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PPL 2023 > Communications > Flashcards

Communications Flashcards

1
Q

VFR Frequency Range

A

118.000 to 137.000 MHz (exclusive of 137.000)

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2
Q

Current VHF frequency spacing
Previous VHF frequency spacing
# channels

A

New: 8.33kHz
Old: 25kHz
# channels: 2280 up from 760

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3
Q

Rounding VHF frequencies to channels

A

Round to final figure of 0 or 5

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4
Q

Pronunciation of decimal frequencies

A

If frequency ends ###.#00 only pronounce first DP
Otherwise pronounce all DP
(e.g. one two three decimal four, or one two three decimal four five zero)

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5
Q

Max distance at which to contact ATSU
- International airport
- Other aerodrome
- Safteycom

A

International airport - 25nm
Other aerodrome - 10nm
Safetycom - 10nm

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6
Q

Max height at which to contact ATSU
- International airport
- Other aerodrome
- Safteycom

A

International airport - 10,000ft
Other aerodrome - 3,000ft max (ideally 1,000ft)
Safetycom - 2,000ft
[All aal]

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7
Q

Emergency Frequency

A

121.5

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8
Q

2 types of VHF-NAV equipment

A

VOR - VHF omnidirectional range
ILS - Instrument Landing System

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9
Q

2 types of NAV equipment excl VHF NAV

A

DME - Distance Measuring Equipment
ADF - Automatic Direction Finder

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10
Q

Radio frequency range used by NAV equipment

A

108-118MHz

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11
Q

How do transponders work

A

Detects signal from SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar) and reflects back boosted signal with additional info

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12
Q

TCAS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System
Uses Mode S transponder data to give traffic avoidance instructions to pilots

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13
Q

DAP
- Stands for
- Description

A

Downloaded Aircraft Parameters
An additional set of aircraft data sent by mode S transponders such as heading, airspeed, vertical rate, ground speed, true track angle etc.

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14
Q

TIS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Traffic Information System
Information gathered from nearby mode S transponders sent back to a mode S transponder unit and displayed to pilot for collision avoidance help

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15
Q

TIS
- How it works
- Aircraft range

A

A TIS equipped SSR will send information to a mode S transponder about the closest aircraft within 6nm and 3,500ft.
Information is displayed on a unit to the pilot and colour coded

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16
Q

TIS
- Limitations

A
  • Only closest 8 aircraft displayed
  • No avoidance action given, for information only
  • Only available on approach radar stations (i.e. near large airfields), not enroute
  • Must be within 50nm to receive info
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17
Q

How does TCAS work?

A

TCAS reads transponder signals from nearby aircraft and gives collision avoidance guidance to the pilot.

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18
Q

Frequency Monitoring Code

A

This is a squawk code you use to indicate that you are monitoring a particular radio frequency in a given chart area

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19
Q

CAVOK
- Short for
- Definition

A

Ceiling and Visibility ok
- Visibility > 10km
- No cloud below 5,000ft aal or below minimum sector altitude & no cumulonimbus clouds
- no precipitation reaching ground, thunderstorms, shallow fog or low drifting snow

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20
Q

Relationship between UTC, Zulu time and GMT

A

They are all the same time

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21
Q

Which numbers are never abbreviated (e.g. hundreds, thousands)?

A
  • Time
  • Altimeter settings
  • Transponder codes
  • Runway #
  • Headings
  • Callsign digits
  • Radio frequencies
  • Wind direction/speed
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22
Q

3 types of radio message from ATSU

A

Clearance - Only issued by ATC, must be followed and read back in full
Instruction - Should be followed if safe to do so. Ideally read back.
Information - Don’t read back (e.g. wind)

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23
Q

Readability ratings

A

Strength:
5 - perfect
1 - unreadable

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24
Q

5 key aerodrome and circuit r/t positions

A

1) Parked - Departure info, taxi.
2) Holding - ATC route clearance, ready for departure
3) Downwind
4) Final - Cleared to land/land @ your discretion
5) Runway vacated

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25
Q

Booking out vs flight plan

A

Booking out is not the same as making a flight plan. Booking out is not required if a flight plan has been filed.

