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PPL 2023 > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

ICAO

A

International Civil Aviation Organisation

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2
Q

Where are principals of ICAO laid out?
Where & when were they established?

A

Articles from the Chicago Convention 1944

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3
Q

Article 1/2 - Sovereignty & territory

A

Nations have sovereignty over airspace over their territory (land and territorial waters)

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4
Q

Article 5 - Right of non-scheduled flight

A

States required to allow aircraft from other states to fly into or through airspace or land without prior permission.
They can demand a landing.
Can prescribe routes or prior permission for remote terrain.

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5
Q

Article 10 - Customs
(rights of states)

A

States can require aircraft to arrive or depart via customs airports, unless they have permission to cross territory.

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6
Q

Article 11 - Air regulations
(rules aircraft must follow)

A

All aircraft must obey rules of the state they are in

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7
Q

Article 12 - Rules of the Air
(requirements for states)

A

States must ensure aircraft within territory or registered to them obey RotA. Must endeavour to prosecute violators.

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8
Q

Article 13 - Entry & Clearance
(aircraft requirements)

A

States regulations on entry, clearance, immigration etc. must be followed by passengers, crew or cargo or on their behalf.

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9
Q

Article 16 - Search of Aircraft
(rights of states)

A

States have the right to search any aircraft and review documents on landing or before departure

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10
Q

Article 17 - Aircraft nationality

A

Aircraft nationality is the nationality of the state it is registered to.

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11
Q

Article 18 - Dual registration

A

Aircraft cannot be registered to more than one state, but can change state of registry.

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12
Q

Article 22 - Facilitation
(requirements for states)

A

States must facilitate flights between territories of other states and prevent unnecessary delays (e.g. customs)

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13
Q

Article 23 - Customs Procedures
(requirements for states)

A

States must establish customs & immigration procedures in accordance with international practice.

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14
Q

Article 24 - Customs Duty
(rights for aircraft)

A

Aircraft entering states territory are temporarily free of duty, along with fuel, parts, oil (etc.) as long as they stay on board.

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15
Q

Article 25 - Distress
(requirements for states)

A

States must assist aircraft in distress and allow state of registry and aircraft owners to assist.

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16
Q

Article 26 - Accident Investigation
(who investigates)

A

The state in which an accident takes place carries out the investigation, the state of registry can observe.

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17
Q

Article 28 - Air navigation systems
(requirements for states)

A

States must:
- Provide ICAO standard radio, meteorological and air navigation systems
- Operate standard systems for communications, signals etc.
- Publish aeronautical charts

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18
Q

Article 29 - Documents
(requirements for aircraft) (7)

A
  • Certificate of Registration
  • Certificate of Airworthiness
  • License for each crew member
  • Journey logbook
  • Radio licenses
  • Passengers names, embarkation & destination
  • Cargo manifest & declarations
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19
Q

Article 30 - Radio Equipment
(requirements for aircraft)

A

Aircraft can only carry radio equipment licensed in their state of registry, and only be operated by licensed crew members.

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20
Q

Article 33 - License recognition
(requirements for states)

A

States must recognise airworthiness and crew licenses of other states provided they meet ICAO standards.

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21
Q

Article 35 - Cargo restrictions

A

Weapons and munitions must not be carried in a states territory without permission.
States may prohibit carriage of other items for safety or public order reasons.

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22
Q

Article 36 - Photographic Apparatus

A

States may ban use of photographic equipment over the state

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23
Q

Article 39 - Endorsement of licenses/certificates

A

Aircraft failing to meet airworthiness standards, or crew failing to meet international standards, should have airworthiness certificates/licenses endorsed.

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24
Q

Article 47 - ICAO Legal Capacity

A

States must grant ICAO legal capacity required to carry out their role.

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25
Q

AIS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Aeronautical Information Service
Provided by CAA and includes all documents and information they put out.

