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SAM. > Onco Q's. > Flashcards

Onco Q's. Flashcards

1
Q

You are performing ultrasound, blood work and radiographs after diagnosing a primary tumour on biopsy.

What is this called?

A

Staging.

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2
Q

Feline lymphoma usually affects what cats?

A

Usually young cats with FeLV associated disease.

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3
Q

What is a negative prognostic indicator associated with lymphoma in cats and dogs?

A

Hypercalcemia.

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4
Q

What is the most common location site for MCT in cats?

A

Cutaneous.

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5
Q

Where do you give the FeLV vaccine?

A

Left hindlimb.

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6
Q

What are the 2 vaccines most commonly implicated with vaccine-induced sarcomas in CATS?

A

Rabies and FeLV.

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7
Q

What is the 1-2-3 Rule of injection-site sarcomas in cats?

A

Still growing 1 month after vaccination.

If over 2 cm in size.

If it persists for over 3 months after vaccination.

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a proposed factor for vaccine-associated fibrosarcoma in cats?

A

Needle gauge, syringe reuse, vaccine temp, shaking of syringe, massaging site.

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9
Q

Following an incisional biopsy of a Soft tissue sarcoma in a cat, what is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

A

CT.

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10
Q

Cutaneous HSA has been associated with what?

A

UV light exposure.

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11
Q

What are 3 common locations for HSA?

A

Heart.

Spleen.

Subcutaneous tissues.

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12
Q

In an osteosarcoma, what liver enzyme should you measure for prognosis?

A

ALP.

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13
Q

What is the 90/10 rule with osteosarcomas?

A

90% die from metastatic disease.

Under 15% show metastasis at time of diagnosis.

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14
Q

With which chemo drug will you monitor ALT levels?

A

Lomustine.

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15
Q

Why do we monitor ALT levels when giving lomustine?

A

It is hepatotoxic in dogs.

It is also lipophilic and crosses the blood brain barrier.

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16
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for OSA in dogs?

A

Amputation and chemotherapy.

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17
Q

An owner asks you why the oncologist recommends continuing chemotherapy in their dog despite being told its cancer is in remission.

You tell the owner this is because?

A

Tumour cells are still present, below the level of clinical detection.

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18
Q

A 10-year-old female GSD presents for a 1 cm oral mass.

The mass was surgically excised with complete surgical margins and histopathology indicating oral malignant melanoma.

What do you suggest next?

A

Oncept vaccine.

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19
Q

What are the indications for the oncept vaccine?

A

Oral malignant melanoma.

It give locoregional control for an oral malignant melanoma.

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20
Q

When will we not use radiation therapy?

A

If the tumour has been removed with complete surgical margins.

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21
Q

Which of the following is not one of the 3 reasons why it important to always review your slide of an FNA sample prior to submitting for pathology?

A

Determining the type of neoplasia so you can start treatment ASAP.

22
Q

Background inflammation with reactive cells in a cytology sample can interfere with your interpretation.

What type of neoplasia is this most problematic in?

A

TCC in the bladder.

Also MCT with fibroblasts in background.

23
Q

You obtain the following slide (pic) from a FNA bladder mass.

You suspect it is TCC because of the mass shedding of epithelial cells.

However you also see lots of bacteria.

What do you do next?

A

Clear the infection first and then resample mass.

24
Q

In which of the following scenarios is pre-treatment biopsy NOT recommended?

A. Large mass on the hock of a greyhound.

B. Small dermal mass on the flank of a dog.

C. Splenic mass.

A

C. Splenic mass.

Also: Spinal cord mass.

25
Q

You diagnose an oral mass as malignant melanoma.

Where should you investigate for metastasis?

A

Lungs, submandibular lymph nodes.

26
Q

What kind of metastasis do we get if there is metastasis to the lungs only?

A

Hematogenous (mesenchymal).

27
Q

What kind of metastasis do we get if there is metastasis to the submandibular lymph nodes only?

A

Lymphatics (round cell).

28
Q

What side effects of chemotherapy are MOST commonly observed?

A

Bone marrow suppression.

Alopecia.

GI upset.

29
Q

What unique toxicity is associated with cyclophosphamide?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis.

30
Q

What cancer drug causes hepatotoxicity in dogs?

A

Lomustine.

31
Q

What is the MOST common side effect of cyclophosphamide?

A

Myelosupression.

32
Q

What chemotherapy drug is nephrotoxic and known to cause fatal pulmonary oedema in cats?

A

Cisplatin.

33
Q

How can we prevent renal toxicity in cats with cisplatin?

A

With diuresis.

34
Q

What drug causes minimal renal toxicity and is safe to use in cats?

A

Carboplatin.

35
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated in cats as it can cause a fatal neurotoxicity?

A

5-fluorouracil

36
Q

Which chemotherapy drug is a severe tissue vesicant that can cause a unique nephrotoxicity in cats and a cumulative dose-related cardiotoxicity in dogs?

A

Doxorubicin.

37
Q

A 6-year-old MC collie presents for lymphadenopathy and cytology diagnoses lymphoma.

His owners would like to pursue combination chemotherapy (CHOP protocol), however you know that 70% of Collies are affected by the MDR-1 mutation.

Testing for MDR results can take 1-2 weeks.

Knowing that LSA can progress rapidly, you decide to start treatment with a drug not dependent on P-glycoprotein to
avoid potentially causing significant side effects.

What drug in the CHOP protocol do you start with?

A

Cyclophosphamide.

38
Q

A 6 year old West Highland Terrier is diagnosed with multicentric lymphoma.

It presents to the ER 6 days after receiving the protocol for CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone).

It has a history of vomiting and diarrhoea for 2 days.

What do you suspect caused these signs?

A

Doxorubicin.

39
Q

What drug causes visceral stimulation of CTZ normally seen 3-5 days after chemotherapy?

A

Doxorubicine.

This leads to vomiting and diarrhoea.

40
Q

What anti-emetic is the 1st line of treatment for this doxorubicine induced vomiting?

A

Maropitant (cerenia).

41
Q

What is metaclopromide used for?

A

To treat ileus from vincristine.

42
Q

What treatment is indicated for this doxorubicine induced diarrhoea in a collie if the MDR-receptor status is unknown?

A

Metronidazole and a bland diet.

43
Q

What 2 cell lines are you most concerned about with the side effects of myelosuppression following chemotherapy?

A

Neutrophils and platelets.

Rapidly divided cells.

44
Q

When is emergency treatment of neutropenia caused by myelosuppression indicated?

A

When the patient is febrile and lethargic with a neutrophil count of 800.

45
Q

Tanovea is an example of a chemotherapeutic that has conditional approval from the FDA.

What does this mean?

A

No extra-label use permitted.

Can lose license.

46
Q

A 14-year-old FS DSH presents to you with weight loss and difficulty eating.

A large mass is present on the left maxilla.

Cytology diagnoses lymphoma.

What can you recommend to palliate this cat’s disease and provide quality of life prior to definitive therapy?

A

Single dose radiation therapy.

47
Q

What type of radiation therapy is not radioactive following therapy?

A

External beam radiation therapy (Teletherapy).

48
Q

What is the most important mechanism of action that we use radiation therapy for?

A

Indirect damage leading to free-radical formation.

49
Q

Which of the following is not one of the R’s of Radiation therapy?

A

Resist.

50
Q

What do the R’s of Radiation therapy determine?

A

How safely and effectively cancer can be treated with radiation therapy.

SAM. (10 decks)

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