable dual input to the control system

3- By interconnecting the captain and first officer controls to enable input if both signals are the same

4- By employing an artificial feel system

A

By employing two or more flight control systems with separate hydraulic systems

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41
Q

With regard to conventional aircraft, which axis does the rudder enable rotation about?

1- Lateral axis
2- Directional axis
3- Longitudinal axis
4- Normal axis

A

Normal axis

= Vertical axis

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42
Q

With regard to conventional aircraft, which axis does the elevator enable rotation about?

1- Lateral axis
2- Longitudinal axis
3- Normal axis
4- Directional axis

A

Lateral axis

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43
Q

Which secondary flight controls can be found on general aviation aircraft? Select the most complete answer.

1- Flaps, trim tabs

2- Rudder, all-moving tailplane, trim tabs

3- Rudder, elevator, ailerons

4- Flaps, ailerons

A

Flaps, trim tabs

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44
Q

With regard to conventional aircraft, which axis do the ailerons provide rotation about?

1- Normal axis
2- Lateral axis
3- Longitudinal axis
4-Directional axis

A

Longitudinal axis

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45
Q

What is the purpose of a rudder ratio changer?

1- The rudder ratio changer is a device that limits the rudder reflection by a mechanical stop

2- The rudder ratio changer is a device that adjusts rudder deflection range to current airspeed to prevent excessive loads on the rudder

3- The rudder ratio changer is a device that adjusts the pedals deflection range to the current airspeed

4- The rudder ratio changer prevents the rudder from blow back

A

The rudder ratio changer is a device that adjusts rudder deflection range to current airspeed to prevent excessive loads on the rudder

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46
Q

Which statement about the trim tab is true?

1- Trim tabs are used to increase lift force at low speeds

2- Trim tabs are used to reduce the forces on the cockpit controls

3- Trim tabs are used to prevent the aircraft’s structure from overstressing

4- Trim tabs can be only adjusted on the ground

A

Trim tabs are used to reduce the forces on the cockpit controls

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47
Q

What is the purpose of a gust lock?

1- It prevents damage to the control surface and cockpit controls in the presence of a wind gust

2- It prevents control surface jamming

3- It limits the rudder deflection in a presence of a wind gust

4- It limits the rudder deflection at high speeds

A

It prevents damage to the control surface and cockpit controls in the presence of a wind gust

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48
Q

The maximum flaps extend speed is marked on the ASI as .

1- the end of a white arc
2- the end of a green arc
3- the end of the yellow arc
4- the red bar

A

the end of a white arc

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49
Q

What is a function of a mechanical stop on a rudder?

1- The mechanical stop limits the rudder deflection

2- The mechanical stop limits the pedals deflection

3- The mechanical stop maintains a constant deflection angle

4- The mechanical stop prevents the rudder from blow back

A

The mechanical stop limits the rudder deflection

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50
Q

* What effect does ice have on the propeller blades? Select the most complete answer.*

1- Icing results in propeller imbalance

2- Uneven ice accretion is a cause of propeller vibrations

3- All answers are correct

4- Accumulation of ice changes the aerodynamic characteristics of the blades

A

All answers are correct

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51
Q

Which of the following is a type of ice protection system? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct
2- Thermal systems
3- Electrical systems
4- Mechanical systems

A

All answers are correct

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52
Q

Which airframe elements may be protected by electrical ice protection systems? Select the most complete answer.

1- Engine air intakes, propellers, windshields and leading edges

2- Trailing edges and avionics’ antennas

3- Landing gear wells and APU exhaust

4- All answers are correct

A

Engine air intakes, propellers, windshields and leading edges

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53
Q

Which airframe elements are typically protected by hot air ice protection systems?

1- Air intakes and propellers
2- Leading edges and engine air intakes
3- Windshields and engine air intakes
4- Propellers only

A

Leading edges and engine air intake

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54
Q

In cases where fluid systems are used for airborne propeller anti-icing, what is the principle of operation of such an installation?

1- The fluid is pumped to the slinger ring and slinger tubes; it is further distributed on the propeller blade by means of centrifugal force

2- The fluid seeps at a constant rate through the porous material covering the propeller panels

3- The fluid is pumped by one or two pumps, depending on the severity of icing, and sprayed using tubes underneath the propeller hub

4- No other answer is correct

A

The fluid is pumped to the slinger ring and slinger tubes; it is further distributed on the propeller blade by means of centrifugal force

The fluid seeps at a constant rate through the porous material covering the propeller panels IS THE ANSWER IF THE QUESTION IS REGARDING FLUID USED IN THE WINGS!!!!

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55
Q

Which of the following cannot be a hot air source for ice protection systems?

1- Exhaust gas duct
2- Compressor bleed air
3- Combustion heating
4- Heat exchanger

A

Exhaust gas duct

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56
Q

Which of the following is one of the conditions required for the in-flight formation of structural icing (clear or rime ice)?

1- Stratiform clouds
2- Visible moisture
3- Temperatures below 35°C
4- Small temperature-dewpoint spread

A

Visible moisture

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57
Q

Considering aircraft icing, which of the following is considered to be the most serious consequence of ice accretion?

1- The lift coefficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavier

2- Lift becomes too great as the aircraft becomes heavier

3- The stalling speed increasing substantially

4- The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load

A

The stalling speed increasing substantially

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58
Q

On which surfaces may airborne fluid anti-icing systems be used?

1- Wing leading edges
2- Engine intakes
3- Engine pylons
4- Pitot probes and static ports

A

Wing leading edges

and propellers

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59
Q

Why is ice accretion considered hazardous to flight? Select the most complete answer.

1- The increased weight increases fuel consumption

2- Ice accretion increases drag, increasing fuel consumption

3- Ice accretion results in a loss of lift

4- All answers are correct

A

All answers are correct

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60
Q

What is the main task of the fuel system?

1- Transfer the fuel between the tanks

2- Delivery of fuel to the engines at appropriate pressure to enable the engine to operate in all conditions

3- Fuel storage

4- Cooling the engine

A

Delivery of fuel to the engines at appropriate pressure to enable the engine to operate in all conditions

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61
Q

Why are the bufflers installed in the fuel tanks?

1- To prevent fuel from moving during manoeuvres

2- To reduce tanks capacity

3- To increase tanks capacity

4- To strengthen the tanks

A

To prevent fuel from moving during manoeuvres

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62
Q

How is the lowest temperature at which fuel vapours ignite, when given an ignition source called?

1- Vapour lock

2- Freezing point

3- Flash point

4- Sublimation point

A

Flash point

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63
Q

Which system is responsible for maintaining the ambient pressure in the fuel tanks?

1- Dump system
2- Vent system
3- Drain system
4- Sump system

A

Vent system

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64
Q

Why a fuel heater is installed upstream of the fuel filter?

1- To reduce fuel density

2- To increase fuel viscosity

3- To reduce fuel viscosity

4- To prevent ice formation in the filter in low temperatures

A

To prevent ice formation in the filter in low temperatures

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65
Q

What is the colour of AVGAS 100?

1- Blue
2- Red
3- Clear
4- Green

A

Green

100% good job = Green

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66
Q

What for AVGAS is usually used?

1- Piston engines
2- Turbine engines
3- Oil system
4- Cooling system

A

Piston engines

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67
Q

What is the colour of AVTUR fuel?

1- Blue
2- Clear
3- Green
4- Red

A

2- Clear

AVTUR = Aviation Turbine Fuel

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68
Q

Which aviation fuel has blue colour?

1- AVGAS 100
2- AVGAS 100LL
3- JET A-1
4- Mogas

A

AVGAS 100LL

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69
Q

When protection from small overcurrents appearing for a longer period of time is needed, which device should be used?

1- A magnetic circuit breaker
2- A thermal circuit breaker
3- A relay
4- A transistor

A

A thermal circuit breaker

Big overcurrent + short time = Magnetic circuit breaker

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70
Q

With regard to Joule-Lenz law, which statement about the heat dissipated on a conductor is correct?

1- The heat dissipated on a conductor is directly proportional to the current

2- The heat dissipated on a conductor is a product of resistance and the square of the current

3- The heat dissipated on a conductor is inversely proportional to the current

3- The heat dissipated on a conductor is a product of voltage and current

A

The heat dissipated on a conductor is a product of resistance and the square of the current

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71
Q

What is the correct definition of AC?

1- It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a periodically reversing direction

2- It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a constant direction

3- It is a non-uniform flow of electric charge in a constant direction

4- It is a non-uniform flow of electric charge in a periodically reversing direction

A

It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a periodically reversing direction

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72
Q

With regard to the semiconductors, which answer is true about their resistance?

1- The resistance of a semiconductor increases with temperature

2- The resistance of a semiconductor is higher than insulators’ resistance

3- The resistance of a semiconductor is constant

4- The resistance of a semiconductor decreases with temperature

A

The resistance of a semiconductor decreases with temperature

Semiconductors have NEGATIVE temperature coefficient

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73
Q

Which statements about circuit breakers are true?

1- Circuit breakers activate before fault current is reached, do not withstand fault current, open the circuit only

2- Circuit breakers activate after fault current is reached, withstand fault current, open the circuit only

3- Circuit breakers activate before fault current is reached, do not withstand fault current, close the circuit only

4- Circuit breakers activate after fault current is reached, withstand fault current, open and close the circuit

A

Circuit breakers activate after fault current is reached, withstand fault current, open and close the circuit

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74
Q

What is the correct definition of a relay?

1- The relay is a device used to cover AC into DC

2- The relay is a remotely controlled electromagnetic switch with sliding core

3- The relay is a remotely controlled electromagnetic switch with a fixed core

4- The relay is a device used to change AC voltage

A

The relay is a remotely controlled electromagnetic switch with a fixed core

The solenoid has a sliding core

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75
Q

What will be current if a component is using 100 watts at 20 volts?