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26
Q

Entity responsible for AIS
Entity that delivers AIS

A

CAA responsible
NATS delivers it (e.g. via website)

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27
Q

AIP
- Stands for
- Sections
- Update name & regularity

A

Aeronautical Information Publication
Sections: General (GEN), Enroute (EN), Aerodromes (AD)
AIRAC updates every 28 days

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28
Q

AIS
- Components

A

AIP (publication)
AICs (circulars)
NOTAMs (notices)
AIP supplements

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29
Q

AICs
- Stands for
- Update regularity

A

Aeronautical Information Circulars
Updated monthly

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30
Q

AICs
- Types

A

Air Safety (pink)
Administrative (white)
Operational & ATS (yellow)
UK Restrictions Charts (mauve)
Maps/Charts (green)

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31
Q

NOTAMs
- Stands for
- Description
- Categories

A

Notices to Airmen
Updated continuously with temporary or urgent information
- NOTAMN (new info)
- NOTAMR (replacing old info)
- NOTAMC (cancelling old NOTAM)

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32
Q

AIP Supplements description

A

Temporary information with too much detail for a NOTAM (e.g. diagrams)

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33
Q

ANO
- Stands for
- Description

A

Air Navigation Order
The ANO is the UKs legislative instrument for aviation

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34
Q

European version of RotA

A

SERA

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35
Q

Who do RotA apply to?

A

All UK registered aircraft and all aircraft in UK territory

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36
Q

When can RotA or SERA be departed from?

A

Either for safety or to comply with territorial rules.
Departure for safety must be reported within 10 days.

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37
Q

Overtaking in air
- Definition
- Method

A

Overtaking in the air when within 70 degrees either side of tail line of plane.
Overtake on the right.

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38
Q

Approaching head on in the air

A

Turn to the right

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39
Q

Right of way rules (2)

A

i) Power < Airships < Sailplanes < Balloons
ii) On the right, in the right

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40
Q

Circuit rules (2)

A

Unless instructed otherwise by ATC:
i) follow pattern of existing traffic
ii) make left turns unless ground signals indicate otherwise

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41
Q

Priority of aircraft when landing

A

Lower aircraft has priority

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42
Q

Landing with no runway rules

A

When landing leave any other landed craft clear on your left.
After landing turn only to the left

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43
Q

Required lights

A

Flashing red in all directions is optional.
Green (R) & Red (L) for 110 degrees.
White at rear, 70 degrees each side.

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44
Q

Definition of night (UK)

A

30 mins after sunset to 30 mins before sunrise

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45
Q

Main low flying rule

A

At least 500ft higher than any person, vehicle, building within 150m

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46
Q

Congested area rules (2)

A

At least 1000ft above any object within 600m.
Must be able to glide clear

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47
Q

Exemptions to low flying rules (4)

A

Taking off and landing
Helicopters manoeuvring (60m min)
Police
Flying displays

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48
Q

Aerobatics (RotA)

A

Not over congested areas

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49
Q

Simulated instrument flight (RotA)

A

Must be a competent observer aboard
Must have dual controls

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50
Q

Interception
- General requirement for aircraft

A

International flights must carry a guide to signals

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51
Q

Interception
- Initial communications

A

Rocking wings - “You have been intercepted, follow me”
Reply - Rock wings & follow

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52
Q

Interception
- You may proceed

A

Abrupt breakaway and climb

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53
Q

Interception
- Land at this airfield

A

Circling the aerodrome, lower landing gear and overfly runway in landing direction

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54
Q

Interception Response
- Airfield inadequate

A

Raise landing gear while overflying runway 1000ft to 2000ft

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55
Q

Interception Response
- Cannot comply

A

Switch all lights on and off regularly, but not as if flashing

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56
Q

Interception Response
- Distress

A

Lights on and off at irregular intervals

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57
Q

Ground signals for entering unauthorised area

A

Projectiles or lights at 10 second intervals in mix of red and green

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58
Q

Requirement to land at military aerodrome

A

Prior permission

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59
Q

Requirement to land on private land

A

Landowners permission

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60
Q

Requirement for flight training on unlicensed aerodrome

A

Landowner and PIC need to be satisfied that facilities are adequate

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61
Q

Rule around unfit fuel

A

No person shall cause or permit fuel not fit for purpose to be used in aircraft

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62
Q

Requirements if late to destination aerodrome

A

Notify aerodrome if destination is changed or expected over 30 minutes late

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63
Q

Manoeuvring Area defn.

