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PPL 2023 > Operational Procedures > Flashcards

Operational Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Acts of unlawful interference (6)

A

(i) Unlawful seizure in flight
(ii) Unlawful seizure on ground
(iii) Hostage taking (on board or at AD)
(iv) Forcible intrusion (on board or at AD)
(v) Introduction of weapon or hazardous device on board for criminal purpose
(vi) Communicating false information to jeopardise safety of aircraft, passengers, crew, public in flight or at AD

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2
Q

Aerial Work

A

Specialised work such as agriculture, construction, photography, S&R, aerial advertisement

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3
Q

Commercial Air Transportion

A

Transportation of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration

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4
Q

General Aviation Operation

A

Aviation operator other than aerial work or commercial air transport

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5
Q

Corporate Aviation Operation

A

Non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a company to carry passengers or goods or other business purpose

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6
Q

Aerodrome operating minima activities (4)

A

i) Take off
ii) Landing (precision)
iii) Landing with vertical guidance
iv) Landing (non-precision)

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7
Q

Aerodrome operating minima criteria

A

Runway visual range/visibility
Cloud cover if applicable
Decision altitude/height (DA/H) for precision and vertical guidance landing
Minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) for non-precision

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8
Q

Alternate Aerodrome types (3)

A

Take off
En-route
Destination

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9
Q

Area Navigation (RNAV)

A

Method of navigation permitting any desired flight path within coverage of external navaids or capability of on-board aids

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10
Q

Performance Based Navigation (PBN)

A

Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft on designated ATS routes, instrument approaches or designated airspace

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11
Q

Aircraft Operating Manual

A

Manual based on the flight manual, designed considering human factors principles, for use by operations staff and flight crew

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12
Q

Operations Manual

A

Manual with procedures, instructions and guidance for operational personnel

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13
Q

Flight Manual

A

Manual associated with CofA containing airworthiness limitations and information relating to safe flight

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14
Q

Extended flight over water (definition)

A

Lesser of 50nm or 30 mins cruising speed from land suitable for emergency landing

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15
Q

Best landing position on water

A

On crest of wave, parallel to swell

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16
Q

Flight time

A

Chock to chock (for the purpose of taking flight only)

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17
Q

Error

A

Action or inaction that leads to deviation from intentions or expectations

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18
Q

Threat

A

Events or errors occurring beyond the influence of operational person

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19
Q

Large aeroplane

A

> 5700kg

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20
Q

Night

A

Hours between end of evening civil twilight and start of morning civil twilight

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21
Q

Runway Visual Range

A

The range over which a pilot on runway centreline can see runway surface markings or lights

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22
Q

Accident (short)

A

Aircraft sustaining or causing significant damage or personal injury, between somebody boarding with intent to fly and all people disembarking.

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23
Q

Advisory airspace

A

Airspace within which traffic advisory service is available

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24
Q

ACAS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System
On-board system using Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) to detect similarly equipped aircraft that my conflict

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25
Q

ATIS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Automated Terminal Information Service
Repetitive radio broadcast of aerodrome information

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26
Q

Ceiling

A

Height above ground of lowest layer of cloud covering half the sky

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27
Q

Incident

A

Occurrence other than accident which could affect aircraft safety

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28
Q

Serious Injury (6)

A

i) Hospitalisation for 48 hours within 7 days of accident
ii) Bone facture (except simple fingers, toes, nose)
iii) Lacerations causing severe haemorrhage, nerve/muscle/tendon damage
iv) Internal organ injury
v) 2nd/3rd degree burns or burns to >5% of body
vi) Exposure to infectious substances or harmful radiation

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29
Q

Briefing (7)

A
  • Seat belts
  • Emergency exits
  • Life jackets
  • Oxygen
  • Briefing cards
  • Other emergency equipment
  • Collective equipment (eg life rafts)
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30
Q

Minimum equipment (safety)

A
  • Accessible first-aid kit
  • Portable fire extinguisher each cabin
  • Berth for each person over stated age
  • Seat belt for each seat
  • Spare fuses
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31
Q

Minimum documentation (3)

A
  • Flight manual and related
  • Charts
  • Interception info
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32
Q

VFR minimum equipment (5)

A
  • Compass
  • ASI
  • Altimeter
  • Accurate timepiece
  • Other appropriate equipment
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33
Q

Equipment for flights over water (SE/ME)

A

SE out of gliding or ME 50nm: Lifejacket for each person
SE > 100nm or ME >200nm: Rafts for all POB and pyrotechnics

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34
Q

Flight planning - spare fuel

A

Day - 30 mins cruise
Night - 45 mins cruise
Same aerodrome - 10 mins cruise

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35
Q

Noise regulations - how are they enforced?

A

Not covered by noise act etc.
CAA can’t prosecute pilots as not covered by ANO
Aerodromes are impacted by planning rules however and noise abatement procedures should be followed

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36
Q

When do noise abatement procedures not apply?