1- 2000 A

2- 5 A

3- 0,2 A

4- 4 A

A

5 A

Power (watts) = Voltage (volts) * Current (amperes)

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76
Q

What is the international symbol of power and its unit?

1- Q, unit joule [J]

2- Q, unit watt [W]

3- P, unit joule [J]

4- P, unit watt [W]

A

P, unit watt [W]

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77
Q

What type of material Silicon is?

1- Semiconductor
2- Insulator
3- Conductor
4- Hydraulic fluid

A

Semiconductor

Germanium is also a semiconductor

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78
Q

What is the correct definition of DC?

1- It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a periodically changing direction

2- It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a constant direction

3- It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a periodically reversing direction

4- It is a non-uniform flow of electric charge in a constant direction

A

It is a uniform flow of electric charge in a constant direction

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79
Q

Which statement is true about the output frequency of AC alternator?

1- The output frequency of AC alternator is proportional to the number of windings in the armature

2- The output frequency of AC alternator is inversely proportional to the rotational speed of the magnetic field or armature

3- The output frequency of AC alternator is proportional to the rotational speed of the magnetic field or armature

4- The output frequency of AC alternator is proportional to the magnetic field strength

A

The output frequency of AC alternator is proportional to the rotational speed of the magnetic field or armature

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80
Q

What is the output of a simple, single-loop DC generator?

1- Pulsed DC
2- AC
3- Steady voltage DC
4- Pulsed AC

A
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81
Q

Which types of batteries are susceptible to thermal runaway? Select the most complete answer.

1-Lead-acid, Nickel-cadmium, lithium-ion, lithium-polymer

2- Nickel-cadmium, lithium-ion, lithium-polymer

3- Lithium-ion, lithium-polymer

4- Lead-acid, lithium-ion, lithium-polymer

A

Nickel-cadmium, lithium-ion, lithium-polymer

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82
Q

What is the capacity of a battery cell?

1- The capacity of the battery cell is a current that the battery can provide within a given time

2- The capacity of the battery cell is the electromotive force generated by the battery

3- The capacity of the battery cell is the volume of the battery cell

4- The capacity of the battery cell is the number of cycles of charging the battery can withstand

A

The capacity of the battery cell is a current that the battery can provide within a given time

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83
Q

What is the purpose of the batteries on aircraft?

1- Batteries provide electric power in emergencies

2- Batteries provide electric power during normal operation

3- Batteries supply electronic flight instruments

4- Batteries provide AC for some systems

A

Batteries provide electric power in emergencies

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84
Q

What is the unit of battery capacity?

1- Ampere [A]

2- Ampere / Volt [A/V]

3- Watt [W]

4- Ampere hour [Ah]

A

Ampere hour [Ah]

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85
Q

How is a device that produces variable frequency AC called?

1- A rectifier

2- A frequency wild generator/alternator

3- A Constant Speed Drive

4- An inverter

A

A frequency wild generator/alternator

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86
Q

Assuming we have two battery cells connected in series, each with 3 V cell voltage and capacity of 5 Ah, what will be the total voltage and capacity?

1- Total voltage 3 V, total capacity 5 Ah

2- Total voltage 6 V, total capacity 5 Ah

3- Total voltage 6 V, total capacity 10 Ah

4- Total voltage 3 V, total capacity 10 Ah

A

Total voltage 6 V, total capacity 5 Ah

Cells is series–> Voltage = Sum of cells V, Capacity = Same as single cell Ah

Cells in parallel –> Voltage = Same as single cell V; Capacity = Sum of cells Ah

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87
Q

What is the cell voltage of a battery cell?

1- The cell voltage of the battery cell is an electromotive force generated by one battery cell

2- The cell voltage of the battery is the current the battery can produce within an hour

3- The cell voltage of the battery is the number of charging cycles the battery can withstand

4- The cell voltage of the battery is the resistance of the battery

A

The cell voltage of the battery cell is an electromotive force generated by one battery cell

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88
Q

What parts belong to a DC alternator?

1- Rotating magnet, stationary armature, rectifier

2- Rotating magnet, stationary armature ,commutator, carbon brushes

3- Stationary magnet, rotating armature, rectifier

4- Stationary magnet, rotating armature, commutator, carbon brushes

A

Rotating magnet, stationary armature, rectifier

DC alternator = Stationary armature + Rotating magnetic field

DC generator = Rotating armature + Fixed magnetic field

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89
Q

How is the compression ratio defined?

1- The ratio of total volume to the clearance volume

2- The ratio of the total volume to the swept volume

3- The ratio of the swept volume to the clearance volume

4- The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume

A

The ratio of total volume to the clearance volume

Total vol. = Vol above piston at BDC
Clearence vol. = Vol.above piston at TDC

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90
Q

How to recognize that the piston rings are worn out? Select the most complete answer.

1- By the blue smoke coming from the exhaust pipe

2- By the knocking noise from the engine

3- By the engine rough running

4- All answers are correct

A

By the blue smoke coming from the exhaust pipe

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91
Q

What happens after the combustion during the power stroke in the Otto cycle? Select the most complete answer.

1- Engine volume decreases

2- All answers are correct

3- Pressure increases and temperature decreases

4- The piston is forced to move down

A

The piston is forced to move down

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92
Q

How is the torque defined? (T – torque, F – force, L – distance) Select the most complete answer.

1- T = F x L

2- T = F / L

3- T = L / F

4- None of the answers is correct

A

T = F x L

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93
Q

How to improve the engine performance? Select the most complete answer.

1- By the valve lead

2- By early opening and late closing of valves

3- By the valve lag

4- All answers are correct

A

All answers are correct

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94
Q

How to improve the induction of the mixture to the cylinder and the exhaust of the burnt gases? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- By the valve lead

3- By the early opening of the intake valve

4- By the early opening of the exhaust valve

A

All answers are correct

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95
Q

How is the total volume defined? Select the most complete answer.

1- The volume of the cylinder between the TDC and BDC

2- The volume of the combustion chamber above the piston at the BDC

3- The displacement of the piston during a single stroke

4- All answers are correct

A

The volume of the combustion chamber above the piston at the BDC

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96
Q

Which answer describes the inline engine? Select the most complete answer.

1- An inline engine is commonly used in the inverted position

2- Cylinders are in a straight line

3- All answers are correct

4- An inline engine allows the increase the propeller ground clearance

A

All answers are correct

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97
Q

What happens during the intake stroke in the Otto cycle? Select the most complete answer.

1- The pressure inside the cylinder increases

2- Intake valve opens

3- The cylinder volume increases

4- All answers are correct

A

Intake valve opens

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98
Q

How is brake horsepower (BHP) defined?

1- The power used for moving the piston and turning the crankshaft

2- None of the answers is correct

3- The theoretical value of power generated by the engine

4- The indicated horsepower (IHP) minus the friction horsepower (FHP)

A

The indicated horsepower (IHP) minus the friction horsepower (FHP)

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99
Q

How is the fuel injected in the indirect fuel injection system? Select the most complete answer.

1- Continuously

2- At low pressure

3- All answers are correct

4- As close to the intake valve as possible

A

All answers are correct

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100
Q

What is the result of ignition when the piston is before TDC? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- Power loss

3- The higher temperature of exhaust gases

4- The piston has to compress the burning mixture

A

All answers are correct

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101
Q

How is the detonation in the spark-ignition engine defined?

1- A detonation is an event when the mixture self-ignites after the mixture is ignited from the spark plug

2- A detonation is an event when the mixture self-ignites before the ignition from the spark plug

3- A detonation is an event when the mixture is ignited by a too hot surface in the combustion chamber

4- None of the answers is correct

A

A detonation is an event when the mixture self-ignites after the mixture is ignited from the spark plug

AFTER = detonation (= engine knocking)
BEFORE = pre-ignition
too hot surface = pre-ignition

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102
Q

How to reduce the probability of pre-ignition occurrence? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- By the use of proper spark plugs

3- By the adjustment of the air/fuel mixture

4- By cleaning the combustion chamber

A

All answers are correct

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103
Q

Which induction system provides the best fuel distribution?

1- The injection system

2- The float chamber carburettor

3- The constant choke carburettor

4- The constant vacuum carburettor

A

The injection system

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104
Q

Which component prevents the temporal weak mixture when the throttle valve is opened quickly?

1- A primer pump
2- An economizer jet
3- None of the answers is correct
4- An idle jet

A

None of the answers is correct

Accelerator pump!

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105
Q

What is a phenomenon of pre-ignition?

1- Pre-ignition is an event when the spark plug ignites the charge too early

2- Pre-ignition is an event when the ignition of the charge occurs before the spark plug fires

3- Pre-ignition is an event when due to the moisture in the ignition system the wrong spark plug fires

4- Pre-ignition is an event when the spark plug fires before the intake valve is closed

A

Pre-ignition is an event when the ignition of the charge occurs before the spark plug fires

AFTER = detonation (= engine knocking)
BEFORE = pre-ignition
too hot surface = pre-ignition

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106
Q

What is the colour of AVGAS 100?

1- Blue
2- Red
3- Clear
4- Green

A

Green

Green is 100% good

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107
Q

What are the causes of the ice forming in the carburettor? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- Rapid cooling in the Venturi

3- Low pressure in the Venturi

4- High humidity conditions

A

All answers are correct

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108
Q

What are the tasks of the carburettor? Select the most complete answer.

1- To direct the exhaust gases to the turbine

2- To inject the fuel directly into the cylinder

3- To control the air/fuel ratio

4- All answers are correct

A

To control the air/fuel ratio

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109
Q

How is the live magneto check performed?

