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SAM. > Onco Q's. 3. > Flashcards

Onco Q's. 3. Flashcards

1
Q

In addition to chest x-rays and abdominal U/S, what else is necessary in order to stage HSA?

A

Echocardiogram.

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2
Q

Staging hemangiosarcoma is used for predicting what outcome?

A

Prognosis.

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3
Q

What protocol is the treatment of choice and offers the longest MST in dogs with splenic HSA?

A

Splenectomy + doxorubicin.

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4
Q

What is the MST of using a splenectomy and doxorubicin as treatment for a splenic HSA?

A

4-6 months.

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5
Q

What is the MST of using a splenectomy as treatment for a splenic HSA?

A

1-2 months.

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6
Q

Cutaneous hemangiosarcoma has been associated with what?

A

UV light exposure.

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7
Q

Based on what you know about splenic masses.

What percent are malignant and what percent are
HSA?

A

2/3 are malignant.

2/3 of malignancies are HSA.

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8
Q

Which cutaneous form of HSA is least likely to metastasise?

A

Dermal (stage I).

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a natural behaviour of an osteosarcoma in dogs?

A

Commonly invades the loco-regional lymph nodes.

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10
Q

What is diagnostic of OSA in dogs?

A

Cytology of the lesion centre with ALP(+) stain.

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11
Q

Which is a positive prognostic indicator of OSA in dogs?

A

OSA of the orbit/mandible.

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12
Q

What is the prognosis of amputation alone in OSA?

A

MST of 4-5 months.

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a method of local disease control that may be offered for OSA in dogs, apart from surgery?

A

Chemotherapy.

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14
Q

How do we treat a dermal stage 1 form of HSA?

A

Wide surgical excision alone.

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15
Q

How do we treat a subcutaneous stage 2 form of HSA?

A

Wide surgical excision + doxorubicin.

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16
Q

What are the 3 toxicities caused by chemo?

A

Bone marrow (myelo) suppression.

Alopecia.

Gastrointestinal upset.

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17
Q

Why does radiation therapy sometimes take a while?

A

The cells die just before dividing.

Sometimes it takes a while to get to M phase, so the tumour may not subside until months later.

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18
Q

What are the 4 R’s of radiation therapy?

A

Repair of sublethal damage.

Repopulation with tumour cells.

Reoxygenation of hypoxic cells

Redistribution of cells throughout the cell cycle.

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19
Q

What is a stage 2 lymphoma?

A

More than 1 lymph node affected on the same side of the diaphragm.

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20
Q

What is a stage 3 lymphoma?

A

Multiple lymph nodes are affected on both sides of the diaphragm.

21
Q

What is a stage 4 lymphoma?

A

The liver or spleen are involved (+/- Stages I-III).

22
Q

What is a stage 4 lymphoma?

A

There is bone marrow or extranodal involvement (+/- Stages I-III).

23
Q

What does substage A mean with lymphoma?

A

There are no clinical signs.

24
Q

What does substage B mean with lymphoma?

A

There are clinical signs.

25
Q

What kind of tumours are mast cell tumours?

A

Round cell tumours.

26
Q

What kind of mast cell tumours are undifferentiated and what kind are well differentiated?

A

Histamine (undifferentiated).

Heparin (well-differentiated).

27
Q

What breed tends to get low grad MCTs?

A

Boxers.

28
Q

Do we ever stick a cats spleen?

A

No.

29
Q

What are the 3 most common locations for a hemangiosarcoma?

A

Spleen (28 to 50%).

Right Atrium (3 to 50%).

Subcutaneous (13%).

30
Q

What is the double 2/3rds rule with hemangiosarcomas?

A

Approximately 2/3 of dogs with splenic masses will have a malignant tumour.

Approximately 2/3 of those malignancies will be a hemangiosarcoma.

31
Q

How does the size of a hemangiosarcoma affect the prognosis?

A

The bigger the mass, the more likely it is benign.

32
Q

How does the size of a osteosarcoma affect the prognosis?

A

The bigger the mass the worse it is.

33
Q

A dog has suspected lymphoma, but the owner only has enough money for one diagnostic test.

What do you want to check?

A

Calcium.

Hypercalcemia of malignancy is a negative prognostic indicator.

34
Q

An 8-year-old female Rottweiler has hindlimb lameness.

What is the most likely tumour?

A

Osteosarcoma.

35
Q

Which of the 3 families of tumours have the BEST exfoliation?

A

Round cell.

36
Q

With what 2 masses do we not do an FNA?

A

Cavitary mass.

Bladder mass.

37
Q

What is the mechanism of alkylating agents?

A

Cross-link DNA and prevent replication.

38
Q

What is cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) used to treat?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis.

39
Q

What are the 4 signs of cystitis?

A

Vocalising.

Change in urine colour.

Straining to pee.

Increased pee frequency.

40
Q

What is lomustine (CCNU) used to treat?

A

Delayed myelosuppression.

41
Q

What is the mechanism of anti-metabolites?

A

They interfere with DNA synthesis.

42
Q

What drug causes a fatal neurotoxicity in cats?

A

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU).

43
Q

What is the mechanism of anti tumour antibiotics?

A

DNA damage via free radical formation or interference with activity of topoisomerase II.

44
Q

What are the side effects of doxorubicin/adriamycin in dogs?

A

Dose cumulative cardiotoxicity and anaphylaxis.

45
Q

What are the side effects of doxorubicin/adriamycin in cats?

A

Nephrotoxicity and anorexia.

46
Q

How must a vesicant be administered?

A

IV, it must go into the vein.

47
Q

What is the mode of action of heavy metals?

A

They cross-link DNA and prevent replication.

48
Q

What drug causes fatal pulmonary oedema in cats?

A

Cisplatin.

49
Q

What cats are most likely to be affected by FeLV?

A

Young cats = positive for FeLV-associated disease.

Old cats = negative for FeLV.

SAM. (10 decks)

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