A

In an emergency ignore them

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37
Q

Purpose of 3 category holding points

A

Relate to category of Instrument Landing System in use (due to weather), more sensitive systems need waiting aircraft further from runway

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38
Q
A

Taxi holding position A
Do not cross from solid line direction without permission

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39
Q
A

Taxi holding position B

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40
Q
A

Intermediate taxi holding position

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41
Q

Lights at taxi holding positions

A

i) Runway Guard Lights - flashing yellow wig wags close to runway entry (either side or across taxiway)
iii) Stop Bar - Red “traffic lights” across taxiway, controlled by ATC or on a timer - do not cross red. Any holding point, not necessarily near runway.

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42
Q

Initial response to carburettor fire on start up

A

i) Starter - crank engine
ii) Mixture - idle cut-off
iii) Throttle - open
iv) Fuel pump - off
v) Fuel selector - off

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43
Q

Subsequent actions for carburettor fire on startup

A

i) Ignition - off
ii) ATC - inform
iii) Electric master - off
iv) Grab fire extinguisher and exit

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44
Q

Likely cause of carburettor fire on startup

A

Excess fuel in induction system due to over-priming

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45
Q

Colour of flames for fuel or oil fire

A

Oil burns black
Fuel burns orange

46
Q

Components of a fire

A

Oxygen
Fuel
Heat

47
Q

Actions for engine fire (in flight)

A

i) Fuel selector - off
ii) Throttle - closed
iii) Mixture - Idle cut-off
iv) Fuel pump - off
v) Heater - off
vi) Defroster - off
vii) Glide landing

48
Q

2 methods for emergency descent during fire
Purpose of each

A

i) Roll to 30deg, nose down, wings level once descending. Descend at high speed, not below V(NE)
ii) Reduce speed below V(FE) and V(LE), lower flaps and landing gear and descend at slowest safe speed
First method is quicker to ground but higher demands on airframe

49
Q

Electrical fire actions

A

(consider mayday call before switching off avionics, lowering landing gear or flaps if electric)
i) Master switch - off
ii) Cabin vents - open
iii) Cabin heat - off
iv) Locate fire extinguisher
v) Land ASAP

50
Q

Type of fire extinguisher used in aviation

A

Halon

51
Q

Time fire extinguisher will work for

A

8 to 25 seconds

52
Q

Toxic components in smoke (2)

A

Carbon Monoxide
Hydrogen Cyanide

53
Q

Types of fire

A

A - Solid
B - Liquid
C - Electric
D - Metal

54
Q

Effect on airspeed when entering increasing headwind

A

Will initially increase, as momentum means groundspeed is resistant to change so headwind will be taking air past you faster than before

55
Q

Overshoot effect
3 causes

A

An increase in rate of climb
i) Flying into updraft
ii) Climbing into increased headwind
iii) Climbing into reduced tailwind

56
Q

Undershoot effect
3 causes

A

A decrease in rate of climb
i) Flying into downdraft
ii) Climbing into decreased headwind
iii) Climbing into increased tailwind

57
Q

Types of clouds causing updraft or downdraft

A

Cumulus clouds create updrafts
Cumulonimbus clouds create downdrafts

58
Q

Windshear definition

A

A change in wind velocity or direction as you move from one point to another.

59
Q

Causes of windshear

A

Fronts
Thunderstorms
Inversions

60
Q

Low level windshear

A

Windshear close to the ground, particularly in approach path

61
Q

Turbulence

A

Eddy motions in the atmosphere

62
Q

Windshear reversal effect

A

Initial response to windshear is an overreaction, taking you past original target profile and requiring opposite control

63
Q

Downburst

A

Downdraft out of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm cloud, spreads out as it approaches the ground

64
Q

Microburst

A

Especially short lived (5-15 minute) downburst. Relatively compact, about 1 to 3 km.

65
Q

Action to take if accidentally entering microburst

A

Continue straight ahead and apply full power

66
Q

Virga

A

Rain that evaporates before reaching ground

67
Q

Cause of wake turbulence

A

Wing vortices created at high angles of attack

68
Q

ATC protection from wake turbulence

A

Light aircraft behind heavy jets delayed up to 3 mins before TO, 8nm before landing

69
Q

Drift direction of wingtip vortices

A

Downwards and apart.
Also downwind.

70
Q

When are strong wing vortices produced? (2)

A

High angle of attack
High lift

71
Q

Conditions to be extra careful of wake turbulence

A

Nil winds - causes them to hang around

72
Q

Wake Turbulence Categories (ICAO & Flight Plan)

A

Super/Heavy >136,000kg
Medium 7,000 to 136,000 kg
Light <7,000kg

73
Q

Wake Turbulence Categories UK

A

Super/Heavy >136,000kg
Medium 40,000kg to 136,000kg
Small 17,000kg to 40,000kg
Light <17,000kg
[arrivals split medium at 104,000kg between upper and lower medium]

74
Q

What is the Super wake turbulence category?