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26
Q

Callsign types (4)

A

i) Reg
ii) Manufacturer name or category & reg
iii) Telephony designation & Reg
iv) Telephony & flight ID

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27
Q

Callsign abbreviations

A

Reg can be abbreviated to first digit and at least the last 2 digits.
Telephony designation and flight ID can’t be abbreviated

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28
Q

Declaring yourself as student

A

Put before registration in first message.
Once acknowledged by controller (when they say student back) you can drop it.

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29
Q

Roger

A

“I have received all of your last transmission”

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30
Q

Wilco

A

“I understand your last message and will comply”

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31
Q

ATIS

A

Air Terminal Information Service

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32
Q

What to state to ATSU when you have ATIS info

A

ATIS reference letter (e.g. information Charlie) and pressure setting

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33
Q

2 scenarios for radio initiation

A

En-route - Request a service
Arrive/depart - Request clearance/information

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34
Q

Freecall info
ADDPAA

A

A) Aircraft Callsign + type
D) Departure point
D) Destination
P) Position
A) Altitude
A) Additional details/intention

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35
Q

Freecall info
CARPAI

A

C) Callsign
A) Aircraft type
R) Route
P) Position
A) Altitude
I) Intentions

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36
Q

Radio message priority list

A

1) Distress
2) Urgency
3) Direction-finding
4) Flight safety (e.g. ATC messages)
5) Meteorological
6) Flight regulatory messages (e.g. scheduling, maintenace)

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37
Q

FIS
- Stands for
- Staff

A

(Aerodrome) Flight Information Service
Staffed by Flight Information Service Officers (FISOs).

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38
Q

Services a FISO can provide

A
  • Basic service
  • Alerting service
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39
Q

Status of FISO

A

FISOs are licensed and regulated by CAA, but not as stringent as ATC controllers

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40
Q

Who can a FISO control?

A

Aircraft on the ground only

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41
Q

Status of A/G radio operator

A

Not licensed but have passed a CAA competency exam

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42
Q

Safety com frequency

A

135.475

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43
Q

Services provided by ATC

A
  • Air traffic control service
  • Basic service
  • Alerting service
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44
Q

ATC unit names

A

Main ones are Tower, Approach, Ground.
Also others such as Radar, Director

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45
Q

Initial contact arriving into ATC ATZ

A

Contact approach, if not tower, 10nm away.

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46
Q

Initial contact arriving into MATZ

A

Contact 15nm or 5min (greater) before reaching zone boundary

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47
Q

MATZ ATC requirement consideration

A

MATZ itself doesn’t have strict rules, but they do contain an ATZ around the aerodrome which has the same rules around following ATC as any other ATZ

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48
Q

MATZ radio terminology

A

“Roller” - touch and go
“Go around” - another circuit
“(number) in” - number of aircraft in the circuit
“Dead side” - call made joining circuit

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49
Q

Military circuit pattern

A

Rounded crosswind and base legs.
“Final” call made when abeam start of runway when a continuous semi-circle turn is made into the runway

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50
Q

Switching to ATIS messages

A

“Request temporary frequency change…”
“Back on frequency”

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51
Q

VOLMET

A

Voice weather broadcast that covers an area with several aerodromes

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52
Q

ATIS typical update frequency

A

Every 30 mins, usually 20 past and 50 past

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53
Q

Trend codes for weather
- NOSIG
- TEMPO
- BECOMING

A

NOSIG - no significant changes expected in 2 hours from observation time
TEMPO - conditions expected to be temporary, up to 60 mins between stated times
BECOMING - indicates the forecast change will become permanent

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54
Q

Contaminated runway conditions (8)

