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Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ICAO council?

A

The Council is the permanent body of ICAO

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2
Q

What do SARPs stand for?

A

Standards and Recommended Practices

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3
Q

Which body is responsible for introducing Procedures for Air Navigation Services?

A

The Air Navigation Commission

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4
Q

How often does the Assembly of the ICAO meet?

A

Every 3 years

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5
Q

At which convention was ICAO established?

A

The Chicago convention

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6
Q

What is included in annex 7 to the Chicago convention?

A

Annex 7 contains standards adopted by ICAO as the minimum standards for the display of nationality marks and registration marks - this document provides definitions, location and size of registration marks and nationality symbols.

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7
Q

What is included in annex 17 to the Chicago convention?

A

Annex 17 includes SARPs concerned with the security of international air transport

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8
Q

What is included in annex 3 to the Chicago convention?

A

Annex 3 contains the SARPs and certain guidelines for the management of meteorological services to the international air navigation

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9
Q

Which body provides administrative and technical assistance to the ICAO council?

A

The Secretariat

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10
Q

What is included in annex 15 to the Chicago convention?

A

Annex 15 contains SARPs for the provision of the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)

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11
Q

For how long can a contracting state validate a Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) issued by another state?

A

No longer than the original issue

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12
Q

Which items should be included in a CofA application for a new aircraft?

A

-Weight and balance report,
-Statement of conformity,
-The flight manual

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13
Q

How many licences for each aircraft category can a pilot hold?

A

1

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14
Q

What does Part-FCL consider as “instrument time”?

A

The time which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely by reference to instruments or the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in FSTD.

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15
Q

What language abilities must a holder of an Instrument Rating (IR) demonstrate?

A

Ability to use radio-telephony, understanding of the information needed to prepare and accomplish a flight, and ability to communicate effectively with other crew members, all in English.

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16
Q

Which items must be included in a CofA application for a used aircraft?

A

-Historical records of aircraft maintenance;

-The flight manual,
-Weight and balance report,
-Statement of conformity

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17
Q

Which aircraft are required to hold a CofA?

A

All aircraft engaged in international navigation

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18
Q

Who is responsible for determining the aircraft continuing airworthiness?

A

The contracting state of the registry

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19
Q

Where should registration, nationality and common marks be on an aeroplane?

A

On the wing’s lower surface and either the fuselage or the vertical tail surface

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20
Q

Which lights must be displayed during the day by an aircraft in flight?

A

Anti-collision lights

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21
Q

What should be done when there are two aircraft approaching head-on on the ground?

A

Both aircraft should stop, then, if possible, change their way to the right

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22
Q

Which lights must be displayed at night by aircraft on the ground?

A

-Navigation lights,
-Anti-collision lights,
-Lights indicating engines are running

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23
Q

When two aircraft of the same type are converging in flight, which of them has the right of way?

A

The aircraft on the right of the other

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24
Q

Referring to the rules for the avoidance of collision, the PIC must….

A

Take any action required to avoid collision

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25
Q

In which meteorological conditions is flying under IFR possible?

A

VMC and IMC

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26
Q

Which light signal should ATS use to warn an aircraft in flight that an aerodrome is not safe to land?

A

Red flashes

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27
Q

The cruising levels above the lowest usable flight level are expressed in terms of ____, while those below that height are expressed in terms of _____.

A

Flight levels; Altitude

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28
Q

Which lights must be displayed at night by an aircraft in flight?

A

-Navigation lights (unless an aircraft is a ballon);
-Anti-collision lights;
-The lights that are compulsory during the day.

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29
Q

Which lights must be displayed during the day by an aircraft on the ground?

A

Anti-collision lights

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30
Q

Which flight levels are available for VFR and IFR flights according to their magnetic tracks?

A

VFR flight levels end in “5”
IFR flight levels end in “0”

Magnetic headings 0º to 179º have ODD flight levels
Magnetic headings 180º to 359º have EVEN flight levels

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31
Q

In which case is deviation form flight plant permitted?

A

If requested OR emergency

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32
Q

Minimum permitted altitude for VFR flights over congested areas is _______ over the highest obstacle in the proximity of _____ the aircraft.