A

Take off, landing and taxiing areas
Excludes apron and maintenance areas

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64
Q

Apron defn.

A

Area of airfield designed for loading/unloading, maintenance etc.

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65
Q

Aerodrome Lights (2)

A
  • Aerodrome Beacon: White or White/Green flashing
  • Identification Beacon: Green morse code (red for military)
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66
Q

Right of Way on ground (5)

A

i) PIC responsible
ii) Give way to landing aircraft
iii) Head on approach - turn to right
iv) On the right, in the right
v) Overtake either side, well clear

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67
Q

TORA
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Take Off Run Available
- Runway only

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68
Q

TODA
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Take Off Distance Available
- Runway + Clearway (to first obstruction)

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69
Q

ASDA
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Accelerate Stop Distance Available
- Runway + Stopway

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70
Q

LDA
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Landing Distance Available
Runway + suitable landing ground

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71
Q

SNOWTAM
- What is it?
- Info.

A

Report on snow conditions on runway
Runway split into thirds, info provided on % coverage, type of snow

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72
Q

Runway lights

A

Unidirectional
Green in direction of approach
Optional red lights at end within 3m, also in direction of approach
Edge lights are white

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73
Q

Colour of mandatory signs

A

White on red background

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74
Q

Tall objects near aerodromes,
day and night requirements

A

Within 15km should be lit with red lights at night (more than 1 if over 45m), painted red/white stripes for day

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75
Q
A

Take off & landing directions may be different

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76
Q
A

Take off and landing direction may be different

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77
Q
A

RH Circuit

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78
Q
A

Movements of planes and gliders on ground restricted to hard surfaces

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79
Q
A

Planes and gliders must take off and land on hard ground, but can taxi on other surfaces

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80
Q
A

RH Circuit

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81
Q
A

Manoeuvring area poor, special precautions

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82
Q
A

Landing prohibited

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83
Q
A

Helicopters to land at larger H area only

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84
Q
A

Gliding taking place

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85
Q
A

Gliding taking place

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86
Q
A

Tow rope dropping area

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87
Q
A

Unfit section of runway
(taxiway same but yellow)

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88
Q
A

Boundary of runway, taxiway, apron

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89
Q
A

Boundary of unpaved area available for aircraft

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90
Q
A

Light aircraft landing area
Second means light aircraft can also use runway

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91
Q
A

Runway marking meaning landing dangerous

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92
Q
A

Runway marking meaning emergency use only

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93
Q
A

Permanently displaced threshold

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94
Q
A

Temporarily displaced threshold

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95
Q
A

Temporarily displaced threshold - area unfit for movement of aircraft

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96
Q
A

Manoeuvring aircraft require ATC permission

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97
Q

Light signals to aircraft in air

A

Red - do not land, continue circling
Red flash - go to another aerodrome
Green - Cleared to land
Green flash - return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land
White flash - Await permission to land

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98
Q

Light signals to aircraft on ground

A

Red - Stop
Red flash - Move clear of landing area
Green - Cleared to take off
Green flash - Cleared to taxi
White flash - Return to starting point

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99
Q

Red flare from aircraft

A

Distress

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100
Q

Green flare from aircraft

A

Request to land (or land in different direction)

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101
Q
A

Proceed to another marshaller

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102
Q
A

Move ahead

103
Q
A

Open up starboard engine

104
Q
A

Stop

105
Q
A

Start engine (point to engine or number of fingers)