1- By switching one magneto off at around 1000 rpm

2- None of the answers is correct

3- By switching each magneto to compare the rpm drop at about 75% of maximum engine rpm

4- By switching both magnetos off at around 1000 rpm

A

By switching both magnetos off at around 1000 rpm

Dead cut check = By switching one magneto off at around 1000 rpm

Drop check = By switching each magneto to compare the rpm drop at about 75% of maximum engine rpm

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110
Q

Which answer describes the oil tank? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct
2- Made of sheet metal
3- Baffled
4- Strengthened internally

A

All answers are correct

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111
Q

What happens when the mixture is weakened from the full rich position? (EGT - exhaust gas temperature)

1- The EGT will decrease until the ideal ratio is reached

2- The EGT will rise until the ideal ratio is reached

3- The EGT will rise until the maximum power ratio is reached

4- The temperature will decrease until the maximum power ratio is reached

A

The EGT will rise until the ideal ratio is reached

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112
Q

Which factor affects the effectiveness of oil cooling? Select the most complete answer.

1- The temperature of the cooling air

2- The heat generated by the engine

3- All answers are correct

4- The airflow rate in the cooler

A

All answers are correct

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113
Q

How is the stoichiometric ratio defined? Select the most complete answer.

1- The ratio at which the best fuel economy is obtained

2- The ratio at which maximum power is obtained

3- The ratio at which all the oxygen and fuel is burnt

4- All answers are correct

A

The ratio at which all the oxygen and fuel is burnt

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114
Q

Why there is airspace in the oil tank? Select the most complete answer.

1- Because of increased oil return during the start

2- Because of frothing

3- All answers are correct

4- Because of the displacement of oil from variable pitch propeller

A

All answers are correct

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115
Q

What are the disadvantages of the dry sump system?

1- In the dry sump system it is difficult to control oil temperature

2- The oil contaminates and oxidises more easily

3- Limited oil supply

4- None of the answers is correct

A

None of the answers is correct

These are disadvantages of the WET SUMP system

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116
Q

Where should be the oil tank located?

1- Lower level than the engine

2- It is not important at which level the oil tank is located

3- At the same level as the engine

4- Higher level than the engine

A

Higher level than the engine

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117
Q

Where is the scavenge filter located?

1- After the pressure pump

2- Before the pressure pump

3- After the scavenge pump

4- Before the scavenge pump

A

Before the scavenge pump

Pressure filter = AFTER pressure pump

Scavenge filter = BEFORE scavange pump

Suction filter = BEFORE suction pump

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118
Q

How many spark plugs are in each cylinder of a petrol aero piston engine?

1- 2
2- 1
3- 3
4- 0

A

2

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119
Q

Before take-off, the RPM of the propellers should be set at .

1- Minimum
2- At 2000
3- It does not matter
4- Maximum

A

Maximum

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120
Q

Is it possible to adjust the force on the speeder spring in the Constant Speed Unit (CSU)?

1- Yes, by the rpm lever

2- Yes, by the throttle lever

3- Yes, by the mixture lever

4- No, it is not possible

A

Yes, by the rpm lever

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121
Q

When the constant-speed propeller torque is greater than the engine torque how would rpm change?

1- Rpm will decrease

2- Rpm will increase

3- Rpm will remain constant

4- At first, rpm will decrease and then increase

A

Rpm will decrease

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122
Q

How is the pitch change obtained in the single-acting propeller system?

1- By the electric actuator

2- By the mechanical lever

3- By varying the oil pressure inside the cylinder

4- By the gears

A

By varying the oil pressure inside the cylinder

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123
Q

When the engine torque is greater than the torque generated by the constant-speed propeller to which oil passages the oil is supplied?

1- The oil is supplied to the coarse pitch oil passage and the fine pitch passage

2- The oil is supplied to the fine pitch oil passage and drained from the coarse pitch passage

4- The oil is supplied to the coarse pitch oil passage and drained from the fine pitch passage

4- Both oil passages are closed

A

The oil is supplied to the coarse pitch oil passage and drained from the fine pitch passage

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124
Q

When the engine runs at the desired speed, which oil passages to the constant-speed propeller are blocked?

1- Coarse pitch oil passage is blocked

2- Both passages are open

3- Fine pitch oil passage is blocked

4- Both oil passages are blocked

A

Both oil passages are blocked

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125
Q

Why reduction gears are used between the engine and the propeller shaft? Select the most complete answer.

1- To reduce the rpm of the propeller

2- All answers are correct

3- To avoid the risk of sonic compressibility at the tip

4- To avoid the blade flutter

A

All answers are correct

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126
Q

How does the propeller return to the previous position after actuation in the single-acting propeller?

1- By the use of springs or a centrifugally actuated counterweights

2- By varying the oil pressure inside the cylinder

3- By the mechanical lever

4- By the electric actuator

A

By the use of springs or a centrifugally actuated counterweights

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127
Q

**Which answer describes the Constant Speed Unit (CSU)?

1- All answers are correct

2- CSU is driven by the engine

3- CSU detects any changes to the engine rpm and compensates for them by the propeller pitch changes

4- CSU is usually installed at the front of the engine, just behind the propeller

A

All answers are correct

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128
Q

Where is the oil pressure boosting pump installed?

1- On the drive shaft
2- On the propellers hub
3- On the crankshaft
4- On the piston wheel

A

On the drive shaft

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129
Q

How is the critical altitude defined?

1 Critical altitude is an altitude over which the engine cannot operate

2 Critical altitude is an altitude at which the engine output power is the lowest

3- Critical altitude is an altitude, at which the engine failure is the most likely to occur

4- Critical altitude is an altitude over which no more increase in turbine speed is possible, so the engine performance will decrease

A

Critical altitude is an altitude over which no more increase in turbine speed is possible, so the engine performance will decrease

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130
Q

What happens in the diffuser?

1- The air velocity decreases and pressure decreases

2- The air velocity increases and pressure increases

3- The air velocity decreases and pressure increases

4- The air velocity increases and pressure decreases

A

The air velocity decreases and pressure increases

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131
Q

What happens when more exhaust gasses are passing through the turbine? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- The turbine rotates faster

3- The compressor rotates faster

4- The pressure ratio of the compressor is increased

A

All answers are correct

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132
Q

Where do the exhaust gases go in the turbocharger when the wastegate is fully closed?

1- Almost all exhaust gases go directly into the atmosphere

2- Exhaust gasses are directed into the cabin heating system

3- Most of the gases directly into the atmosphere but some are directed to the turbine

4- All gases are directed to the turbine

A

All gases are directed to the turbine

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133
Q

What is the correct order while decreasing power?

  1. Reduce the rpm before reducing the manifold pressure

2- Increase the rpm, reduce the manifold pressure and then reduce the rpm

3- Increase the manifold pressure, reduce the rpm and then reduce the manifold pressure

4- None of the answers is correct

A

None of the answers is correct

Decrease manifold pressure (less throttle) then decrease RPM (less prop)

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134
Q

How to obtain maximum cruise performance?

1- Lean the mixture to the leanest mixture on which the engine runs smoothly

2- Lean the mixture until the engine begins to get rougher and slowly enrich just to get out of roughness

3- Lean the mixture almost to roughness and slowly enrich the mixture while checking the airspeed, when the maximum speed occurs the mixture is at the best power ratio

4- Lean the mixture until the engine gets smoother, return the lever to the full rich position and lean the mixture to leave the lever in the position at which the smooth operation occurred

A

Lean the mixture almost to roughness and slowly enrich the mixture while checking the airspeed, when the maximum speed occurs the mixture is at the best power ratio

Best ECONOMY would be –> “Lean the mixture until the engine begins to get rougher and slowly enrich just to get out of roughness”

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135
Q

Which of the following answers is true about the critical altitude? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- The wastegate is fully closed

3- No more increase in turbine speed is possible

4- From this altitude, the engine performance will only decrease

A

All answers are correct

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136
Q

What is the task of the spring in the wastegate actuator?

1- To keep the wastegate in the neutral position

2- To close the wastegate

3- To open the wastegate

4- To provide the redundancy in the wastegate actuation system

A

To open the wastegate

137
Q

Why does the compressor’s impeller in the turbocharger have to rotate faster with the altitude increase? Select the most complete answer.

1- To compensate for the density reduction

2- All answers are correct

3- To keep constant manifold pressure

4- To deliver a constant mass of air to the engine

A

All answers are correct

138
Q

How is the full throttle height defined?

1- The full throttle height is the altitude, at which flying with the full throttle is prohibited

2- The full throttle height is the altitude over which no more increase in turbine speed is possible, so the engine performance will decrease

3- The full throttle height is the altitude at which the throttle is fully opened, and over this altitude, the engine power will decrease

4- The full throttle height is the altitude at which the engine output power is the lowest

A

The full throttle height is the altitude at which the throttle is fully opened, and over this altitude, the engine power will decrease

139
Q

38 gal converted to l equals .
1- 142.83
2- 31.64
3- 143.85
4- 145.67

A

143.85

If no clarifier, assume US gal

US gal to L = * 3.785

140
Q

Which of the following parameters affect the fuel? I - Temperature, II - Aircraft acceleration, III - Type of engine, IV - Attitude of the aircraft

1- I and II

2- I, II, III and IV

3- III and IV

4- I, II, and IV

A

I, II, and IV

141
Q

Why is it impossible to measure the air temperature using the direct reading thermometer on faster aircraft?

1- Becasue the direct reading thermometer cannot respond quickly enough

2- Because the air too fast

3- Due to compressibility effect

4- Because the liquid used inside the thermometer turns to solid at higher airspeeds

A

Due to compressibility effect

142
Q

What is the effect of a complete loss of pressure sensing capability on the analogue display needle?

1- The needle gets stuck on the scale at the position where it was before the failure

2- The needle disconnects from the gauge to indicate its failure

3- Free movement of the needle

4- The needle reverts to the minimum/maximum position

A

The needle reverts to the minimum/maximum position

143
Q

What is/are the disadvantage(s) of the float type fuel gauges? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- They are affected by the attitude of the aircraft

3- They are affected by the acceleration of the aircraft

4- They are affected by the temperature variations

A

All answers are correct

144
Q

Which of the following are the units of fuel quantity? I - Kilograms, II - Pounds, III - Tonnes, IV - Litres. Select the most complete answer.