A

1000 ft; 600m

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33
Q

Essentials to perform a simulated instrument flight

A

-Doubled, fully functional controls;
-Qualified safety pilot

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34
Q

The minimum permitted altitude for VFR flights over uncongested areas is ____ over the ground or highest obstacle in the proximity of ___ of the aircraft, if any.

A

500ft; 150m

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35
Q

Consider VFR flight at altitude 10 000ft AMSL in class C airspace. Which weather minima must the pilot preserve?

A

Horizontal distance from cloud - 1500m;
Vertical distance from clod - 1000 ft (300m);
Flight visibility - 5km.

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36
Q

What are the responsibilities associated with a controlled VFR flight?

A

-Obtaining ATC clearances;
-Maintaining voice communication watch;
-Reporting position (unless instructed otherwise by ATS).

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37
Q

Which information has to be included in a request for a change in flight plan route?

A

-Aircraft identification;
-Flight rules;
-New time estimates

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38
Q

In what circumstances must a new flight plan be submitted?

A

If EOBT delay of >30min in controlled flight

OR

If EOBT delay of >60min in uncontrolled flight

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39
Q

In which circumstances is an aircraft likely to be intercepted?

A

-When an aircraft enters the airspace of a state through a different route from the one stated in the overflight permission;
-When an aircraft deviated from a flight plan without known cause;
-When an aircraft cannot be identified;
-When an aircraft enters a prohibited zone;
-When an aircraft does not follow instructions;
-When an aircraft is considered a hazard;
-When an aircraft is suspected to be engaged in illegal activity.

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40
Q

Which action should the ATC take if they suspect a communication loss?

A

-Confirm it by asking the pilot to send a signal or perform a maneuver;
-Continue to send blind instructions;
-Employ light signals if the aircraft is a part of the aerodrome’s traffic pattern.

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41
Q

If unlawful interference occurs to an aircraft, which code should the flight crew set the transponder to?

A

7500

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42
Q

According to SERA, which situations can be considered an act of unlawful interference?

A

-Spreading misinformation;
-Aircraft seizure;
-Bringing dangerous materials on board.

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43
Q

Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a) Certificate of aircraft registration

b) Certificate of airworthiness

c) Airworthiness review certificate

d) EASA Form-1

e) Airplane logbook

f) Appropriate papers for every crew member

g) Technical logbook

 b, c, d, e, f, g
 a, b, c, e, f
 a, b, e, g
 d, f, g

A

a, b, c, e, f

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44
Q

Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?

 No-fly zone
 Restricted area
 Prohibited area
 Dangerous area

A

Restricted area

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45
Q

Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found?

 NOTAM
 AIC
 ICAO chart 1:500000
 AIP

A

AIP

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46
Q

What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA?
(e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED)

 They have the same status as ICAO Annexes

 Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding

 They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide

 They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

A

They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

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47
Q

Which validity does the “Certificate of Airworthiness” have?

 6 months
 12 years
 Unlimited
 12 months

A

Unlimited

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48
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ARC”?

 Airworthiness Recurring Control

 Airspace Rulemaking Committee

 Airspace Restriction Criteria

 Airworthiness Review Certificate

A

Airworthiness Review Certificate

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49
Q

The “Certificate of Airworthiness” is issued by the state…

 in which the aircraft is registered.

 of the residence of the owner.

 in which the aircraft is constructed.

 in which the airworthiness review is done.

A

in which the aircraft is registered.

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50
Q

A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in…

 those countries that have accepted this license on application.

 the country where the license was issued.

 all ICAO countries.

 the country where the license was acquired.

A

all ICAO countries.

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51
Q

What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?

 Air traffic services
 Flight crew licensing
 Rules of the air
 Operation of aircraft

A

Flight crew licensing

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52
Q

What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)?

 Unlimited
 24 months
 48 months
 60 months

A

Unlimited

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53
Q

What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot license?

 17 years
 21 years
 16 years
 18 years

A

17 years

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54
Q

What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights?

 At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

A

At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

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55
Q

The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is…

 60 Months.
 48 Months.
 24 Months.
 12 Months.

A

12 Months

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56
Q

In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?

 A proficiency check with an examiner

 According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of
an ATO

 The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor

 The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor

A

A proficiency check with an examiner

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57
Q

The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to…

 act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.

 act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.

 act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation may be obtained.

 act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor.

