Human Performance Flashcards

1
Q

SHELL model

A

S - software (manuals, procedures)
H - hardware (equipment)
E - environment
L - Liveware (other people)
L - Liveware (pilot)
Pilot liveware is central to the other 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 components of liveware considerations

A
  • Psychological
  • Physiological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nervous system components

A

Central - Brain & spinal cord
Peripheral - Networks of nerves and ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Division of peripheral nervous system

A

Autonomic: Organs and non-voluntary functions such as heart beat, sweating, digestion.
Sensory-somatic: Everything under voluntary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cardiovascular system components

A

Heart
Blood vessels
Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Types of blood vessel

A

Arteries: Thick, carry blood from heart
Veins: Carry blood back to heart
Capillaries: Smaller vessels joining arteries to veins, travelling in networks through organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Two parts of blood circulation

A

Systemic circulation: From left side of heart, through organs, back to right side of heart.
Pulmonary circulation: From right side of heart, through lungs, to left side of heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypertension

A

High blood pressure
Can lead to heart attack. Caused by lifestyle factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Coronary Heart Disease

A

Fatty layer building up in coronary arteries.
Bits breaking off can form blood clots, blocking the coronary artery.
Caused in part by lifestyle factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Respiratory system functions

A

i) Gas exchange
ii) Immune defence (infection entering lungs)
iii) Talking
iv) Release of chemicals, proteins & enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 types of respiration

A

External (breathing)
Internal (exchange of gases in lungs or organs)
Cellular (oxygen being used by cells to create energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the body use to determine respiration rate?

A

CO2 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Time of useful consciousness at altitude

A

Moderate & minimal activity
22k feet: 5 mins & 10 mins
25k feet: 2 mins & 3 mins
30k feet: 45 secs & 75 secs
35k feet: 30 secs & 45 secs
40k feet: 12 secs & 15 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Altitude at which body reacts to decreasing pressure

A

7,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Altitude at which atmospheric pressure is half MSL

A

18,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 types of hypoxia

A

Hypoxic hypoxia (insufficient oxygen coming into body)
Anaemic hypoxia (inability of blood to carry oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Initial symptoms of hypoxia

A

Euphoria, clumsiness, impaired judgement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hyperventilation
- Cause
- Misdiagnosis
- Treatment

A

Caused by excess carbon dioxide, body attempts to flush it out.
Can be confused with hypoxia which is more serious to treat, more likely explanation at unpressurised high altitude.
Treat by blowing into paper bag, slowing breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scuba-diving delays

A

12 hours down to 10m
24 hours beyond 10m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Barotrauma

A

Gases trapped in your body (e.g. stomach, inner ear, tooth cavity) expanding during descent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

6 main eye components

A

Cornea - transparent cap, solid shape
Iris - Coloured area in front of lens
Pupil - Gap in middle of iris allowing light through, changes size to control light.
Lens - Transparent, muscles control its shape to focus light
Retina - Back of the eye, covered in light sensitive cells
Optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 types of retina cells

A

Cones: Foveal vision, concentrated in central area of retina, colour sensitive and best in daylight.
Rods: Peripheral vision, further from foveal region, not colour sensitive but work well in the dark and detect movement well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Autokinesis

A

Illusion of movement when you stare at a static light in darkness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is false horizon illusion caused?

A

A sloping layer of cloud can be taken as a false horizon leading to adopting a non level attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Myopia
- Cause
- Correcting glass type

A

Short sightedness
Lens is too convex (can’t flatten enough) so light from far away is bent too much and focuses in front of the retina
Concave glass lens to correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hyperopia/Hypermetropia
- Cause
- Correcting glass type

A

Long sightedness
Lens is not convex enough so light from close up can’t be redirected enough to focus on retina (focus point behind retina)
Convex glass lens to correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Presbyopia

A

Long sightedness that is common in 40s and beyond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Presbycusis

A

Deterioration in hearing due to age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Astigmatism

A

Curvature of cornea or lens is not perfectly round leading to uneven refraction and distorted images.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Accomodation

A

The ability to focus on near and far objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Time required to develop night vision (and adapt to bright light)

A

30 minutes (and 10 seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Optical illusion caused by rain on windscreen

A

Makes objects appear lower than they are (so aircraft appear higher) leading to a low approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Strongest vision area for rods

A

10 degrees off centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Likely effect of approach to brightly lit runway with no other lights near it?