1- I, II, and III
2- I, II, III and IV
3- I and II
4- IV

A

I, II, III and IV

145
Q

Why is the direct measurement of fuel pressure not desirable?

1- Due to the distance between the fuel gauge and cockpit indicator

2- Because the direct measurement is too unrealiable due to friction of the needle

3- Because the direct measurement is too expensive

4- Due to potential fire risk

A

Due to potential fire risk

146
Q

MAP gauge is used in .

1- piston-engine aircraft

2- turbine-engine aircraft

3- piston and turbine engine aircraft

4- ramjet aircraft

A

piston-engine aircraft

147
Q

What kind of pressure does the airspeed indicator sensor (diaphragm) react to?

1- Static and dynamic

2- Static pressure only

3- Dynamic pressure only

4- Hydrostatic pressure

A

Static and dynamic

148
Q

Static Air Temperature (SAT) is defined as .

1- ram rise + Static Air Temperature(SAT)

2- TAT over recovery factor(k)

3- the maximum temperature of the air when it is brought to rest adiabatically

4- the temperature of undisturbed air in front of the aircraft

A

the temperature of undisturbed air in front of the aircraft

149
Q

Which pressure input is required in vertical speed indicator?

1- Static pressure
2- Dynamic pressure
3- Total pressure
4- Total pressure and static pressure

A

Static pressure

150
Q

What errors do temperature probes suffer from?

1- Instrument, environment and heating errors

2- Instrument, position and temperature errors

3- Environmental and heating error

4- Compressibility and instrumental error

A

Instrument, environment and heating errors

Temperature is part of the environment

151
Q

What are emergency procedures in case of unreliable airspeed indication? Select the most complete answer.

1- Fly at pitch attitude typical for the stage of flight

2- Fly at power settings typical for the stage of flight

3- Use GPS to calculate airspeed

4- All answers are correct

A

All answers are correct

152
Q

What will be indicated on VSI and IVSI in the turbulent conditions in level flight?

1- Both of them indicate zero

2- VSI indicates zero and IVSI indicates small fluctuations

3- Both indicate small fluctuations

4- IVSI indicates zero and VSI indicates small fluctuations

A

VSI indicates zero and IVSI indicates small fluctuations

153
Q

What is the definition of pressure altitude?

1- Vertical distance above airport

2- Vertical distance above ground level

3- Vertical distance above level, where atmospheric pressure is 1,013.25 hPa

4- Vertical distance above mean sea level (MSL)

A

Vertical distance above level, where atmospheric pressure is 1,013.25 hPa

Vertical distance above mean sea level (MSL) = QNH
Vertical distance above airport = QFE

154
Q

What is the advantage of the logarithmic scale over the linear scale on vertical speed indicator?

1- At low climb/descent rates the pointer movement is larger, so it is easier to read

2- The readings are more accurate

3- The time lag is reduced

4- There is a greater range of indications

A

At low climb/descent rates the pointer movement is larger, so it is easier to read

155
Q

* What errors does barometric altimeter suffer from? Select the most complete answer.*

1- All answers are correct
2- Instrument
3- Position and manoeuvre induced
4- Temperature error and time lag

A

All answers are correct

156
Q

* What will the vertical speed indicator read in case of static source blockage?*

1- Indicates the rate of climb at the time of blockage

2- Indicates normally

3- Indicates zero during climb and descent

4- Indicates decreasing rate of climb in climb

A

Indicates zero during climb and descent

157
Q

What problem is greatly reduced by instantaneous vertical speed indicator?

1- Instrument error

2- Position and density error

3- Density error

4- Time lag

A

Time lag

If blocked it cannot read any speed

158
Q

What will the barometric altimeter indicate in case of static source blockage?

1- Indicate zero

2- Indicate constant altitude during climb, level flight and descent

3- Underread during descent

4- Overread during climb

A

Indicate constant altitude during climb, level flight and descent

If it’s blocked it won’t show any pressure changes dispite attitude change

159
Q

* _______ is the angular difference between the compass north and the magnetic north.*

1- Magnetic deviation
2- Magnetic variation
3- Magnetic dip
4- Magnetic inclination

A

Magnetic deviation

1) DEVIATION = Difference between compass North and magnetic North

2) VARIATION (aka Declination) = Difference between geographical (true) North and magnetic North in the horizontal plane

3/4) DIP = INCLINATION = Angle between direction of magnetic field and horizontal plane. Dip at the poles = 90º, Dip at equator = 0º

160
Q

Magnetic variation or declination is ____ .

1- the angle in vertical plane between magnetic north and geographical north

2- the angle in the horizontal plane between the magnetic north and geographical north

3- the angle between true north and geographical north in the horizontal plane

4- the angle between the axis of the magnet and the horizontal plane

A

the angle in the horizontal plane between the magnetic north and geographical north

.DEVIATION = Difference between compass North and magnetic North

.VARIATION (aka Declination) = Difference between geographical (true) North and magnetic North in the horizontal plane

.DIP = INCLINATION = Angle between direction of magnetic field and horizontal plane. Dip at the poles = 90º, Dip at equator = 0º

161
Q

The magnetic dip at the North magnetic pole is equal to .

1- 0°

2- 90°

3- 180°

4- 45°

A

90°

Dip (aka Inclination) at the equator = 0º

162
Q

What should be used to obtain the compass heading from the magnetic heading?

1- Magnetic inclination map

2- Magnetic variation card

3- Magnetic declination map

4- Compass deviation card

A

Compass deviation card

Magnetic heading = Compass heading + Deviation

3) Magnetic declination/variation map is used to derive magnetic heading from true heading

163
Q

What is the purpose of the compass calibration?

1- To correct for magnetic deviations

2- To correct for magnetic variation

3- To determine the residual deviations

4- To correct for magnetic inclination

A

To determine the residual deviations

1) To correct for magnetic deviations –> COMPASS SWINGING

164
Q

In the compass swing procedure .

1- the effect of soft and hard iron magnetism on a compass is determined

2- the deviation due to sof and hard iron magnetism is corrected

3- the residual deviation is corrected

4- only the deviation due to soft iron magnetism is corrected

A

the effect of soft and hard iron magnetism on a compass is determined

165
Q

Let us assume a rate 2 turn from south-east to the south-west in the northern hemisphere. On what heading should the pilot stop the turn?

1- 205°

2- 225°

3- 245°

4- 215°

A

245°

step 1) rate 2 turn = 6º/s

step 2) Turn from S-E (135º) to S-W (225º) is a turn through the South, in clockwise direction

Step 3) We are in the Northern hemisphere

Step 4) mnemonic: UNOS - Undershoot - North; Overshoot - South

Step 5) the desired heading is 225º, but you have to overshoot…so 245º!

166
Q

What should be used to obtain the magnetic heading from the true heading?

1- Magnetic declination map

2- Magnetic inclination map

3- Deviation card

4- Compass swinging curve

A

Magnetic declination map

.DEVIATION = Difference between compass North and magnetic North –> compass deviation card OR compass swinging curve!

.VARIATION (aka DECLINATION) = Difference between geographical (true) North and magnetic North in the horizontal plane

.DIP = INCLINATION = Angle between direction of magnetic field and horizontal plane. Dip at the poles = 90º, Dip at equator = 0º

167
Q

Which statement regarding turning on the northern hemisphere is true?

1- When turning through north the pilot should undershoot and when turning through south the pilot should overshoot

2- When turning through north the pilot should overshoot and when turning through south the pilot should undershoot

3- When turning through east the pilot should undershoot and when turning through west the pilot should overshoot

4- When turning through east the pilot should overshoot and when turning through west the pilot should undershoot

A

When turning through north the pilot should undershoot and when turning through south the pilot should overshoot

**Northen hemisphere = UNOS **(Undershoot - North, Overshoot - South)

**Southern hemisphere = ONUS **(Overshoot - North, Undershoot - South)

168
Q

Which statement regarding an electromagnet is true?

1- The electromagnet has positive and negative pole instead of north and south pole

2- In the electromagnet magnetic field is induced by the static electricity

3- In the electromagnet magnetic field is induced by the flow of an electric current

4- The electromagnet is a type of soft iron bar

A

In the electromagnet magnetic field is induced by the flow of an electric current

Types of magnets:
-Soft irons = temporary magnets
-Hard irons = permanent magnets
-Electromagnets

169
Q

What is the maximum drift of a gyroscope due to Earth rate?

1- 15° per hour
2- 45° per hour
3- 5° per hour
4- 180° per hour

A

15° per hour

Drift = 15º * sin(latitude) per h

170
Q

Which gyroscope property is used by the rate of turn indicator?

1- Rigidity
2- Precession
3- Maintaining constant spin axis
4- Maintaining constant rpm

A

Precession

Gyroscopes only have 2 properties:

1) Rigidity = ability to maintain constant spin axis (improved by high RPM)

2) Precession = Force applied at right (90º) angles to the rotational axis –> low gyro rpm

171
Q

With reference to slip indicator, to perform a coordinated turn, which is true about the resultant force acting on ball?

1- It must be aligned with aircraft’s vertical axis

2- It must be aligned with aircraft’s horizontal axis

3- It must be equal to zero

4- It must be smaller than the centripetal force acting on the ball

A

It must be aligned with aircraft’s vertical axis

172
Q

What are remote reading compass advantages?

1- Turning and acceleration error and gyro drifting error eliminated

2- Turning and acceleration error eliminated

3- Turning and manoeuvre induced error eliminated

4- Time lag and gyro drifting errors eliminated

A

Turning and acceleration error and gyro drifting error eliminated

173
Q

What is the main component of the rate of turn indicator?