A

act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor.

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58
Q

What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school?

 16 years
 17 years
 21 years
 18 years

A

16 years

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59
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “SERA”?

 Selective Radar Altimeter

 Standardized European Rules of the Air

 Specialized Radar Approach

 Standard European Routes of the Air

A

tandardized European Rules of the Air

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60
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “TRA”?

 Temporary Reserved Airspace

 Temporary Radar Routing Area

 Transponder Area

 Terminal Area

A

Temporary Reserved Airspace

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61
Q

What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?

 To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact

 To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority

 The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000

 To obtain a clearance to enter this area

A

To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact

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62
Q

What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?

 Visual reference to the terrain

 Speed not above 115 kt IAS

 At least 500 m ground visibility

 A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m

A

Visual reference to the terrain

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63
Q

What has to be done before entering a TMZ?

 Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S

 Request a clearance before entering

 Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk “IDENT”

 File a flight plan before the flight

A

Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S

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64
Q

What is the meaning of an area marked as “TMZ”?

 Transportation Management Zone

 Touring Motorglider Zone

 Traffic Management Zone

 Transponder Mandatory Zone

A

Transponder Mandatory Zone

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65
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “IFR”?

 Instrument Flight Rules

 Instrument Meteorological Conditions

 Bad Weather Flight Rules

 Commercial Flight Rules

A

Instrument Flight Rules

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66
Q

A flight is called a “visual flight”, if the…

 visibility in flight is more than 8 km.

 flight is conducted under visual flight rules.

 visibility in flight is more than 5 km.

 flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.

A

flight is conducted under visual flight rules

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67
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “VMC”?

 Instrument flight conditions

 Variable meteorological conditions

 Visual meteorological conditions

 Visual flight rules

A

Visual meteorological conditions

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68
Q

Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude.
Which one has to divert?

 The lighter one has to climb

 Both have to divert to the right

 The heavier one has to climb

 Both have to divert to the left

A

Both have to divert to the right

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69
Q

Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks.
Which one has to divert?

 The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority

 Both have to divert to the right

 The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority

 Both have to divert to the left

A

The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority

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70
Q

In airspace “D” a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses.
Which aeroplane has to divert?

 The Cessna 152, because IFR and commercial flights have priority

 The air traffic control (ATC) has to decide which one has to divert

 The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert

 The Boeing 737, because an airliner has greater power reserves

A

The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert

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71
Q

Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?

 Take-off or landing at an aerodrome

 An approach without landing at an aerodrome

 Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

 The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome

A

Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

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72
Q

A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at the same altitude.
Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision?

 The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft

 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left

 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right

 The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft

A

Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right

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73
Q

Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and E?

 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically

 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically

 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically

 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically

A

1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically

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74
Q

The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is…

 8000 m.
 3000 m.
 1500 m.
 5000 m.

A

5000 m

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75
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?

 8000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m
 5000 m

A

5000 m

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76
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “E” for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75?

 8000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m
 5000 m

A

5000 m

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77
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL110?

 5000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m
 8000 m

A

8000 m

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78
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125?

 5000 m
 3000 m
 1500 m
 8000 m

A

8000 m

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79
Q

What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace “B”?

 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m

 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m

 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft

 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m

A

Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m

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80
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?

 5 km
 10 km
 1.5 km
 8 km

A

5 km

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81
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?

 1.5 km
 5 km
 10 km
 8 km

A

8 km

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82
Q

The term “ceiling” is defined as the…

 altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.

 height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

A

height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

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83
Q

Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal:
Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a smooth turn to the left?

 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area

 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

 Follow me

 You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading

A

Follow me

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84
Q

Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal:
A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

 You may continue your flight

 Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield

 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area

A

You may continue your flight

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85
Q

The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa…

 at the decision height.

 at 4000 ft.

 when climbing above the transition altitude.

 when descending below FL 100.

A

when climbing above the transition altitude.

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86
Q

During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be…

 1030.25 hPa.
 1013.25 hPa.
 local QFE.
 local QNH.

A

1013.25 hPa

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87
Q

What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?

 To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude

 To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP

 To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern

 To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres

A

To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude

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88
Q

Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes?