A

Same weight as Heavy, but for specific aircraft (e.g. A380)

75
Q

Wake turbulence minima on approach
Based on leading aircraft

A

Nautical miles

76
Q

When do wake turbulence approach minima apply

A

i) Aircraft directly behind another one at same altitude or up to 1,000ft below.
ii) Crossing below at same altitude or up to 1,000ft below.
iii) Aircraft using same runway or parallel runways up to 2,500ft (760m) apart

77
Q

Wake turbulence minima on take off
Based on leading aircraft

A

In case of full-length take off add 1 min

78
Q

When do wake turbulence take off minima apply

A

i) Same runway
ii) Parallel runways 2,500ft (760m) apart
iii) Crossing runways if follower crosses path at same altitude or up to 1000 ft below
iv) Parallel runways over 2,500ft (760m) apart if follower crosses projected path at same altitude or up to 1000ft below

79
Q

How to avoid wake turbulence when positioning take off and landing

A

For take off, use full length of runway to take off well before larger aircraft did.
For landing aim for a landing point further along than the larger aircraft.
For crossing runway take off, ensure larger aircraft was still on the ground past the crossing point.

80
Q

Avoiding wake turbulence in flight

A

Stay 200ft above altitude of heavier craft when following, or at least 1,000ft below.

81
Q

Description of wing vortex shape

A

Spiral, starting under the wing near wing tip, going outwards then upwards and back over the top of the wing

82
Q

Distance required from hovering helicopter

A

At least 3 rotors width

83
Q

Engine failure order of actions

A
  • Trim for best glide speed (range if over water)
  • Plan forced landing pattern
  • Declare mayday and set 7700 *
  • Complete fault finding checks *
  • Prepare for forced landing
  • Brief passengers
84
Q

Engine failure fault finding checks (6)

A
  • Fuel Selector: To tank with fuel in
  • Fuel pump: On
  • Mixture: Rich
  • Carb. Heat: On
  • Engine Gauges: Check for power loss
  • Primer: Check locked
85
Q

NITS briefing

A

Nature of Problem
Intentions
Time to handle situation
Special instructions

86
Q

Safety brief - detail

A
  • Emergency exit locations/use
  • Seat belt operation
  • Fire extinguisher & first aid kit location/use
  • Instruct to remain clear of controls
  • Brace position
87
Q

Touchdown process in emergency

A

Aim to land at lowest possible airspeed
When committed to landing:
i) Turn off master
ii) Turn off ignition
iii) Fuel Selector to off
iv) Mixture to idle cut off

88
Q

Brace instructions

A

15 seconds before landing, shout “BRACE BRACE - BRACE BRACE - BRACE BRACE”

89
Q

Definition of contaminated runway

A

More than 25% of runway surface are covered by:
i) Surface water (or equivalent slush/loose snow) over 3mm;
ii) Compressed snow; or
iii) Ice or wet ice.

90
Q

Surface conditions (5)

A

Not contaminated
- Dry
- Damp
- Wet
Contaminated
- Water patches
- Flooded

91
Q

Surface condition described as “change of colour of runway surface”

A

Wet

92
Q

Which runways are friction assessed in UK?

A

Hard surfaces only
ASDA >1,200m
Used for public transport craft >2,730kg

93
Q

CFME (runway friction)

A

Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment

94
Q

Global Reporting Format runway surface conditions

A

Dry
Wet
Slippery wet
Contaminated

95
Q

Runway contaminations (8)

A

Standing Water
Compacted Snow
Dry Snow
Wet Snow
Ice
Wet Ice
Frost
Slush

96
Q

SNOWTAM runway condition codes

A

0 (worst) to 6 (best)

97
Q
A

Current position sign (taxiway)

98
Q
A

Mandatory point sign (runway ahead)

99
Q
A

Destination sign, taxiway or runway in this direction

100
Q
A

Information sign, e.g. distance to runway

101
Q

Best way to check fuel contents

A

Visually inspect tank, gauges can be misleading

102
Q

Type of ice that forms on aircraft overnight

A

Hoar frost

103
Q

Requirement for flight if ice exists in inspection

A

All ice must be removed before flight can take place

104
Q

PAPI light signals

A

2 red 2 white is on glide scope
More red is too low
More white is to high

105
Q

VASI light signals

A

3 red 3 white is on glide scope
6 red is low
6 white is high

106
Q

OLS light signals

A

Single white in middle of line of green is on glide scope
If white is above, you are high, if white (or turning red) is below, too low.

107
Q

Mode S transponder parameters (9)

A
  • Selected altitude
  • Pressure setting
  • Roll angle
  • True track angle
  • Track angle rate
  • Magnetic heading
  • Ground speed
  • IAS
  • Vertical rate
108
Q

Time limit for filing mandatory occurrence report (MOR)

A

72 hours

109
Q

Action if unsure of position when taxiing

A

Stop - unless on a runway - notify ATS and ask for clarification

110
Q

Difference between UK and ICAO for flight plans?

A

UK doesn’t require formal flight plan closure

111
Q

Impact of tire pressure on aquaplaning speed

A

Higher tire pressure increases aquaplaning speed

PPL 2023 (11 decks)

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