1- Horizontal axis rate gyro with one gimbal

2- Vertical axis rate gyro with one gimbal

3- Horizontal axis rate gyro with two gimbals

4- Vertical axis rate gyro with two gimbals

A

Horizontal axis rate gyro with one gimbal

Turn indicator = 1 gimbal, horizontal axis

Artificial horizon (attitude indicator) = 2 gimbals, vertical axis, provides pitch and roll

Directional gyro indicatior = 2 gimbals, horizontal axis, provides yaw, aligned w/ aircraft’s longitudinal axis

174
Q

With reference to the remote reading compass, how does it work in slave mode?

1- Without magnetic monitoring

2- With GPS assist

3- Without horizontal gyro indications

4- With magnetic monitoring

A

With magnetic monitoring

Remote reading compass = Gyro + Flux valve magnetic sensor

Slave mode = Flux valve is operating

Free mode = cuts off flux valve and works only as directional indicator

175
Q

**

Which is the formula used to calculate apparent wander of a directional gyro?

1- 45° times sine of latitude per hour

2- 15° times sine of latitude per hour

3- 30° times sine of latitude per hour

4- 30° times sine of latitude per hour

A

15° times sine of latitude per hour

176
Q

What does the attitude indicator (artificial horizon) provide?

1-Position in pitch and roll

2- Position in latitude and longitude

3- Attitude in latitude and longitude

4- Attitude in pitch and roll

A

Attitude in pitch and roll

177
Q

What is the main component of the directional Gyro Indicator (DGI)?

1- Horizontal gyroscope aligned with aircraft’s longitudinal axis

2- Horizontal gyroscope aligned with aircraft’s lateral axis

3- Vertical gyroscope aligned with aircraft’s vertical axis

4- Vertical gyroscope aligned with Earth’s gravity

A

Horizontal gyroscope aligned with aircraft’s longitudinal axis

Turn indicator = 1 gimbal, horizontal axis

Artificial horizon (attitude indicator) = 2 gimbals, vertical axis, provides pitch and roll

Directional gyro indicatior = 2 gimbals, horizontal axis, provides yaw, aligned w/ aircraft’s longitudinal axis

178
Q

What is the precession of a gyroscope?

1- Ability to maintain constant spin axis

2- Reaction to the applied force precessed by 90 deg in the direction of spinning

3- Device used to suspend the gyroscope

4- Tendency of the gyroscope to point to the true north

A

Reaction to the applied force precessed by 90 deg in the direction of spinning

Rigidity = Ability to maintain constant spin axis

179
Q

What are the characteristic features of HF (High Frequency) communications?

1- Skywave propagation, good signal quality, long range

2- Propagation by the line of sight, poor signal quality, short range

3- Propagation by line of sight, good signal quality, short range

4- Skywave propagation, poor signal quality, long range

A

Skywave propagation, poor signal quality, long range

180
Q

Which communication links are used for datalink transmission by air traffic services? Select the most complete answer.

1- SATCOM

2- All answers are correct

3- VHF

4- HF

A

All answers are correct

181
Q

Which communication links are used for datalink transmission by air traffic services? Select the most complete answer.

1- SATCOM
2- All answers are correct
3- VHF
4- HF

A

All answers are correct

182
Q

In the vicinity of the North Pole, which communication link is best?

1-HF
2- VHF
3- SATCOM
4- SSR mode S

A

HF

183
Q

Which is the correct order of data transmission rate, from the fastest to the slowest?

1- SATCOM, VHF datalink, HF datalink
2- SATCOM, HF datalink, VHF datalink
3- HF datalink, VHF datalink, SATCOM
4- VHF datalink, SATCOM, HF datalink

A

SATCOM, VHF datalink, HF datalink

184
Q

Which statement describes the UPLINK transmission?

1- Transmission from the airline maintenance to the aircraft

2- Transmission from the aircraft to the ground

3- Transmission from the ground to the aircraft

4- Transmission from the cabin to the flight deck

A

Transmission from the ground to the aircraft

185
Q

On the aircraft, the alerts may be .

1- aural only
2- Aural, visual, or tactile
3- aural and visual
4- visual only

A

Aural, visual, or tactile

186
Q

Caution (condition requiring monitoring) is indicated by the colour .

1- white
2- green
3- yellow
4- red

A

yellow

Warning = red
Caution = yellow
Safe operation = green

187
Q

Normal operation (satisfactory condition) is indicated by the colour .

1- yellow
2- white
3- amber
4- green

A

green

Warning = red
Caution = yellow
Safe operation = green

188
Q

Which type of the Stall Warning System is utilises an orifice in the wing’s leading edge?

1- Stall warning horn

2- Stick shaker

3- Stick pusher

4- Pre-stall buffet

A

Stall warning horn

189
Q

Which is the simplest Stall Warning System?

1- Pre-stall buffet

2- Stick shaker

3- Stall warning horn

4- Stick pusher

A

Pre-stall buffet

190
Q

On the left of the attitude information, you may find information.

1- airspeed
2- vertical speed
3- heading
4- altitude

A

airspeed

Primary Flight Display (PFD) has classical T configuration:

Airspeed—–Attitude—-Altitude/vert.speed
|
Heading

191
Q

What are the typical components of the EFIS?

1- PFD, MCDU, EICAS

2- PFD, MFD and EICAS

3- PFD, TCAS, ND

4- EICAS, MCDU, GPWS

A

PFD, MFD and EICAS

EFIS = Electronic Flight Information System
PFD = Primary Flight Display
MFD = Multi-Function Display
EICAS = Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

192
Q

Which component of the EFIS processes data from sensors?

1- IAU
2- AHRS
3- ADC
4- MFD

A

ADC

ADC = Air Data Computer

193
Q

What indicator can be found at the centre of the PFD?

1- Attitude indicator
2- Airspeed indicator
3- Altitude indicator
4- Heading indicator

A

Attitude indicator

Primary Flight Display (PFD) has classical T configuration:

Airspeed—–Attitude—-Altitude/vert.speed
|
Heading

194
Q

On the right of the attitude information, you may find information.

1- airspeed and vertical speed
2- altitude and vertical speed
3- heading
4- vertical speed only

A

altitude and vertical speed

Primary Flight Display (PFD) has classical T configuration:

Airspeed—–Attitude—-Altitude/vert.speed
|
Heading

195
Q

Which component of the EFIS provides information about the attitude and heading?

1- AHRS
2- ADC
3- IAU
4- EICAS

A

AHRS

AHRS = Attitude and Heading Reference System

ADC = Air Data Computer –> Processes data from sensors

IAU = Integrated Avionics Unit –> Generates signals for the display units

196
Q

On which display attitude information is provided?
1- MFD
2- MCDU
3- EICAS
4- PFD

A

PFD

PFD = Primary Flight Display

MFD = Multi-Function Display

EICAS = Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

197
Q

Which component of the EFIS generates signals for the display units?

1- AHRS
2- PFD
3- ADC
4- IAU

A

IAU

IAU = Integrated Avionics Unit

AHRS = Attitude and Heading Reference System

ADC = Air Data Computer –> Processes data from sensors

198
Q

* indication is located below the attitude indicator.*

1- Heading
2- Airspeed
3- Vertical speed
4- Altitude

A

Heading

Primary Flight Display (PFD) has classical T configuration:

Airspeed—–Attitude—-Altitude/vert.speed
|
Heading

199
Q

On which display airspeed information is provided?

1- EICAS
2- MFD
3- PFD
4- None of the answers is correct

A

PFD

PFD = Primary Flight Display

MFD = Multi-Function Display

EICAS = Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

200
Q

The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the upper side of the wing at the… (1,00 P.)

 most inner part of the wing.
 thinnest part of the wing.
 thickest part of the wing.
 most outer part of the wing.

A

thickest part of the wing

201
Q

How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin? (1,00 P.)

 Semi-monocoque construction.
 Grid construction
 Honeycomb structure
 Monocoque construction

A

Grid construction

202
Q

Primary fuselage structures of wood or metal planes are usually made up by what components? (1,00 P.)

 Girders, rips and stringers
 Frames and stringer
 Rips, frames and covers
 Covers, stringers and forming parts

A

Frames and stringer

203
Q

**Which wing configuration is shown in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-002) (1,00 P.) –> It’s a C152

 Strut-braced high wing
 High wing
 Mid wing
 Low wing

A

Strut-braced high wing

204
Q

A construction made of frames and stringer with a supporting skin is called… (1,00 P.)

 Honeycomb structure.
 Grid construction.
 Wood- or mixed construction.
 Semi-monocoque construction.

A

Semi-monocoque construction

205
Q

**Which tail assembly is shown in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-003) (1,00 P.) –> It’s a diamond DA40

 V-tail
 T-tail
 Fuselage-mounted tail
 Cruciform tail

A

T-tail

206
Q

What are the major components of an aircraft’s tail? (1,00 P.)

 Ailerons and elevator
 Horizontal tail and vertical tail
 Rudder and ailerons
 Steering wheel and pedals

A

Horizontal tail and vertical tail

207
Q

The sandwich structure consists of two… (1,00 P.)

 thin layers and a light core material.
 thin layers and a heavy core material.
 thick layers and a heavy core material.
 thick layers and a light core material.

A

thin layers and a light core material

208
Q

Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape? (1,00 P.)

 Rips
 Planking
 Spar
 Tip

A

Rips

209
Q

The load factor “n” describes the relationship between… (1,00 P.)

 thrust and drag.
 drag and lift.
 lift and weight.
 weight and thrust.

A

lift and weight

210
Q

Which are the advantages of sandwich structures? (1,00 P.)

 High temperature durability and low weight

 Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength

 Good formability and high temperature durability

 High strength and good formability

A

Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength

211
Q

Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength? (1,00 P.)

 Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic
 Aluminium
 Wood
 Magnesium

A

Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic

212
Q

What needs to be considered if permissible limitations were exceeded? (1,00 P.)