 A, C, S
 A, C, R
 B, C, V
 B, R, S

A

A, C, S

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89
Q

A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a…

 pressure-decoder.

 mode C or S transponder.

 mode A transponder.

 transponder approved for airspace “B”.

A

mode C or S transponder

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90
Q

Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication?

 2000
 7700
 7000
 7600

A

7600

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91
Q

Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?

 7600
 7700
 7000
 7500

A

7600

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92
Q

Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency?

 7600
 7000
 7700
 7500

A

7700

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93
Q

Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?

 ALR (alerting service)

 FIS (flight information service)

 ATC (air traffic control)

 AIS (aeronautical information service)

A

ATC (air traffic control)

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94
Q

Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

 TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)

 APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
FIS (flight information service)

 ALR (alerting service)
SAR (search and rescue service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)

 FIS (flight information service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)

A

TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)

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95
Q

Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace “E”?

 IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic

 VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic

 VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

 VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic

A

VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic

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96
Q

Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?

 ATC (air traffic control)
FIS (flight information service)

 FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)

 AIS (aeronautical information service)
SAR (search and rescue)

 ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)

A

FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)

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97
Q

A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)…

 via telephone.

 via internet.

 by a personal visit.

 via radio communication.

A

via radio communication

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98
Q

What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category?

 Danger jet blast

 Be careful wake winds

 Attention propwash

 Caution wake turbulence

A

Caution wake turbulence

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99
Q

Which of the following options states a correct position report?

 DEABC reaching “N”

 DEABC over “N” in FL 2500 ft

 DEABC, “N”, 2500 ft

 DEABC over “N” at 35

A

DEABC, “N”, 2500 ft

100
Q

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “AIREP”?

 Aircraft report

 Aeronautical instrument requirement report

 Automatic identification report

 Aeronautical information report

A

Aircraft report

101
Q

What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?

 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces

 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods

A

Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

102
Q

Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?

 GEN
MET
RAC

 GEN
COM
MET

 GEN
AGA
COM

 GEN
ENR
AD

A

GEN
ENR
AD

“Gener ad”

103
Q

What information is provided in the part “AD” of the AIP?

 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.

 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts

 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods

A

Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts

104
Q

The shown NOTAM is valid until…

A1024/13 A) LOWW B)1305211200 C)1305211400
E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.

 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.
 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.
 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.

A

21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.

105
Q

A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current…

 ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.

 AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

 AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.

 NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

A

NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

106
Q

The term “aerodrome elevation” is defined as…

 the highest point of the landing area.

 the lowest point of the landing area.

 the highest point of the apron.

 the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.

A

the highest point of the landing area.

107
Q

The term “runway” is defined as a…

 round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

 rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.

A

rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

108
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to the term “taxi holding point”?

 A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed
is given

 A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are
prevailing

 A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given

 A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed
when a taxi clearance is given

A

A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given

109
Q

What does the reported runway condition “WET” mean?

 Some water patches are visible

 The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water

 A large part of the surface is flooded

 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

A

The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water

110
Q

What does the reported runway condition “DAMP” mean?

 Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible

 Change of colour on the surface due to moisture

 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

 A large part of the surface is flooded

A

Change of colour on the surface due to moisture

111
Q

What does “WATER PATCHES” mean regarding the reported runway condition?

 A large part of the surface is flooded

 Patches of standing water are visible

 Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible

 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

A

Patches of standing water are visible

112
Q

How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility?

 The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.

 The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.

 The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.

 The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.

A

The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.

113
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight?

 Airport unsafe, do not land

 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

 Cleared to land

 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

A

Airport unsafe, do not land

114
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

 Cleared to land

 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

 Airport unsafe, do not land

A

Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

115
Q

What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

 Cleared to land

 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

 Airport unsafe, do not land

A

Cleared to land

116
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

 Cleared to taxi

 Clear the taxiway / runway

 Cleared for take-off

 Return to starting point

A

Return to starting point

117
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

 Cleared for take-off

 Cleared to taxi

 Immediately taxi clear of runway in use

 Return to starting point

A

Immediately taxi clear of runway in use

118
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

 Cleared to taxi

 Return to starting point

 Land at this airport and proceed to the apron

 Cleared for take-off

A

Cleared to taxi

119
Q

Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

 L
 A straight arrow
 An angled arrow
 T

A

T

120
Q

What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?