106
Q
A

Chocks inserted

107
Q
A

Chocks away

108
Q
A

Cut engines

109
Q
A

Slow down

110
Q
A

Slow indicated engine

111
Q
A

This bay

112
Q
A

Extending fingers - release brakes
Clenching fist - engage brakes

113
Q
A

Marshalling finished

114
Q
A

Reverse port engine

115
Q
A

Recommend evacuation

116
Q
A

Recommend stop

117
Q
A

Emergency contained

118
Q
A

Fire

119
Q

Standard Pressure

A

1013.2 hPa

120
Q

Transition Altitude

A

3000ft in most of UK
Detail shown in AIP

121
Q

Transition Level

A

The lowest flight level above 3000ft

122
Q

Which types of flight must use flight levels instead of altitudes

A

Flights in controlled space or IFR

123
Q

Semi-circular rule (IFR & VFR)

A

IFR up to 400
East (0-179) - Odd 10’s
West (180-359) - Even 10’s
VFR - Add 5
West uses 430 not 420 then skip

124
Q

When to use pressure settings (general)

A

FL over 3000ft, QFE in the circuit, QNH otherwise

125
Q

FIR
- Stands for
- Those in UK

A

Flight Information Region
Up to FL245 - London & Scotland
UIR (Upper) over FL245

126
Q

Controlled & uncontrolled airspace codes

A

A-E controlled
F-G uncontrolled

127
Q

When do flight always get ATC?

A

In controlled airspace

128
Q

CTR
- Stands for
- Definition
- Dimensions
- Class

A

Control Zone
Around certain aerodromes from surface to stated alt./FL, at least 5NM radius
Class D

129
Q

TMA
- Stands for
- Definition
- Class

A

Terminal Control/Manoeuvring Area
Confluence of several major aerodromes (eg London)
Class A, C, D or E

130
Q

CTA
- Stands for
- Definition
- Class

A

Control Area
Portion of ATC controlled airspace between two alt./FLs.
Class A, C or D

131
Q

Airway
- Definition
- Class

A

Corridor 5nm either side of a line with identifier
Class A, C or E

132
Q

Upper Airspace
- Flight level
- Class

A

FL195
Class C

133
Q

Special VFR uses

A

Flights in controlled airspace with relaxed rules.
Can allow transit of class A CTR
Relaxed operating limits

134
Q

Special VFR requirements (4)

A

<140kts
1500m visibility
Cloud ceiling > 600ft
Clear of cloud and sight of surface

135
Q

Crossing airways
- PPL pilot
- Instrument pilot

A

PPL can cross at 90 degrees below lower altitude of airway only.
IR pilot can cross in VMC if the file a flight plan (during flight ok) and get clearance 10 mins before penetration

136
Q

Open FIR

A

Class G airspace, everything not a higher class

137
Q

ATZ
- Stands for
- Description
- Dimension

A

Air Traffic Zone
Contain an aerodrome and use the same class as surrounding airspace
Ground to 2,000ft aal
2nm radius if <1,850m runway
2.5nm radius if >1,850m runway

138
Q

Required before entering ATZ

A

Permission from ATC if it exists.
Otherwise information from AFIS or A/G radio if neither exists

139
Q

MATZ
- Stands for
- Description
- Dimension

A

Military Air Traffic Zone
Contains military aerodrome
Ground to 3,000ft aal
5nm radius
4nm wide stub between 1k, 3k ft

140
Q

Required before entering MATZ

A

Technically not regulated space so don’t need permission to enter, but still need to obey ATC

141
Q

Upper air space classification

A

Airspace above FL195 in UK is class C

142
Q

Royal Airspace
- Airspace and class established
- Times
- Applies to which flights

A

Temporary Class D (CAS-T) established with control zones & areas around aerodromes.
15 mins before to 30 mins after ETA/D
Doesn’t apply to helicopters generally

143
Q

Class A airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

No VFR (except SVFR)
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for all flights

144
Q

Class B airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for all flights

145
Q

Class C airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR & VFR
Traffic info for VFR from VFR