 The helicopter must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found, no
appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log is necessary

 The helicopter must be inspected by at least two pilots licensed on the type, one of whom must
be the pilot in command

 The helicopter must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight

 The helicopter must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers

A

The helicopter must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight

213
Q

Reasons for dents in the helicopter structure are… (1,00 P.)

 material defects or old colour.
 intense erosion or high wear.
 hard landing or excessive stress.
 excessive engine rpm and cylinder defects.

A

hard landing or excessive stress.

214
Q

What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today? (1,00 P.)

 Mineral oil
 Vegetable oil
 Bio-oil
 Synthetic oil

A

Synthetic oil

Mineral oil = small, light aircraft
Synthetic oil = large, heavy, modern aircraft

215
Q

Number 1 on the gear designates the… See figure (AGK-005) –> Structure that directly attaches the landing gear to the wheel

 fork.
 strut.
 torque link.
 inner shock absorber.

A

fork

216
Q

The fuselage structure may be damaged by… (1,00 P.)

 exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts.

 neutralizing stick forces according to actual flight state.

 stall after exceeding the maximum angle of attack.

 airspeed decreasing below a certain value.

A

exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts

217
Q

Number 2 on the gear designates the… See figure (AGK-005) –> Structure right above the fork in the landing gear

 fork.
 torque link.
 fixed outer cylinder.
 movable inner cylinder.

A

movable inner cylinder

218
Q

How is the nose or tail wheel usually controlled on small aircraft and motor gliders?

 By the steering wheel
 By the control column
 By weight movement
 By the pedals

A

By the pedals

219
Q

Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground?

 On the tail wheel
 On the nose and main gear
 Only on the nose gear
 Only on the main gear

A

Only on the main gear

220
Q

What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel?

 Elevator
 Trim rudder
 Aileron
 Rudder

A

Rudder

221
Q

What is checked by the marking in the attachment? See figure (AGK-006) –> picture of tyre creep mark

 The tread wear of the tire

 The operating pressure of the carcass

 The correct postion of the tire relative to the rim

 The correct position of the outer isolation layers

A

The correct postion of the tire relative to the rim

222
Q

About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called? (1,00 P.)

 4; optical axis, imaginary axis, sagged axis, axis of evil

 4; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis, axis of speed

 3; x-axis, y-axis, z-axis

 3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis

A

3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis

223
Q

**A movement around the longitudinal axis is primarily initiated by the… **

 rudder.
 ailerons.
 elevator.
 trim tab.

A

ailerons

Aillerons = Roll
Rudder = Yay
Elevators = Pitch

224
Q

How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated?

 Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors

 Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators

 Manually through rods and control cables

 Electrically through fly-by-wire

A

Manually through rods and control cables

225
Q

```

~~~

What are the primary and the secondary effects of a rudder input to the left?

 Primary: yaw to the left
Secondary: roll to the right

 Primary: yaw to the left
Secondary: roll to the left

 Primary: yaw to the right
Secondary: roll to the left

 Primary: yaw to the right
Secondary: roll to the right

A

Primary: yaw to the left
Secondary: roll to the left

226
Q

What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards?

 The aircraft’s tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft’s nose to drop

 The aircraft’s tail will produce an decreased upward force, causing the aircraft’s nose to drop

 The aircraft’s tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft’s nose to rise

 The aircraft’s tail will produce an increased upward force, causing the aircraft’s nose to rise

A

The aircraft’s tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft’s nose to rise

The elevator goes up –> creates downward force on the tail –> nose goes up

227
Q

What happens to a helicopter during cruise when the stick is moved forward without other corrections?

 The speed increases and the sink rate increases

 The speed decreases and the sink rate increases

 The speed increases and the sink rate decreases

 The speed decreases and the sink rate decreases

A

The speed increases and the sink rate increases

228
Q

Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?

 All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft

 Flaps, slats, speedbrakes

 Elevator, rudder, aileron

 Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls

A

Elevator, rudder, aileron

Flaps, slats, speedbrakes are SECONDARY control surfaces

229
Q

What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

 To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls

 To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive
control forces

 To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach and
landing

 To enable the pilot to control the aircraft’s movements about its three axes

A

To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive
control forces

PRIMARY flight controls = To enable the pilot to control the aircraft’s movements about its three axes

230
Q

What is the purpose of a ground adjustable trim tab?

 It is set on the ground to correct an out-of-trim condition arising from the mass and balance situation of an aircraft

 It is preset on the ground and further adjusted in flight to reduce the need to constantly re-trim
the aircraft

 It is used to optimize the handling characteristics of an aircraft during ground operations

 It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize the inflight characteristics of an aircraft

A

It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize the inflight characteristics of an aircraft

231
Q

The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved aft by the pilot.
What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator?

 The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up

 The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down

 The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up

 The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down

A

The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up

Aft = back / down
fore = front / up

trim down -> elevator up -> -> downward force on the tail -> nose goes up (pitch up)

232
Q

When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

 Depends on CG position
 It moves up
 In direction of rudder deflection
 It moves down

A

It moves down

trim down -> elevator up -> -> downward force on the tail -> nose goes up (pitch up)

233
Q

How does a balance tab move in relation to the flight control surface that it is coupled with?

 In the opposite direction
 At an angle of 90°
 At an angle of 45°
 In the same direction

A

In the opposite direction

234
Q

The trim is used to…

 increase adverse yaw.
 move the centre of gravity.
 adapt the control force.
 lock control elements.

A

adapt the control force

235
Q

**Which of the following are an aircraft’s secondary flight controls? **

 Elevator, rudder, aileron

 All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft

 Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls

 Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems

A

Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems

236
Q

What has to be considered during refueling?

 Check the fuel content of the tank with a torch and remove fire protection

 No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables

 Refuel through a soaked rag and keep a fire extinguisher available

 Apply ground wires, turn on the main switch and magneto ignition

A

No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables

237
Q

The primer is…

 an auxiliary pump in the fuel system to facilitate engine starting.

 a mechanical switch in the cockpit to engage the turbocharger.

 a valve in the fuel control system for automatic mixture regulation.

 a nozzle in the Venturi tube of a carburettor for atomising the fuel.

A

an auxiliary pump in the fuel system to facilitate engine starting

238
Q

What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?

 To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption

 To prevent water disposal during parking

 To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight

 To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug

A

To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption

239
Q

An aeroplane’s current supply is carried out by the:
1. Battery
2. Generator
3. Relay
4. Circuit breaker

 1 and 4
 3 and 4
 2 and 3
 1 and 2

A

1 and 2

240
Q

What is the unit for voltage?

 Ampere
 Watt
 Ohm
 Volt

A

Volt

241
Q

What is the unit for electrical power?

 Ampere
 Ohm
 Watt
 Volt

A

Watt

242
Q

What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft?

 To ensure grounding during refueling

 To discharge static charging during flight

 To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic

 To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes

A

To discharge static charging during flight

243
Q

What must be considered if the alternator fails in a helicopter?

 All instruments and warning systems will fail

 No change as long as the battery provides enough power

 The engine runs roughly and is prone to knocking

 Only high power consumers will failing

A

No change as long as the battery provides enough power

244
Q

When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with…

 “EL”.
 “DC”.
 “AL”.
 “CO”.

A

“DC”

245
Q

What devices can be affected by a failure of the electrical system in a helicopter?

 Fuel quantity indication, radio equipment and altimeter

 Radio equipment, navigation equipment and magnetic compass

 Airspeed indicator, altimeter and artificial horizon

 Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros

A

Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros

246
Q

Which cylinder arragement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders?

 Horizontally opposed engine
 Radial engine
 In-line engine
 V-type engine

A

Horizontally opposed engine

247
Q

Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-007) –> Picture shows fuel valve open and fuel coming into the cylinder chamber

 Second stroke - compression
 Fourth stroke - exhaust
 First stroke - induction
 Third stroke - power

A

First stroke - induction

248
Q

Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-008) –> Picture shows both valves closes and pisto coming up

 Second stroke - compression
 Third stroke - power
 Fourth stroke - exhaust
 First stroke - induction

A

Second stroke - compression

249
Q

What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos?

 Starter is faulty
 Sparking plug is defective
 Short circuit on the ground cable
 Ignition switch is faulty

A

Sparking plug is defective

250
Q

The highest absorbtion of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation?

 During parking on wet gras areas
 During parking on cold aprons
 Almost empty tanks
 Almost full tanks

A

Almost empty tanks

251
Q

Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

 It floats on the fuel
 Near the cap of the tank
 At the lowest position
 It is mixed with the fuel

A

At the lowest position

252
Q

What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe?

 Anti-knock rating
 Flame front speed
 Ignition timing
 Combustion temperature

A

Anti-knock rating

253
Q

Which colour does Avgas 100 LL have?

 Red
 Green
 Yellow
 Blue

A

Blue

Avgas 100 LL = blue
Agvas 100 = Green (“100% ok”)
AVTUR (e.g JetA1, JetA) = clear

254
Q

What is the direct influence by switching on the carburettor heating on fixed propeller engines during engine run-up?

 RPM decreases
 Angle of attack decreases
 Angle of attack increases
 RPM increaes

A

RPM decreases

255
Q

What is the major task of a carburettor?

 To pump fuel from the tanks into the cylinder

 To control the aircraft’s speed through the throttle valve

 To provide additional fuel to cool the engine

 To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture

A

To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture

256
Q

In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?

 During climb
 During cruise
 During taxi
 During take-off

A

During take-off

257
Q

In which outside air temperature is icing most likely?

 Between -5° C and +20° C
 Between -10° C and +10° C
 Between -20° C and +5° C
 Between -15° C and 0° C

A

Between -5° C and +20° C

258
Q

What is the task of cooling fins on air-cooled engine cylinders?

 Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface

 Cooling of the cylinder surrounding airflow and forwarding to hotter engine parts

 Leading the airflow to parts designated to be cooled

 Increasing the airflow thus improving cooling of cylinder parts

A

Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface

259
Q

Cylinder head temperature indication relates to…

 all Cylinders.
 a random cylinder.
 the critical cylinder.
 the average of all cylinders.

A

the critical cylinder.

Which is the hottest one

260
Q

**What happens during oil filter clocking? **

 A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will be filtered by an alternate filter

 The oil circulation will end after 15 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed

 A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered

 The oil circulation will end after 30 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed

A

A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered

261
Q

How should an Otto engine be shut down?

 By completely leaning the mixture

 By moving the propeller to the feathered position

 By closing the throttle lever completely

 By shutting down the generator

A

By completely leaning the mixture

262
Q

Piston engines of helicopters have…

 one magneto ignition system.
 one electrical ignition system.
 two coupled ignition systems.
 two independent ignition systems.

A

two independent ignition systems

263
Q

How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel?

 Lean
 Full
 Empty
 Rich

A

Rich

264
Q

The angle indicated by arrow number 1 shows the propeller’s…
See figure (AGK-011) –> Picture shows angle between propeller and a vertical line crossing through the center

 angle of incidence.
 angle of attack.
 geometric wing twist.
 aerodynamic wing twist.

A

angle of incidence

265
Q

How should a power increase be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure is described in the flight manual?

 1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM

 1) Decrease RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure

 1) Increase manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM

 1) Increase RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure

A

1) Increase RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure

266
Q

How should a power decrease be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure is described in the flight manual?

 1) Decrease RPM
2) Decrease manifold pressure

 1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM

 1) Decrease RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure

 1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Decrease RPM

A

1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Decrease RPM

267
Q

With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture…

 becomes more lean.
 stays constant.
 becomes liquid.
 becomes richer.

A

becomes richer

268
Q

With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine…

 remains constant.
 first decreases, from 5000 ft on increases.
 increases.
 decreases.

A

decreases

269
Q

***During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and subsequently back to BOTH.
What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly grounded? *

 The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH

 The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH

 The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH

 The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH

A

The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH

270
Q

Which gauges involve a measurement of temperature?

 Engine lubricant, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air, directional gyro

 Engine lubricant, cylinder head, exhaust gas, suction, outside air, cabin air

 Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air

 Engine oil, cylinder head, exhaust gas, altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator

A

Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air

271
Q

Fuel quantity in small aircraft is most commonly measured through a level sensor.
The European Certification Specifications CS 23 require that…

 at least one fuel quantity indicator must be available to indicate the total amount of fuel abord an aircraft. This Indicator must be calibrated adequately to indicate the correct amount of fuel during all phases of flight.

 if the fuel indicator fails, the pilot must land at the next available airport.

 if no fuel quantity indicator is available to the pilot in flight, the pilot must check the fuel quantity before commencing the flight and recalculate the remaining fuel on board in regular intervals during the flight.

 a fuel quantity indicator must be available for each tank and the indicator must be calibrated to
read “zero” during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining in the tank is equal to the unusable fuel supply.

A

a fuel quantity indicator must be available for each tank and the indicator must be calibrated to
read “zero” during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining in the tank is equal to the unusable fuel supply.

272
Q

Which of the instruments listed below obtain their readings through pressure measurement?

 Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator, suction gauge

 Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, fuel quantity gauge, manifold pressure gauge, differential pressure gauge, altimeter

 Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, directional gyro, turn and bank coordinator, oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge

 Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, oil pressure gauge,
fuel pressure gauge

A

1) Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator, suction gauge

273
Q

The Pitot / static system is required to…

 prevent potential static buildup on the aircraft.

 correct the reading of the airspeed indicator to zero when the aircraft is static on the ground.

 measure total and static air pressure.

 prevent icing of the Pitot tube.

A

measure total and static air pressure

274
Q

Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

 Cabin air pressure
 Total air pressure
 Dynamic air pressure
 Static air pressure

A

Total air pressure

Static air pressure = Measured by static ports/vents

Dynamic air pressure is not measured! Calculated by –> Total pressure - Static pressure

275
Q

QFE is the…

 barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

 barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA).

 magnetic bearing to a station.

 altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.

A

barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

QFE = “FEirport”
QNH = “Height of the sea”
QNE = Pressure-altitute = altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa

276
Q

QNE is the…

 barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

 magnetic bearing to a station.

 barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA).

 altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.

A

altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa

QFE = “FEirport”
QNH = “Height of the sea”
QNE = Pressure-altitute = altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa

277
Q

Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale?

 To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder

 To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperature

 To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa

 To correct the altimeter reading for system errors

A

To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa

278
Q

In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an incorrect altimeter reading?

 If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended.

 If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended

 If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended

 If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much greater heights above the ground than intended

A

2) If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended

279
Q

Lower-than-standard temperature may lead to…

 a blockage of the Pitot tube by ice, freezing the altimeter indication to its present value.

 an altitude indication which is too low.

 an altitude indication which is too high.

 a correct altitude indication as long as the altimeter subscale is set to correct for non-standard
temperature.

A

an altitude indication which is too high

280
Q

A flight level is a…

 pressure altitude.
 density altitude.
 altitude above ground.
 true altitude.

A

pressure altitude

True altitude = an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature.

281
Q

A true altitude is…

 a height above ground level corrected for non-standard pressure.

 a height above ground level corrected for non-standard temperature.

 a pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

 an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature.

A

an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature

282
Q

During a flight in colder-than-ISA air the indicated altitude is…

 higher than the true altitude.
 lower than the true altitude.
 eqal to the true altitude.
 equal to the standard altitude.

A

higher than the true altitude

283
Q

During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA and the QNH set correctly,
the indicated altitude is…

 lower than the true altitude.
 equal to the true altitude.
 equal to the standard atmosphere.
 higher than the true altitude.

A

equal to the true altitude

284
Q

Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error?

 Vertical speed indicator
 Altimeter
 Direct reading compass
 Tachometer

A

Altimeter

Hysteresis error is a lag in the instruments altitude indication. Its created by the natural differences in elasticity among the altimeters various internal components and can occur after an aircraft has maintained a constant altitude for an extended period of time.

285
Q

The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the…

 dynamic pressure.
 differential pressure.
 static pressure.
 total pressure.

A

static pressure

286
Q

Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?

 Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir

 Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure

 Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass

 Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum

A

Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir

287
Q

The vertical speed indicator measures the difference of pressure between…

 the present total pressure and the total pressure of a previous moment.

 the present dynamic pressure and the dynamic pressure of a previous moment.

 the present dynamic pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.

 the present static pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.

A

the present total pressure and the total pressure of a previous moment

288
Q

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) equals…

 equivalent airspeed (EAS) corrected for altitude.

 indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for instrument and position error.

 ground speed (GS) corrected for instrument and position error.

 true airspeed (TAS) corrected for wind.

A

indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for instrument and position error

289
Q

At higher altitudes, true airspeed (TAS) tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed (CAS). A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by…

 subtracting 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

 adding 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

 subtracting 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 m altitude.

 adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

A

adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude

290
Q

An aircraft cruises on a heading of 180° with a true airspeed of 100 kt. The wind comes from 180° with 30 kt. Neglecting instrument and position errors, which will be the approximate reading of
the airspeed indicator?

 100 kt
 130 kt
 30 kt
 70 kt

A

100 kt

291
Q

Which of the following factors could cause an erroneous airspeed indication?

 A circuit breaker was pulled
 The earth wire is still attached
 The boost pressure line is defective
 The aircraft is covered with adhesive foils

A

The aircraft is covered with adhesive foils

Because ASI used the pitot-static system to measure pressure difference between static pressure (press.of still air) and ram pressure (press.of moving air compresedd by the aircraft’s forward motion)… and if you cover the static ports/vents static press.measurement cannot be made!

292
Q

Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?

 Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.

 Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

 Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

 Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum.

A

Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure

Total air pressure = measured by pitot

Dynamic air pressure cannot be measured!

Static air pressure is measured by static vents/ports

293
Q

What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays?

 Operational limits
 Caution areas
 Recommended areas
 Operational areas

A

Operational limits

294
Q

What is necessary for the determination of speed (IAS) by the airspeed indicator?

 The difference between the total pressure and the dynamic pressure

 The difference between the standard pressure and the total pressure

 The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure

 The difference between the dynamic pressure and the static pressure

A

The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure

295
Q

What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator?

 Speed range in bumpy air
 Speed range in smooth air
 Speed range for extended flaps
 Speed range not to exceed

A

Speed range for extended flaps

296
Q

What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator?

 Speed which must not be exceeded within bumpy air

 Speed which must not be exceeded with flaps extended

 Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances

 Speed which must not be exceeded in turns with more than 45° bank

A

Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances

297
Q

**The compass error caused by the aircraft’s magnetic field is called… **

 variation.
 declination.
 inclination.
 deviation.

A

deviation

Inclination (dip) = Angle between magnetic field and horizontal plane

Declination (aka variation) = Angle between magnetic north and true north

Deviation = Angle between compass north and magnetic north –> It’s infuenced by the aircraft’s magnetic field

298
Q

The indication of a magnetic compass deviates from magnetic north direction due to what errors?

 Deviation, turning and acceleration errors

 Gravity and magnetism

 Inclination and declination of the earth’s magnetic field

 Variation, turning and acceleration errors

A

Deviation, turning and acceleration errors

299
Q

Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube?

 Vertical speed indicator
 Direct-reading compass
 Altimeter
 Airspeed indicator

A

Airspeed indicator

300
Q

Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port?

 Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

 Airspeed indicator, direct-reading compass, slip indicator

 Altimeter, slip indicator, navigational computer

 Airspeed indicator, altimeter, direct-reading compass

A

Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator

301
Q

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 270° to a heading of 360°. At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated?