 It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft

 It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed

 Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance

 It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects

A

It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft

121
Q

In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?

 Apply some changes of RPM
 Apply some changes of the rudder
 Rock the wings (in the daytime)
 Apply some fast pitch changes

A

Rock the wings (in the daytime)

122
Q

What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to
an aircraft on ground?

 Land at this airport and proceed to apron
 Clear the taxiway / runway
 Return to starting point
 Stop

A

Stop

123
Q

How are two parallel runways designated?

 The left runway gets the suffix “L”, the right runway “R”

 The left runway gets the suffix “L”, the right runway remains unchanged

 The left runway gets the suffix “-1”, the right runway “-2”

 The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1

A

The left runway gets the suffix “L”, the right runway “R”

124
Q

According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway?

 Blue
 White
 Yellow
 Green

A

White

125
Q

What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed
symmetrically about the centerline of a runway?

 At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway

 Do not touch down before them

 Do not touch down behind them

 A ground roll could be started from this position

A

Do not touch down before them

126
Q

Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways?

 “06L” and “06R”
 “18” and “18-2”
 “26” and “26R”
 “24” and “25”

A

“06L” and “06R”

127
Q

What is a “PAPI” (Precision Approach Path Indicator)?

 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport

 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport

 An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport

 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport

A

A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport

128
Q

An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a…

 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground.

 rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

 fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

A

rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

129
Q

Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

 Red
 White
 Blue
 Green

A

White

130
Q

Which is the colour of runway end lights?
 Red
 White
 Blue
 Green

A

Red

131
Q

What is shown on the printed sign?
_______
|__A__|

Outer rim is yellow
Letter is yellow
Backgroun is black

 Point A on a taxiway
 Part A of the runway
 Taxiway A
 Parking position A

A |

A

Taxiway A

132
Q

What is shown on the printed sign?

<—- 2500m

 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area

 From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction

 The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m

 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway

A

From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction

133
Q

What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?

++

 Landing prohibited for a longer period

 Glider flying is in progress

 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

A

Glider flying is in progress

134
Q

What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an
aerodrome?
______
| ____ >
| |

 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

 Prohibition on landing for a longer period

 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

 Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces

A

After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

135
Q

What is the meaning of “DETRESFA”?

 Uncertainty phase
 Rescue phase
 Distress phase
 Alerting phase

A

Distress phase

136
Q

Who provides search and rescue service?

 Only military organisations
 International approved organisations
 Only civil organisations
 Both military and civil organisations

A

Both military and civil organisations

137
Q

How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight?

 Rock the wings

 Push the rudder in both directions multiple times

 Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times

 Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times

A

Rock the wings

138
Q

With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurrences?

 Event, Crash, Disaster

 Happening, Event, Serious event

 Incident, Serious incident, Accident

 Event, Serious event, Accident

A

Incident
Serious incident
Accident

139
Q

What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?

 To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences

 To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers

 To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations

 To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents

A

To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations

140
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations?

A

Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)

141
Q

What information has to be provided in the ATIS?

A

-Name of the aerodrome;
-Arrival and/or departure indicator;
-Message indicator;
-Runway information;
-Transition level;
-Type of approach;
-Surface wind;
-Visibility;
-Clouds and weather;
-Air temperature;
-Dew point temperature;
-Altimeter setting;
-Other important information.

142
Q

What is the name of the emergency phase referring to a situation, in which it is certain that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened?

A

DETRESFA

143
Q

Which statement is true concerning the UIRs, upper airspace CTAs and FIRs?

A

One UIR usually covers a few FIRs to limit the number of controlled airspace areas the aircraft would have to operate through

144
Q

What are the basic elements of an ATC clearance?

A

Aircraft identification, clearance limit, route, flight level

145
Q

When is the INCERFA initiated?

A

When an aircraft does not arrive within 30 minutes of the estimated time of arrival and there are doubts concerning the aircraft’s safety.

146
Q

How is the airspace divided according to international regulations?

A

Into Flight Information Regions (FIRs) and Upper Flight Information Regions (UIRs)

147
Q

What are the names of the three basic units of Air Traffic Control Services?