A
  • Standing water
  • Compacted snow
  • Dry snow
  • Wet snow
  • Ice
  • Wet ice
  • Frost
  • Slush
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55
Q

General runway conditions (4)

A
  • Dry
  • Wet
  • Slippery Wet
  • Contaminated
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56
Q

Runway condition codes

A

0 to 6, 0 is worst, 6 is best

57
Q

VFR request to cross controlled airspace

A

“Request zone transit”

58
Q

ACC
- Stands for
- Services (4)

A

Area Control Centre
- ATC in controlled airspace
- Air Traffic Advisory Service to aircraft flying on advisory routes
- Flight Information Service (FIS)
- Alerting Service

59
Q

LARS availability

A

Within 30nm of radar centre, up to FL100

60
Q

LARS services

A
  • Deconfliction service (VFR flights shouldn’t request unless sure you will stay in VFR conditions)
  • Traffic service
61
Q

Position report format

A

A: Aircraft callsign
P: Position
T: Time
L: Level
N: Next position & ETA

62
Q

RMZ & TMZ
- Stands for

A

Radio Mandatory Zone
Transponder Mandatory Zone

63
Q

RMZ & TMZ on charts

A

RMZ - Blue half-moons facing in
TMZ - Magenta half-moons facing in

64
Q

TMZ entry requirements

A

Need altitude capable transponder but can contact ATS to obtain approval to enter without.
Don’t need approval to enter if you have transponder (unless it’s also controlled airspace) but recommended to make contact.

65
Q

RMZ entry requirements

A

Must not enter until controlling authority has accepted your message (i.e. “pass your message”). If they ask you to standby you can’t enter.
Contact them in plenty of time.

66
Q

Services available from FISO

A

Basic service only

67
Q

Basic Service
- Who is it available to (flight, airspace class)

A

VFR: Class G and E
IFR: Class G (but might not be appropriate for IMC)

68
Q

Basic Service
- Traffic info provided?
- Changing heading/FL

A

Traffic information may or may not be passed, do not expect it.
You can change heading or flight level without informing ATSU.

69
Q

Procedural Service
- Who is it available to?

A

Available to IFR only

70
Q

Procedural Service
- Traffic info provided?
- Changing heading/FL

A

Traffic info on basic service with same ATSU provided, but no deconfliction with them
Must follow agreed instructions of ATSU.

71
Q

Deconfliction Service
- Who is it available to?

A

Available to IFR only in class F and G (i.e. LARS unit)
Do not request if you aren’t qualified for IMC and flight will take you outside VMC.

72
Q

Deconfliction minima

A

5nm and 3,000 ft for unidentified craft
3nm and 1,000 ft for identified craft under same controller

73
Q

Traffic Service
- Who is it available to?

A

VFR: Class G and E
IFR: Class G

74
Q

Traffic Service
- Instructions and changing heading/altitude

A

Pilots may choose own heading/altitude or may be allocated by ATSU.
If an instruction is accepted you must follow it and unless safety would be compromised don’t change without approval from controller.

75
Q

SRA
- Stands for
- Description

A

Surveillance Radar Approach
Radar enabled approach guidance from controller down to point where you are visual with runway.

76
Q

SRA
- Pressure setting

A

Should set QFE, however it is possible to use QNH and controller will adjust instructions accordingly.

77
Q

Reporting points chart depiction

A

Reporting points sometimes marked on specified routes.
Filled in triangle is mandatory reporting point, outlined triangle is on-request reporting point.