146
Q

Class D airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR
Traffic info for all other cases

147
Q

Class E airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
Only IFR need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR
Traffic info for other cases where possible

148
Q

Class F airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
No clearance needed
IFR can request procedural or deconfliction
All flights can request basic or traffic

149
Q

Class G airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service

A

IFR & VFR
No clearance needed
All flights can request a service

150
Q

ACC
- Stands for
- Responsibilities

A

Area Control Centre
- ATC services in airways
- Flight information service (FIS) & alerting service
- Distress and diversion service

151
Q

ATC
- Stands for
- Responsibilities
- Components (3)

A

Air Traffic Control
ATC services around an aerodrome
Can be split into Approach, Tower and Ground

152
Q

FIS
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Flight Information Service
Information only service at aerodromes

153
Q

A/G
- Stands for
- Definition

A

Air/Ground communication service
Simple service at aerodromes, low qualifications

154
Q

Safetycom
- What is it?
- Restrictions

A

135.48
General radio frequency for aerodromes without dedicated channel
Only use within 2000ft aal (or 1000ft above circuit) and 10nm distance

155
Q

LARS
- Stands for
- Definition
- Range of availability

A

Lower Airspace Radar System
Radar service (basic, traffic or deconfliction) available within 30nm of ATS units up to FL100

156
Q

Services outside controlled airspace (4)

A

Basic
Traffic
Deconfliction
Procedural

157
Q

Basic Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided

A

Available to all flights and offered by any ATC unit (including information)
PIC is fully responsible for all avoidance actions.
Do not expect any traffic info.
Can change course or altitude without informing unit, unless an agreement has been made.

158
Q

Traffic Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided

A

Available to all flights and offered by radar service units
PIC responsible for avoidance, but controllers may issue headings & FLs (no deconfliction)
Traffic info will be provided as far as it can be

159
Q

Deconfliction Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Deconfliction minima
- Traffic info provided

A

Available to IFR only by radar service units
PIC still ultimately responsible, but service provides deconfliction to 3000ft/5nm (not identified) or 1000ft/3nm (same ATC unit)
Traffic info still passed for help

160
Q

Procedural Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided

A

Available to IFR only by non-radar units
PIC responsible for clearance but service provides headings, timings, altitudes to achieve deconfliction for flights it controls
Provides traffic info on basic service flights under its control but can’t see traffic it isn’t controlling

161
Q

Which flights require flight plans?

A

Class A-D
Class E if night, IMC or IFR
Flights crossing FIR boundary
>=5,700kg AND >=40km

162
Q

How to activate a flight plan

A

If you file with ATSU from which you take off, it is activated when you take off.
Otherwise use AFPEX or get a friend to call the filed ATSU

163
Q

How to close a flight plan

A

On arrival phone the ATSU or file via AFPEX

164
Q

Flight plan delay requirements

A

Must cancel and file again if over 60 minutes delayed (30 mins if entering controlled airspace)

165
Q

AFPEX

A

Assisted Flight Planning Exchange

166
Q

VMC visibility minima

A

8km above FL100
5km below

167
Q

VMC distance from cloud minima

A

1,500m horizontal, 300m vertical
Exceptions in class F/G (sometimes D)

168
Q

VMC distance from cloud exceptions

A

Only need clear of cloud with surface in sight.
- Below 3,000ft ASML or 1,000ft above ground; and
- Class F/G. Also class D in daytime below 140kts

169
Q

Helicopter VMC visibility minima reductions

A

5km can reduce to 1,500m and 1,500m to 800m in some cases

170
Q

VMC minima at night

A
  • Cloud ceiling >1,500ft
  • Ground visibility >5km
  • Sight of surface below 3000ft AMSL
  • > 1,000ft clearance above highest obstacle in 8km (2,000ft high terrain)
171
Q

Additional VMC night flying requirements (2)

A
  • Flight plan required if leaving vicinity of aerodrome
  • 2 way radio should be established
172
Q