A

Area Control Service, Approach Control Service, Aerodrome Control Service

148
Q

Which statement is true concerning flights in class E airspace?

A

IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights only

149
Q

What is the name of the emergency phase referring to a situation, in which it is uncertain if an aircraft and its occupants are safe?

A

INCERFA

150
Q

With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a HEAVY aircraft following another HEAVY aircraft for landing?

A

4 NM

151
Q

What is a clearance limit?

A

The point to which the aircraft’s ATC clearance is valid

152
Q

Which phenomenon should trigger a special air report when encountered in flight?

A

Severe turbulence

153
Q

With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a HEAVY aircraft following a SUPER aircraft for landing?

A

6 NM

154
Q

What is the minimum time separation between a LIGHT category aircraft taking off after MEDIUM if they use crossing runways?

A

2 minutes

155
Q

What is the minimum time separation between a LIGHT or MEDIUM category aircraft taking off after HEAVY if they use crossing runways?

A

2 minutes

156
Q

With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a LIGHT aircraft following a SUPER aircraft for landing?

A

8 NM

157
Q

Which elements of an ATC clearance have to be read back by the crew?

A

Runway in use, QNH, taxi instructions, holding instructions, transponder code

158
Q

What is the minimum separation between a LIGHT aircraft landing after a HEAVY aircraft’s missed approach to an opposite-direction parallel runway, separated by less than 760 m?

A

2 minutes

159
Q

Can the crew not accept the clearance issued by the ATC?

A

Yes; in a case like this an amended clearance will be issued on crew request

160
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on interception of civil aircraft and air traffic incidents can be found?

A

Part 2 – En-route (ENR)

161
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on approach and runway lighting can be found?

A

Part 3 – Aerodromes (AD)

162
Q

How many types of airspace restrictions are defined by ICAO Annex 15?

A

3

163
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on meteorological information services can be found?

A

Part 1 – General (GEN)

164
Q

For how long is an ASHTAM valid?

A

For a maximum of 24 hours

165
Q

What type of NOTAM can be used to inform about the condition of the surface of the aerodrome’s movement area?

A

SNOWTAM

166
Q

Which post-flight information regarding flights ending at international airports should be collected from the flight crew and distributed by the AIS unit? Select the most complete answer.

A

-Information about the operation of navigation facilities and services;
-Information about the presence of wildlife hazards

167
Q

Which information product can be used to announce permanent changes to the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?

A

AIP amendment

168
Q

What is the objective of an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)?

A

Improving the safety and efficiency of air traffic

169
Q

How often should a checklist of all Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) currently in force be published?

A

At least once a year

170
Q

The term ‘WET ICE’ is used to describe…

A

The runway surface condition when the runway braking action is reported by pilots to be less than poor

171
Q

How often should a checklist of all Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) currently in force be published?

A

At least once a year

172
Q

What does the abbreviation RESA mean?

A

Runway End Safety Area

173
Q

For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?

A

For a maximum of 8 hours

174
Q

What is a Stopway (SWY)?

A

A rectangular area at the end of the runway is used by aircraft only in case of abandoned take-off or other emergencies.

175
Q

What is typically included in the Pre-flight Information Bulletin (PIB)?

A

Operationally significant NOTAMs

176
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on approach and runway lighting can be found?

A

Part 3 – Aerodromes (AD)

177
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on meteorological information services can be found?

A

Part 1 – General (GEN)

178
Q

How long are the intervals between consecutive effective dates of changes issued under the Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC)?

A

28 days

179
Q

What is an aerodrome reference point?

A

The designated aerodrome’s geographical location

180
Q

What does the number of stripes on the runway threshold markings depend on?

A

Width of the runway

181
Q

How are DIRECTIONS indicated by aerodrome information markings?

A

Yellow markings with black lettering

182
Q

Runway holding position sign are…

A

Mandatory instruction signs

183
Q

What is a signal area?

A

The area where ground symbols providing visual information regarding the aerodrome conditions to overflying aircraft are presented

184
Q

How are LOCATIONS indicated by aerodrome information markings?

A

Black markings with yellow lettering

185
Q

What is the number of pairs of the touchdown zone markings correlated with?