78
Q

Services related to danger areas
Difference

A
  • DACS - Danger Area Crossing Service
  • DAAIS - Danger Area Activity Information Service
    DAAIS can’t provide crossing clearance but can advise if the area is active
79
Q

VDF

A

VHF Direction Finding

80
Q

VDF requests

A

QDM - Magnetic heading to the station
QDR - Magnetic bearing from the station
QTE - True bearing from the station
[QUJ - True to the station]

81
Q

Radio request for QTE

A

“True bearing”

82
Q

Response if ATSU says “Transmit for DF”

A

ATSU requesting period of radio transmission to enable them to locate you using VDF
“Transmit for DF - golf alpha bravo charlie delta”

83
Q

Class of VDF result

A

Class A: +/- 2 degrees
Class B: +/- 5 degrees
Class C: +/- 10 degrees
Class D: worse than class C

84
Q

Contact before penetrating MATZ

A

Technically don’t require clearance but recommended.
Should contact 15nm or 5 mins flying before boundary and listen on ATC frequency.
Must comply with instructions from ATC of the ATZ.

85
Q

CTR
- Stands for
- Description
- Class

A

Control Zone
>5n radius zone around large aerodromes, ground to stated FL
Class D

86
Q

CTA
- Stands for
- Description
- Class

A

Control Area
Area between flight levels
Class A, C or D

87
Q

TCA/TMA
- Stands for
- Description
- Class

A

Terminal control/manoeuvring area
Confluence of several busy airports
Class A, C, D or E

88
Q

Airway
- Description
- Class

A

Corridor 5nm either side of a straight line
Class A, C or E (only C or E where passing through TMA, CTA or CTR of that status)

89
Q

UK Class C airspace

A

Only class C airspace in the UK is above FL195

90
Q

Special VFR
- Rules

A
  • Comply with ATC clearances
  • Remain clear of cloud
  • Fly within limitations of license
  • Comply with low flying regulations
  • Avoid entering ATZ without permission
91
Q

Action if SVFR instruction would breach low flying regs

A

Reject instruction, you are responsible for complying with regulations

92
Q

Rules around radio failure under SVFR

A
  • If outside CAS with or without clearance, you can’t enter
  • If inside CAS and transiting, must exit via nearest route
  • If inside CAS with clearance inbound to field can continue, land ASAP and look for signals from tower
93
Q

Crossing an airway (2)

A

VFR - Cross at right angles beneath airway
IR qualified pilots in VMC - File a flight plan (before or when airborne) and request crossing clearance 10 mins before arrival

94
Q

Emergency
- Radio frequency & transponder code to use

A

If already in contact with ATSU contact them first. If no response switch to 121.5.
If you have a specific transponder code (not 7000), keep it. Otherwise select 7700.

95
Q

Distress & Diversion unit (121.5) services

A

SAR
Emergency services
Position fixing services

96
Q

Mayday call content

A

a) Mayday - Mayday - Mayday
b) Station addressed
c) Reg
d) Type
e) Nature of emergency
f) Intentions
g) Position
h) FL/altitude
i) Heading
j) Qualifications
k) Any other info (eg POB)

97
Q

Simulating unsure of position

A

“Training fix - Training fix - Training fix”

98
Q

Simulating emergency

A

“Practice pan - practice pan - practice pan”
Station addressed
Reg
- Once accepted with “pass your message”, pass the full practice pan call

99
Q

Relaying mayday

A

Start with “Mayday Mayday Mayday”, station, reg then:
“Have intercepted mayday from xxxx … “

100
Q

Communicating radio failure

A

Squawk 7600 or
Fly 2 minute leg triangles - RH if receiver is working, LH if total failure.
If transmitter working but receiver isn’t, say “transmitting blind”

101
Q

Entering controlled space with radio failure

A

Don’t enter without clearance
If you have clearance can enter the space, unless SVFR in which case stay outside

102
Q

Speechless code

A

1 - Yes
2 - No
3 - Say again
4 - Request homing
1 long - Manoeuvre complete
2 long - Aircraft developed another emergency

103
Q

Speed of radio waves and transmission through vacuum

A

Travel at speed of light and can travel through a vacuum

104
Q

Speed of light

A

300,000km per second

105
Q

Types of wave - radio & speech

A

Radio - electromagnetic waves
Sound - pressure waves

106
Q

Frequency range of human hearing and human speech

A

Hearing: 20Hz to 20kHz
Speech: 100Hz to 10kHz

107
Q

Full range of VHF

A

30Mhz to 300Mhz

108
Q

How is a radio signal transmitted

A

Carrier wave is modulated (amplitude modification or frequency modification) by a speech wave to create a single wave that can be transmitted.
Receiver de-modulates the transmitted wave to recover the speech wave.