 330°
 360°
 270°
 030°

A

330°

Northen hemisphere = “UNOS” –> Undershoot–North; Overshoot–South

Southern hemisphere = “ONUS” –> Overshoot–North, Undershoot–South

302
Q

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 270° to a heading of 360°.
At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated?

 330°
 360°
 270°
 030°

A

330°

Northen hemisphere = “UNOS” –> Undershoot–North; Overshoot–South

Southern hemisphere = “ONUS” –> Overshoot–North, Undershoot–South

303
Q

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 360° to a heading of 270°.
At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated?

 300°
 360°
 240°
 270°

A

270°

304
Q

The term “static pressure” is defined as pressure…

 inside the airplane cabin.
 of undisturbed airflow.
 resulting from orderly flow of air particles.
 sensed by the pitot tube.

A

of undisturbed airflow

Total pressure is sensed by the pitot tube

305
Q

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 030° to a heading of 180°.
At approximately which indicated magnetic heading should the turn be terminated?

 360°.
 150°.
 210°.
 180°.

A

210°

306
Q

What does the dynamic pressure depend directly on?

 Air pressure and air temperature

 Air density and airflow speed squared

 Air density and lift coefficient

 Lift- and drag coefficient

A

Air density and airflow speed squared

Dynamic press= (0.5*air density) * airspeed^2

307
Q

What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?

 Deviation in the cockpit

 Acceleration of the airplane

 Inclination of earth’s magnetic field lines

 Temperature variations

A

Inclination of earth’s magnetic field lines

Dip (inclination) is 90º at the poles
Dip (inclination) is 0º at the equator

308
Q

What behaviour is shown by a rotating gyro in space?

 It moves in accordance with the body surrounding it

 It tends to maintain its position in space

 It swings from east to west like a pendulum

 It moves in circles with a stadily decreasing radius

A

It tends to maintain its position in space

309
Q

A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive movement…

 at an angle of 45° to the force being applied.

 in a northern direction.

 at an angle of 90° to the force being applied.

 at an angle of 180° to the force being applied.

A

at an angle of 90° to the force being applied

310
Q

The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the…

 CAS.
 IAS.
 Ground speed.
 TAS.

A

TAS

311
Q

**A turn and bank (or turn and slip) coordinator provides information regarding… **

 the coordination of the turn and slip angle.

 the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn.

 the pitch and bank angle of the aircraft.

 the rate of turn and bank angle of the aircraft.

A

the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn

312
Q

**The airspeed indicator is unservicable.
The airplane may only be operated… **

 when the airspeed indicator is fully functional again.

 when a GPS with speed indication is used during flight.

 if no maintenance organisation is around.

 if only airfield patterns are flown.

A

when the airspeed indicator is fully functional again.

313
Q

Which light colour advises the pilot to the condition “corrective action may be required in the future”?

 Amber (orange)
 Red
 Blue
 Green

A

Amber (orange)

314
Q

The Caution Area is marked on an airspeed indicator by what color?

 Green
 Red
 Yellow
 White

A

Yellow

315
Q

An attitude director indicator (ADI) combines the information provided by…

 the attitude indicator and the flight director.

 the directional gyro and the rate gyro.

 the attitude indicator and the relative bearing indicator.

 the attitude indicator and the radio magnetic indicator.

A

the attitude indicator and the flight director

316
Q

What does the abbreviation HSI stand for?

 Horizontal Situation Indicator
 Hybernating System Indication
 Horizontal Slip Indicator
 Horrifying Steep Inclination

A

Horizontal Situation Indicator

317
Q

A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the information provided by…

 the directional gyro and the flight director.

 the rate gyro and the slip indicator.

 the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver.

 the attitude indicator and the flight director.

A

the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver

318
Q

What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?

 80 m less than before
 Values depending on QNH
 Zero
 80 m more than before

A

80 m more than before

319
Q

When is it necessary to adjust the pressure in the reference scale of an alitimeter?

 Before every flight and during cross country flights

 Every day before the first flight

 Once a month before flight operation

 After maintance has been finished

A

Before every flight and during cross country flights

320
Q

The altimeter’s reference scale is set to airfield pressure (QFE).
What indication is shown during the flight?

 Pressure altitude
 Height above airfield
 Airfield elevation
 Altitude above MSL

A

Height above airfield

Pressure altitue = QNE
Altitude above MSL = QNH
Airfield elevation = QFE when aircraft is on the ground

321
Q

A vertical speed indicator connected to a too big equalizing tank results in…

 no indication
 mechanical overload
 indication too low
 indication too high

A

indication too high

322
Q

A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between…

 instantaneous total pressure and previous total pressure.

 total pressure and static pressure.

 instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure.

 dynamic pressure and total pressure.

A

instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure

By measuring static port pressure and comparing to static press on inner tank

Total pressure and static pressure = airspeed

323
Q

The term “inclination” is defined as…

 deviation induced by electrical fields.

 angle between airplane’s longitudinal axis and true north.

 angle between earth’s magnetic field lines and horizontal plane.

 angle between magnetic and true north.

A

angle between earth’s magnetic field lines and horizontal plane

Inclination = Dip = 90º at the poles, 0º at the equator

Magnetic declination (aka Deviation) = angle between magnetic and true north.
–> if magnetic north is EAST of true north = declination is POSITIVE
–> if magnetic northe is WEST of true north = declination is NEGATIVE
(“goes from left-WEST (-) to right-EAST (+)”)

324
Q

What does the slip indicator show?

 Apparent vertical
 Rate of turn
 Vertical to horizon
 Airplane’s bank

A

Apparent vertical

The slip indicator ball aligns with the aircraft’s vertical axis

325
Q

The slip indicator’s ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn.
By what actions may the ball led back to middle position?

 Reduce bank, increase rate of turn
 Increase bank, increase rate of turn
 Reduce speed, increase bank
 Reduce rate of turn, reduce bank

A

Reduce bank, increase rate of turn

During a turn, if the ball moves to the same side as the turn = too much bank

326
Q

What is the purpose of winglets?

 Increase gliging performance at high speed.
 Increase of lift and turning manoeuvering capabilities.
 To increase efficiency of aspect ratio.
 Reduction of induced drag.

A

Reduction of induced drag

327
Q

What engines are commonly used with Touring Motor Gliders (TMG)?

 4 Cylinder; 4 stroke
 4 Cylinder 2 stroke
 2 Cylinder Diesel
 2 plate Wankel

A

4 Cylinder; 4 stroke

328
Q

What is the purpose of engine oil in piston engine?

 Cooling, lubrication of the engine and disposal of fine abrasion.

 Cooling of the engine and lubrication of propeller shaft.

 For nose reduction and bearing of the propeller shaft.

 Cooling, lubrication and increasing engine performance.

A

Cooling, lubrication of the engine and disposal of fine abrasion

329
Q

What voltage do DC systems usually require in a small aircraft?

1- 28 V
2- 12 V
3- 230 V
4- 14 V

A

14 V

330
Q

Which airframe elements are typically protected by hot air ice protection systems?

1- Air intakes and propellers

2- Leading edges and engine air intakes

3- Windshields and engine air intakes

4- Propellers only

A

Leading edges and engine air intakes

331
Q

When is the fuel injected into the compression ignition engine?

1- Fuel is mixed with air in the intake manifold before induction to the combustion chamber

2- At the end of the compression

3- Fuel is induced with air before the compression

4- None of the answers is correct

A

At the end of the compression

332
Q

Which of the following answers describe the injection system?

1- Liable to icing

2- Provides good fuel distribution

3- Can be affected by manoeuvres

4- None of the answers is correct

A

Provides good fuel distribution

333
Q

How to decrease the probability of detonation? Select the most complete answer.

1- By using a smaller throttle opening

2- By using a finer propeller pitch

3- All answers are correct

4- By reducing the cylinder pressure

A

All answers are correct

334
Q

Where is the suction filter located?

1- Before the pressure pump

2- After the pressure pump

3- After the scavenge pump

4- Before the scavenge pump

A

Before the pressure pump

335
Q

Which of the following units may be used on the torque meter? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct
2- Lbft
3- %
4- Psi

A

All answers are correct

336
Q

When the engine torque is greater than the torque generated by the constant-speed propeller how would rpm change?

1- Rpm will increase

2- Rpm will decrease

3- Rpm will remain constant

4- At first, rpm will decrease and then increase

A

Rpm will increase

337
Q

Why centrifugal compressors are used in superchargers? Select the most complete answer.

1- All answers are correct

2- Because of their ability to run at high speeds

3- Because of their ability to handle large quantities of air

4- Because they are light, robust and reliable

A

All answers are correct

338
Q

What will be the estimated ram rise at true airspeed of 300 knots?

1- 9°C
2- 3°C
3- 30°C
4- 18°C

A

9°C

“Ram Air Temperature Rise” is calculated (due to adiabatic compression) as follows:

Ram Air Temp Rise (deg C) = velocity(knots true) squared / 87 squared

Examples:

          100 knots: 100^2   / 87^2 =      +1C

          150 knots: 150^2   / 87^2 =      +3C

          200 knots: 200^2   / 87^2 =      +5C

          250 knots: 250^2   / 87^2 =      +8C

          300 knots: 300^2   / 87^2 =    +12C

          350 knots: 350^2   / 87^2 =    +16C

          400 knots: 400^2   / 87^2 =    +21C

          500 knots: 500^2   / 87^2 =    +33C

          600 knots: 600^2   / 87^2 =    +48C
339
Q

In the southern hemisphere, when decelerating on a west heading, the direct reading compass will indicate .

1- no apparent turn
2- an apparent turn to the south
3- an apparent turn to the north
4- apparent turn to the west

A

an apparent turn to the north

Northen hemisphere = “ANDS” - Accelerate –North, Deccelerate–South

Southern hemisphere = “DNAS” - Deccelerate–North, Accelerate–South

PPL (10 decks)

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