IFR minima (height)

A

> 1,000ft clearance over tallest obstacle within 8km, (2000ft in high terrain)
(except TO/L)

173
Q

IFR flight requirements (ATC)

A

Flight plan needed if in controlled airspace
Follow terms of clearance and ATC instructions
Inform ATC of any departures from this rule
Inform ATC when aircraft lands or leaves controlled airspace

174
Q

IFR switching to VFR requirements

A

Need to be sure VMC can be maintained whilst in controlled airspace
Need to inform ATC and request cancellation of flight plan

175
Q

Is “-“ required in registration?

A

Only if country code is a letter

176
Q

Where are balloon registration marks displayed?

A

On each side near the middle

177
Q

Where are heavier than air craft registration marks displayed?

A

On base of left wing, top of letters by leading edge
On both sides of fuselage between wings and tail, OR both sides of tail

178
Q

Size requirements for registration marks

A

50cm wings, 30cm fuselage/tail

179
Q

Rules for registration mark font

A

Roman capitals, Arabic numbers, width 2/3 of height (except I and 1)

180
Q

Identification plate requirement

A

Fireproof copy near door

181
Q

Exceptions to registration of craft

A

Non EASA gliders/hang-gliders.
Test/experimental craft

182
Q

Airworthiness documents and expiries for Part-21

A

Certificate of Airworthiness - non-expiring
Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) - annual

183
Q

Airworthiness documents and expiries for non-part-21

A

Certificate of Airworthiness - 3 years
Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) - annual

184
Q

What is required to fly without Certificate of Airworthiness

A

Permit to Fly
Issued by CAA for part-21, or suitable maintenance person for non-part-21

185
Q

Documentation for mechanical aspects (3)

A

Need a technical logbook recording flight times, unserviceable items, maintenance record etc.
Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) if craft or a major part is overhauled.
Aircraft logbook, Engine logbook, variable pitch propeller logbook (if appropriate)

186
Q

Rules governing flight of damaged aircraft

A

State where craft is located can prevent flight, must notify state of reg.
State of reg. can prevent flight, or determine a flight to allow repair is ok
State of location must allow this flight

187
Q

Where is aircraft mass/balance recorded
Description

A

Aircraft Weight Schedule within the Certificate of Airworthiness
Mass & COG determined regularly at basic weight, old version kept for 6 months

188
Q

Most important CofA limitations that must be clear to pilots

A

V(NE) and V(FE)

189
Q

Which craft need noise certificate?

A

Propeller below 9,000kg
Helicopters & microlights
Subsonic craft with >610m take off length
Only a few STOL (short take off & landing) craft exempt

190
Q

Insurance categories

A

Third party
Passenger
Hull (optional)

191
Q

PPL remuneration allowances

A

LAPL/PPL teaching/examination (if FI rated)
Cost sharing in craft up to 6 POB

192
Q

Expiry of part-FCL licenses

A

Do not expire, but ratings and endorsements required to use them

193
Q

Licensing age requirements

A

Age 16 for solos
Age 16 for gliders, balloons
Age 17 for PPL, LAPL

194
Q

Class 2 medical validity

A

< 40 years - 60 months
40-49 years - 24 months
50 years+ - 12 months
All valid until expiry, but pre-40 expires age 42, pre-50 expires age 51

195
Q

LAPL medical validity and rules

A

Can be issued by GP if no health issues
<40 years - 60 months
> 40 years - 24 months

196
Q

PMD
- Stands for
- Use

A

Pilot Medical Declaration
Only if UK pilot wants to fly UK registered craft in UK only

197
Q

Anaesthetic rules

A

12 hours after local
48 hours after general

198
Q

Blood/bone marrow donation rules

A

12 hours blood
24 hours bone marrow

199
Q

Pregnancy rules

A

If certified fit to fly, up to 26th week ok

200
Q

PPL nav. requirements (A, H)

A

A - 150nm, 2 TOLs
H - 100nm, 2 TOLs

201
Q

PPL recency requirements (A, H)

A

To carry passengers, 3 TOLs in last 90 days.
To carry passengers at night one must have been at night.