109
Q

Typical range of VHF transmissions

A

60nm @ 2,000ft aal
120nm @ 10,000ft aal

110
Q

Amplitude

A

Height of wave above centre line - not peak to trough

111
Q

Range limitations - tower, approach

A

Tower - 4,000ft, 25nm
Approach - 10,000ft, 25nm

112
Q

Range calculation for VHF

A

VHF range in nm = sqrt(1.5 x altitude in feet)

113
Q

Benefit of HF

A

HF range is significantly larger

114
Q

HF frequencies in use
Which have longer range?

A

5-8MHz in daytime, 3MHz ok at night.

115
Q

Interaction between HF and ionosphere
Skip zone

A

HF waves partially reflect off ionosphere increasing range but also causing out of phase interference.
Creates a skip zone between where ground waves reach and where sky waves reflect to.
Higher frequencies reflect further away, bigger skip zone.

116
Q

Impact of ionosphere on different frequencies and day/night

A

VHF continues through ionosphere so no impact.
Low frequency (<5MHz) HF signals are absorbed in the day so range is reduced, but can work well at night.
Higher freq HF signals work well all the time.
LF/MF completely absorbed in day but strong sky waves at night.

117
Q

Why HF frequencies at day/night?

A

Use 5-8 MHz in day as sky waves still produced.
At night 3MHz works well as attenuation decreases and sky waves will be stronger.
In general may have to pick a wave to have the right range given skip zone.

118
Q

Use of LF & MF

A

Used for NDBs (200kHz to 420kHz)

119
Q

Use of UHF

A

Used by ILS, DME and SSR

120
Q

VLF

A

Used by some navigation systems

121
Q

Instruction from ATC to go around

A

“Go around, I say again, go around, acknowledge”

122
Q

Light signals on ground

A

Red: stop
Flash red: Move clear of landing area
Green: Cleared to take off
Flash green: Cleared to taxi
Flash white: Return to starting point

123
Q

Light signals in air

A

Red: Do not land
Flash red: Do not land, aerodrome closed
Green: Cleared to land
Flash green: Return to aerodrome and await permission to land
Flash white: Land at aerodrome after steady green

124
Q

What does “QSY en route” mean?

A

Change to your next radio frequency

125
Q

How to tell somebody to slow down speech

A

“Speak slower”

126
Q

What does “Hx” mean?

A

Aerodrome no specific open hours

127
Q

Aeronautical mobile service

A

A mobile service between aeronautical stations and aircraft stations or between aircraft stations

128
Q

SEC-URI-TAY message

A

Safety broadcast by military ground station

129
Q

Visibility reporting accuracies

A

In metres up to 5km
In km from 5km to 10km
>10km “One Zero Kilometres or more”

130
Q

When can “land after” instructions not be given?

A

At night

131
Q

Term for message to “all stations”

A

Broadcast

132
Q

Radio reply to being told to squawk a number

A

Just repeat the number

133
Q

Distance of “long final” call

A

8 to 4 miles to runway threshold

134
Q

Radio for 360 turn

A

TREE-SIXTY TURN

135
Q

Terminology for an action for the purpose of delaying/spacing

A

“For spacing”

136
Q

How many times to send blind message

A

Repeat the message twice within a single transmission

137
Q

How to read QNH 1000

A

QNH WUN TOUSAND

138
Q

Request to climb to and maintain flight level 50

A

Climb FL50

139
Q

Recommended speech rate

A

100 wpm

PPL 2023 (11 decks)

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