A

Black hole effect.
Pilot is likely to descend early leading to a low approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What distance do eyes tend to focus at in the dark with nothing to focus on

A

1-2 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Time before flying after cataract or corneal surgery

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3 components of outer ear

A

External ear: Pinna or Auricle, gathers sound signals
Outer canal: Pressure waves pass through
Eardrum: Vibrates in harmony with pressure waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

2 components of middle ear

A

Ossicles: 3 small bones, forced by eardrum, convert pressure wave energy to mechanical energy.
Eustachian tube: Connects middle ear to nasal passages to allow pressure to match ambient pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Barotitis

A

Air being trapped in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2 components of inner ear

A

Cochlea: Shell shaped part, converts mechanical energy of ossicles to electrical signals
Vestibular Apparatus: Contain fluid and small hairs that detect gravity and acceleration.

41
Q

Frequency of human hearing and human voices

A

Hearing: 20Hz to 20,000Hz
Voices: 500Hz to 3,000Hz

42
Q

Coriolis illusions
- Prevention

A

Mistaken sense of direction or acceleration caused by vestibular apparatus.
Keep head still and held steady and upright relative to body. Keep turns coordinated with balance ball.

43
Q

Somatogravic Illusion

A

Impression of climbing/descending due to acceleration/deceleration

44
Q

Vertigo
- What is it?
- Potential causes

A

Feeling of rotation when there is none, or vice versa.
- Disease
- Acceleration
- Sudden pressure changes in ear (blowing nose)
- Flicker vertigo from flashing lights
- Pressure vertigo from blocked eustachian tubes

45
Q

Motion Sickness
- Causes (3)

A
  • Miss-matching signals between ears and eyes
  • Overstimulated inner ear due to turbulence of manoeuvres
  • Psychological factors
46
Q

Blood & bone marrow donation delays

A

Blood: 24 hours
Bone marrow: 48 hours

47
Q

Anaesthetic delays

A

Local - 12 hours
General - 48 hours

48
Q

Requirement if in hospital

A

If in hospital for over 12 hours, require CAA or AME input before flying.

49
Q

Alcohol
- Minimum delay
- Potential time alcohol remains
- Time for 1 unit

A

At least 8 hours always
Potential remaining after 30 hours
1 unit processed in 1 hour

50
Q

Amount of alcohol removed from blood per hour

A

0.01%

51
Q

Weekly alcohol limit

A

14 units both men and women

52
Q

Alcohol limits for pilots

A

Blood: 20 milligrams per 100ml
Urine: 27 milligrams per 100ml

53
Q

Requirement for glasses wearers

A

Must carry spare pair when flying

54
Q

Requirements to be able to use contact lenses in flight

A

Been worn constantly and successfully for 8 hours a day for at least a month.
Requires medical certificate endorsement from AME.
Still need spare pair of glasses.

55
Q

Bifocals

A

Not allowed.
Need to wear half glasses instead.
Can have bifocals for emergency use.

56
Q

Do lit objects at night appear closer or further away than reality?

A

Then appear to be closer than they really are.

57
Q

Consideration of arousal

A

Low level of arousal associated with fatigue, sleep deprivation -> poor performance.
High level of arousal is fear, panic -> poor performance.
Optimal arousal is slightly on the low side of the peak performance - to enable response to unexpected events.

58
Q

Examples of physical or environmental stressors

A

Heat, cold, vibration, turbulence, noise, discomfort, illness, eye strain, flashing lights, concentration, lack of sleep.

59
Q

Noise - decibel levels
- Typical cockpit
- Should wear ear protection
- Industry limit
- Causing excess stress

A

Typical cockpit: 75-80db
Wear ear protection: 80db
Industry limit: 85db continuous
Excess stress: 90db

60
Q

Melatonin

A

Produced by the brain to aid sleep.
Is used as a supplement but not approved for pilots.
Don’t fly within 12 hours.

61
Q

Zeitgeber

A

Clue or reminder as to the true time of day (e.g. daily events, sunrise, sunset).

62
Q

Natural day cycle in hours for a person with no clues as to real time

A

Longer than 24 hours, around 25 hours.

63
Q

Jet-lag worse travelling east or west and reason

A

Worse travelling East
This is because days are shortened and the 25 hour body cycle exaggerates the jet lag by another hour.
Travelling west the 25 hour body cycle reduces the initial effect and brings you back into rhythm quickly.

64
Q

Motor programmes

A

AKA skills, actions that at one point required full attention but over time can be carried out more automatically.