202
Q

Maintaining SEP rating

A

i) Proficiency check in 3 months before expiry, or
ii) 12 hours flight time (6 as PIC), 12 TOLs, 1 hour with FI or CRI
Can get exemption for passing suitable flight test in this time.

203
Q

How long are SEP and MEP ratings valid for?

A

SEP - 2 years
MEP - 1 year

204
Q

Maintaining MEP rating

A

i) Proficiency check in 3 months before expiry, or
ii) 10 route sectors in last 12 months (TO, 15 mins cruise, L) OR 1 route sector with instructor

205
Q

Initial MEP rating requirements

A

70 hours PIC.
ATO course with 7 hours theory, theory exam, 2.5 hours two-engine flight and 3.5 hours asymmetric flight, skill test.

206
Q

IMC/IR(R) ratings

A

Instrument Meteorological Conditions
Instrument Rating (Restricted)
Essentially the same thing

207
Q

Requirements for IR(R)/IMC rating

A

25 hours after PPL including
(i) 10 hours as PIC, of which 5 XCtry and
(ii) 15 hours PUT on IR(R) course, of which 10 solely referencing instruments
Written exam and flight test

208
Q

Privileges of IR(R) rating
Area of validity

A

Allows flight in IFR conditions except:
(i) class A airspace, and
(ii) TOL when visibility under cloud below 1,500m
Valid in UK only

209
Q

IR(A) priveliges

A

Allows full flight in IFR, with minimum decision height 200ft

210
Q

LAPL requirements
A/H
Hours, XCtry

A

A - 30 total, 15 dual, 6 solo, 3 XCtry
H - 40 total, 20 dual, 10 solo, 5 XCtry
80nm XCtry, 1 land away

211
Q

Required documents always on board (6)

A

i) Aircraft flight manual (or operations manual)
ii) Details of flight plan (if app.)
iii) Relevant Aeronautical charts
iv) Interception info
v) Minimum equipment list (if app.)
vi) Other pertinent documentation

212
Q

Required documents which can remain at aerodrome if TOL at same one (7)

A

i) Original cert. of registration
ii) Original CofA
iii) Noise certificate (if app.)
iv) List of approvals (if app.)
v) Aircraft Radio License (if app.)
vi) Insurance cert.
vii) Journey log

213
Q

Documents required for flight crew

A

Original license
Photo ID

214
Q

Pilot logbook kept for

A

2 years from last entry

215
Q

Transponder modes

A

A - Just codes
C - Codes and altitude
S - 17 million codes and further info

216
Q

Mandatory transponder areas

A

Scottish TMA 6000ft AMSL - FL100 (Mode A)
UK above FL100 (Mode C)
UK controlled below FL100 (Mode C)
Transponder Mandatory Zones (Mode S)

217
Q

Transponder code - Emergency

A

7700

218
Q

Transponder code - Radio failure

A

7600

219
Q

Transponder code - Unlawful Interference

A

7500

220
Q

Transponder code - Normal operations

A

7000

221
Q

Transponder code - Entering UK from adjacent region

A

2000

222
Q

Transponder code - Aerobatics

A

7004

223
Q

Transponder code - Parachutists

A

0033

224
Q

Transponder code - Lost

A

0030

225
Q

Airprox reporting requirements

A

Report to connected ATSU over radio immediately, if not by phone on landing
Fill in form within 7 days

226
Q

Weather considerations for VFR flights (3)

A

Don’t take off unless forecast indicates VFR conditions along entire route.
Don’t continue unless VFR conditions at destination or >=1 alternate.
Report any negative weather conditions encountered immediately.