A

The runway Landing Distance Available (LDA)

186
Q

Where can holding position markings be placed?

A

-At runway holding point;
-At taxiway intersection;
-At the exit boundary of de/anti-icing stand

187
Q

Regarding the aerodrome markings, which elements are marked in yellow?

A

-Taxiway;
-Aircraft stand;
-Runway turn pads

188
Q

What color should be the low intensity obstacle lights on fixed aerodrome objects?

A

Fixed red

189
Q

What light color should be used to mark the joint of a runway and taxiway centreline?

A

The centreline lights should show alternate green and yellow when viewed from the runway side, up to the edge of the ILS/MLS sensitive area

190
Q

What is the correct marking of the paved pre-threshold area greater than 60m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft in any direction?

A

White ‘X’

191
Q

When do aeronautical ground lights need to be iliminated?

A

During the period of time at which the geometric centre of the sun is at least 6 degrees below the horizon

192
Q

Considering a CAT I precision approach system, what is the distance between each pair of crossbars?

A

150m

193
Q

When should an aerodrome beacon be provided at an aerodrome?

A

If the aerodrome is intended to be used by VfR flights and at night

194
Q

What color should the low-intensity obstacle lights be on vehicles not associated with emergency or security services?

A

Flashing yellow

195
Q

High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its height above the ground level exceeds ___ . The lights shall be ___ .

A

150m; flashing white lights

196
Q

With reference to moving object marking at an aerodrome, what should be the color of a flag used to mark a moving vehicle?

A

Red and white chequered

197
Q

Which statement is true concerning the CAT II/III precision approach lighting system?

A

If the centreline is made of barrettes, each of them should be supplemented by a flashlight flashing in a sequence that begins with the outermost light and progresses towards the threshold.

198
Q

Which information has to be reported in case of an emergency?

A

-Number of survivors and their physical condition;
-Best ground access route to the crash site;
-Number of survivors who have been spotted abandoning the ship, in case the crash site is in the water

199
Q

What process describes a crash-landing where the aircraft is forced to land on water?

A

Ditching

200
Q

“A situation in which the aircraft is in danger and passengers are in a life-threatening situation and require immediate assistance” is the definition of….

A

Distress phase

201
Q

What does the rescue coordination centre (RCC) do?

A

It controls and coordinates search and rescue operations in Search And Rescue (SRR)

202
Q

Where should the contracting states establish the alerting posts?

A

In places with insufficient telecommunications infrastructure where visual identification of the aircraft is difficult

203
Q

What is the important information the PIC should provide in case of emergency?

A

-Condition of the vessel in distress;
-Position as geographical coordinates of the vessel in distress, and time of the observation;
-Identification and type of the vessel in distress

204
Q

If a pilot is flying in a mountainous region and notices a “V” symbol on the ground, what does this symbol mean?

A

Assistance is required (NOT medical)

205
Q

Which signal code is used by survivors on the ground to indicate “NEGATIVE” signal?

A

N

206
Q

Areas of undetermined sovereignty shall be determined on the basis of…

A

Regional air navigation agreements

207
Q

How many sub-phases does the emergency phase have?

A

3

208
Q

What is the objective of aviation security?

A

The safeguard of international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

209
Q

Who establishes the national civil aviation security programme?

A

Each contracting state

210
Q

If an unlawful interference occurred during a flight, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of the passengers and crew of an aircraft until the aeroplane lands?

A

The contracting state in which the unlawful interference occured

211
Q

How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure during a flight?

A

-By giving the permission to land as it may be necessitated by the circumstances;
-By providing navigational aids;
-By providing Air Traffic Services (ATS)

212
Q

What is an Airside?

A

Airside is the movement area of an airport beyond passport and customs control, the access to this area is controlled

213
Q

Who is responsible to take proper actions if there is a security threat on board an aircraft which is still parking at the gate during boarding procedures?

A

-PIC;
-Police;
-Airport manager

214
Q

How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure when the plane lands?

A

The contracting state should ensure that the concerned aeroplane would be detained on the ground unless it would endanger human life

215
Q

Which transponder code (squawk) is set to inform about danger?

A

7700

216
Q

What responsibilities does each contracting state have? regarding security?