65
Q

Receptor

A

Specialised cell capable of detecting changes in the environment (external or internal).

66
Q

Adaptation in receptors

A

The reduction in sensitivity of a receptor as a result of continuous or repetitive exposure to a stimulus.

67
Q

Sensory memory

A

The ability to store sensed information before processing, for example noticing after a few seconds that somebody said your name.
Length of time dependent on the sense (only a second for visual, a few seconds for sound).

68
Q

Agnosia

A

A brain disorder that interferes with interpretations of sensation and would prevent a pilots license

69
Q

Different types of memory (4)

A
  • Sensory
  • Short term
  • Working
  • Long term
70
Q

Short term vs working memory

A

Short term memory is limited to about 7 items such as a list of 7 numbers, for about 15 seconds.
Working memory lasts longer for items we are focussed on, e.g. rehearsing a list of numbers to hold the memory for longer than 15 seconds.

71
Q

2 types of long term memory

A

Semantic: Meaning memory, knowledge in words and understanding such as language or numbers.
Episodic: Event memory

72
Q

2 types of judgement

A

Perceptual: Relating to skills that have been learnt (e.g. landing an aeroplane)
Cognitive/thinking: Relating to knowledge based behaviour. Uses brain power and analysis.

73
Q

Heuristics

A

A method of judgement relating to rules based behaviour. Using knowledge that “if I do X then Y will happen”

74
Q

Risky shift

A

The tendency for groups of people to make more risky decisions that they each would individually

75
Q

Definition of situational awareness

A

i) Perception of relevant events
ii) Comprehension of the implications
iii) Projection of their status in the future

76
Q

Situational Awareness levels

A

Notice - Understand - Think ahead

77
Q

Situational Awareness elements
(Categories of things to worry about)

A

Plane (e.g. instrument settings)
Path (e.g. on track, collision avoidance)
People (e.g. crew, passengers, ATC)

78
Q

TDODAR process

A

Analytical approach to decision making
Time
Diagnose
Options
Decide
Assign
Review

79
Q

TEM

A

Threat and Error Management

80
Q

TEM steps

A

Avoid (Anticipation)
Trap (Recognition)
Mitigate (Recovering)

81
Q

Threat

A

An external event of error outside the control of the pilots requiring immediate attention and management if flight safety is to be maintained.

82
Q

2 types of threat

A

Environmental (weather, air control, terrain etc.)
Organisational (flight deck, operational pressure)

83
Q

Error

A

An action or inaction which results in deviation from pilot intention or expectations and increases likelihood of safety margins being eroded.

84
Q

3 types of error

A

Aircraft Handling
Procedural
Communications

85
Q

UAS

A

Undesired Aircraft State

86
Q

Swiss cheese model

A

Layers of protection against errors viewed as slices of swiss cheese, with errors only occurring when holes in all slices line up

87
Q

4 layers in swiss cheese model

A

Organisation
Unsafe supervision
Preconditions for unsafe acts
The unsafe act

88
Q

Airmanship

A

The consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.

89
Q

CRM

A

Crew Resource Management

90
Q

Relationship between SA, TEM and CRM

A

SA enables better TEM which combined with CRM provides the best possible outcome.

91
Q

Closed loop system

A

System in which after taking action, feedback can be observed and corrections made (e.g. pilot flying an aeroplane)

92
Q

Standardisation of:
- Yoke/sidestick
- Throttle
- Fuel tank controls

A

Yoke/sidestick - forward to pitch down, left to bank left (etc.) are standard
Throttle - push forward to open throttle is standard
Fuel tank controls - NOT standardised

93
Q

Parallax error

A

Misreading an indicator due to seeing it form an angle, based on distance between the needle and image behind it.

94
Q

Basic T layout

A

AI is top middle.
ASI, Altimeter, HI are left right and bottom
Turn coordinator & VSI in the bottom corners

95
Q

Flight director

A

An indicator which shows you a “target” for the correct attitude to fly the aircraft.
Consists of a triangle for the plane and a dock or crossed lines where it must be lined up.

96
Q

Is non-verbal or verbal communication biggest component of normal communication?

A

Non-verbal accounts for 55 to 75% of normal communication (including paralanguage - ‘um’, ‘arr’)

97
Q

Effect of REM and non-REM sleep

A

REM sleep recharges the brain
Non-REM sleep recharges the body

98
Q

Ideal pilot personality type

A

Extrovert - stable