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SAM. > 2. > Flashcards

2. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 3-2-1 rule for ISS?

A

3 months, 2 cm, 1 month.

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2
Q

You see a patient 5 days post chemo treatment.

It is lethargic and has a fever.

Bloodwork pic showing neutropenia.

What is the best treatment?

A

IV Fluids.

IV antibiotics.

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3
Q

What 2 agents are vesicants?

A

Vinblastine.

Doxorubicine.

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4
Q

What does fine fraction radiation allow us to do?

A

Long term control.

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5
Q

What are the side effects of cyclophosphamide?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis.

Myelosuppression.

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6
Q

A golden retriever has a cutaneous MCT.

It is high grade 3 with full margins.

What do you recommend?

A

Staging and chemo and pred.

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7
Q

You have just removed a low grade tumour, what is your advice to the owner?

A

Monitor it.

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8
Q

What are the 2 cheapest diagnostics for a mass?

A

FNA and cytology.

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9
Q

What is the best way to remove a tumour to minimise the chance of it spreading?

A

Radical excision.

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10
Q

How do you differentiate SIRS vs sepsis?

A

Identify the source of infection.

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11
Q

Besides what’s listed, what other 2 treatments do you use for parvovirus treatment?

A

Sucralfate and famotidine.

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12
Q

What is indicative of an endoscopic biopsy?

A

Dogs with hypoalbuminemia, ascites and suspected lympangestica.

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13
Q

What is indicative for an emergency exploratory celiotomy?

A

Air showing the peritoneal lining indicative of air in the abdomen.

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14
Q

What do you monitor in pancreatitis pet to avoid a surgical emergency?

A

Biliary obstruction (EHBO).

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15
Q

What is the treatment for long term chronic pancreatitis in a cat (not during an acute/flare-up)?

A

Pancreatic enzyme supplements, no diet.

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16
Q

A at just had a foreign body removed 3 days ago and now it has a fever and ascites.

It had fluid, gas and high neutrophils.

What do you do next?

A

Exploratory celiotomy.

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17
Q

A cat has sepsis.

It is hypoglycaemic, has a high temperature etc.

What do you do next?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics and IV dextrose to stabilise it before surgery.

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18
Q

A cat has no infectious cause and is unresponsive to a food trial.

You did extensive infectious trials and they were negative.

The cat had chronic small bowel diarrhoea.

The owners don’t want to refer as they don’t have money.

What is the next step?

A

High fibre diet trial.

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19
Q

What is the RER in a long anorexic patient?

A

Day 1 = 1/3 RER.

Day 2 = 2/3 RER.

Day 3 = full RER.

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20
Q

How do you confirm placement of a feeding tube as an owner?

A

Check for negative pressure.

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21
Q

A dog has trouble swallowing.

In the exam room he tried to forcefully pick up the food, but it fell out the side of his mouth.

Where is the problem localised?

A

Oropharynx.

22
Q

A cat comes in with hypersalivation.

What is the first question you ask the owner?

A

Is it up to date on rabies.

23
Q

What is the most common cause of regurgitation?

A

Oesophagitis.

24
Q

What is a negative prognostic indicator for megaesophagus?

A

Aspiration pneumonia.

25
Q

What is a short term diet for a dog with acute gastritis?

A

A bland, highly digestible diet.

26
Q

What are the two most common causes of gastric ulcers?

A

Medications and neoplasia.

27
Q

With pancreatitis this clinical sign is seen in 90% in dogs and 30% in cats.

What is it?

A

Vomiting.

28
Q

What are the tests that can only be done via therapeutic trials?

A

Antibiotic responsive or fibre responsive.

29
Q

What can ultrasound tell us?

A

What organs are involved and where to biopsy.

30
Q

A small dog presents with a PCV of 65%, jam diarrhoea and other clinical signs.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea syndrome.

31
Q

When do you treat salmonella?

A

When sepsis is present and salmonella is positive on a faecal exam.

32
Q

A cat was constipated 1 month ago.

It was treated for 7 days with prokinetics and laxatives.

It is now back now for the same issue, what do you want to do?

A

Spinal and pelvic radiographs and some other stuff.

33
Q

What are the 4 SIRS criteria?

A

Temperature.

Heart rate.

Respiratory rate.

WBC count.

34
Q

What are differential diagnoses for weight loss with increased appetite in a cat?

A

Chronic pancreatitis, endocrine disease, neoplasia.

EPI, IBD, neoplasia.

CHECK THIS.

35
Q

You are seeing a nutrition patient.

What’s important to do?

A

Get enteral nutrition in asap via a tube.

36
Q

You see a dog with oesophageal ulceration after ingesting a caustic substance.

What is the best tube to leave in for 2 weeks?

A

Gastric tube.

37
Q

What is the best test to diagnose acute pancreatitis?

A

Quantitative PLI and in house positive snap test.

38
Q

What are top differential diagnostic categories for IBD in a dog?

A

Infectious.

Inflammation.

Neoplasia.

39
Q

How do you definitively differentiate IBD from a food allergy?

A

Food trial.

40
Q

What does the ACVIM statement say/help you with?

A

Grading, and therapeutic plans.

41
Q

What is the difference between PLE secondary to IBD and standard IBD?

A

This is worse prognosis.

42
Q

You need to do a Pringle maneuver in surgery.

What are you occluding?

A

Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct.

43
Q

A young Yorkie presents with blindness after eating.

It seems disoriented and has a decreased BUN etc.

It is on a high protein diet.

What does it likely have and how do you fix it?

A

Portosystemic shunt.

Surgical attenuation.

44
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of PSS?

A

CT angiography.

45
Q

What is the classical clinical sign for a PSS?

A

Decreased BUN.

46
Q

You have diagnosed an extrahepatic shunt.

What is your treatment?

A

Ameroid constrictor.

47
Q

What is a cholecystectomy?

A

Removal of the gall bladder.

48
Q

What is a clinical sign of an obstructed bile duct?

A

Jaundice.

49
Q

Which of these will cause peritonitis?

A

Gall bladder rupture.

50
Q

What is the difference between regurgitation and vomiting?

A

Regurgitation is a passive process.

Vomiting is an active process.

SAM. (10 decks)

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