227
Q

Passenger briefing items (5)

A

Seat belts
Emergency exits
Life jackets
Oxygen equipment
Other emergency equipment

228
Q

Minimum flight safety equipment (5)

A

(i) Accessible first aid kit
(ii) Fire extinguisher in each cabin
(iii) Seat for each passenger over age X
(iv) Seat belt for each berth
(v) Spare fuses

229
Q

Minimum flight documents (ICAO) (3)

A

(i) Flight manual
(ii) Charts required
(iii) Intercepted aircraft info

230
Q

VFR Flight additional equipment (5)

A

(i) Compass
(ii) ASI
(iii) Altimeter
(iv) Accurate timepiece
(v) Additional equipment required

231
Q

Equipment for flights over water

A

SEP: Life-jackets if beyond gliding dist.
MEP: Life-jackets if >50nm from land
Rafts & pyrotechnics if >100nm (SEP) or >200nm (MEP) from land

232
Q

Additional safety equipment under Part-NCO

A

Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT)
Any type for CofA pre 1/7/08
Automatic for CofA post 1/7/08
Personal one for craft <= 6 seats

233
Q

Additional instruments under Part-NCO at night

A

Turn and slip
Attitude
Vertical speed
Heading indicator
Power status of gyro instruments

234
Q

Part-NCO over water rules

A

Life jackets for all flights beyond gliding distance of land (or if PIC considers likelihood of ditching during TOL)
Should be worn uninflated for SEP.
PIC determines raft/pyrotechnics etc.

235
Q

Use of oxygen rules

A

In unpressurised craft crew must use oxygen continuously when over:
10,000ft for 30 mins
13,000 feet for any time.
Passengers over 13,000 feet only.

236
Q

Emergency frequency

A

121.5

237
Q

Distress signalling
- morse, lights, pyro., other

A

SOS: dit-dit-dit dah-dah-dah dit-dit-dit
Single reds at short intervals
Red parachute flare
Continuous sound

238
Q

Urgency (pan-pan) signalling
- morse, lights, pyro.

A

X-X-X: dah-dit-dit-dah x 3
Landing or nav lights on and off
Series of white pyrotechnics

239
Q

RCC
- Stands for
- Description

A

Rescue Coordination Centre
Coordinate search and rescue operations

240
Q

Alerting Service

A

Service offered by all ATSUs to alert appropriate authorities in case of emergency

241
Q

How to get SAR observation of your flight

A

File a flight plan

242
Q

SAR requirements for states

A

24 hour Search and Rescue
Must define regions where SAR is available and have RCC in each

243
Q

RCC Phases

A

Uncertainty - Coordinate with ATSUs
Alert - Alert SAR units
Distress - Commence SAR action

244
Q

Emergency ground signals
- Require assistance
- Require medical assistance
- Yes
- No
- Proceed in this direction

A

V - Require assistance
X - Require medical assistance
Y - Yes
N - No
—-> - Proceed in this direction

245
Q

Accident Definition

A

(i) Death or serious injury, in or on craft or contact with any part of it or jet blast (excludes stowaways)
(ii) Aircraft damage or structural failure (except limited to engine, propellers, tyres, brakes etc.)
(iii) Aircraft missing or inaccessible.

246
Q

Who to notify of accident

A

Chief Inspector of Air Accidents
Local police authority in UK

247
Q

Incident Definition

A

Anything less than accident:
Airprox, undershoot/overshoot runway, non-accident damage to craft, crew incapacitation, low fuel mayday call

248
Q

MOR
- Stands for
- Description

A

Mandatory Occurrence Report
Filled in for a specified list of events, can also voluntarily fill one in if not on the list

249
Q

Requirement for bird strikes

A

Must be reported whether damage caused or not.
CAA likes to hear about near misses too.

250
Q

After how many days illness must a pilot inform the CAA

A

21 days

251
Q

Speed limit below FL100

A

250kts

252
Q

What colour is AVGAS 110LL equipment?

A

Red

253
Q

Is start date of initial medical certificate the issue date or medical exam date?

A

Date of the medical examination

PPL 2023 (11 decks)

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