A

-Develop regulations regarding the safety of flights;
-Create an organization to face increased security threat;
-Implement procedures to ensure regularity and efficiency of flights

217
Q

If a passenger is obliged to travel due to legal proceedings, the contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that….

A

The aircraft operator and the PIC are informed

218
Q

Who should be informed if any law enforcement officers carrying weapons are on board?

A

PIC

219
Q

Which transponder code (squawk) should be set when the aeroplane has been highjacked?

A

7500

220
Q

What should the PIC do in case of unlawful interference?

A

-Attempt to land the aircraft immediately at the nearest aerodrome, unless considerations aboard the aircraft dictate otherwise;
-Notify the appropriate ATS units to minimize conflict with other aeroplanes;
-Submit a report to the competente authority and shall inform the designated local authority

221
Q

What is the aircraft security check?

A

An inspection of the interior of the aircraft to which passenger may have had access, to discover suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles and substances

222
Q

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference departs from its assigned track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS. the PIC will…

A

-Attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF channel in use;
-Attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF emergency frequency

223
Q

What does a member state require from foreign states to allow police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons on its territory to protect the flight?

A

The state of embarkation must inform the foreign state priorly regarding the weapons that will be carried at the airport of arrival and notification of the PIC’s decision to allow weapons to be carried on board the aeroplane

224
Q

The ICAO comprise rules to give higher priority to the safety of ____ passengers against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.

A

Passengers, crew, ground personnel and general public

225
Q

After an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, the _____ has to submit to a competent authority and shall inform the designated local authority.

A

PIC

226
Q

Unidentified luggage is _______.

A

Luggage at an airport, with or without name tag, which is not picked up by or identified with its owner.

227
Q

What is the minimum time separation between a HEAVY category aircraft taking off after SUPER if they both use the same runway?

A

2 min

228
Q

What are the basic elements of a position report?

A

Aircraft identification, present position, time, altitude, next point and time over

229
Q

Which phenomenon should trigger a special air report when encountered in flight?

A

Severe turbulence

230
Q

What is the minimal availability of the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) that a state must provide to all aircraft overflying its territory?

A

At least 2 hours before entering the area of coverage and 2 hours after leaving it

231
Q

In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on interception of civil aircraft and air traffic incidents can be found?

A

Part 2 – En-route (ENR)

232
Q

For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?

A

8 hours

233
Q

For how long is an ASHTAM valid?

A

24 hours

234
Q

What is the normal taxiing speed for runways with code number 3 or 4?

A

93 km/h

235
Q

When may the term ‘DRY SNOW’ be used to describe the runway surface condition?

A

When it is not possible to make a snowball from snow readily

236
Q

What is the number of pairs of the touchdown zone markings correlated with?

A

The runway Landing Distance Available (LDA)

237
Q

What is a signal area?

A

The area where ground symbols providing visual information regarding the aerodrome conditions to over-flying aircraft are presented

238
Q

What is the full length of a CAT II/III precision approach lighting system?

A

900 m

239
Q

Which statement concerning the external ground handling equipment is true?

1- Ground handling equipment may never block evacuation paths during boarding, deboarding or aircraft refuelling

2- During aircraft refuelling, the ground handling equipment may never be plugged in

3- Ground handling equipment may approach the aircraft no sooner than once all the passengers have disembarked

4- All answers are correct

A

1- Ground handling equipment may never block evacuation paths during boarding, deboarding or aircraft refuelling

240
Q

Using the ground-air visual code, the symbol ‘XX’ means _____.

A

we are not able to continue, returning to the base

240
Q

With reference to fixed obstacle marking at an aerodrome, what should be the colour of a flag used to mark an inconspicuous fixed obstacle?

A

Orange

240
Q

If a pilot is flying in a mountainous region and notices a ‘V’ symbol on the ground, what does this symbol mean?

A

Assistance is required

241
Q

How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure when the plane lands?

A

The contracting state should ensure that the concerned aeroplane would be detained on the ground unless it would endanger human life

242
Q

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference departs from its assigned track or cruising level without being able to communicate with Air Traffic Service (ATS), the pilot-in-command will:

A

-attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF emergency frequency

-proceed according to the procedures established in the Regional Supplementary Procedures

-attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF channel in use

243
Q
A

PPL (10 decks)

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