OMM Flashcards

1
Q

What are the somatic levels of the head and neck?

A

T1-T4

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2
Q

What are the somatic levels of the heart and lung?

A

T1-T4

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3
Q

What are the somatic levels of the foregut?

***Stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, pancreas

A

T5-T9

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4
Q

What are the somatic levels of the midgut?

***distal half of the duodenum, small intestine, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, 2/3 transverse colon

A

T10-T11

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5
Q

What are the somatic levels of the hindgut?

***distal 1/3 transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

A

T12-L2

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6
Q

What are the somatic levels of the kidney?

A

T10-T11

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7
Q

What are the somatic levels of the appendix?

A

T12

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8
Q

What are the somatic levels of the upper extremity?

A

T2-T8

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9
Q

What are the somatic levels of the Lower extremity?

A

T11-L2

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10
Q

What are the somatic levels of Upper ureter and gonads?

A

T10-T11

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11
Q

What are the somatic levels of Lower ureter and All other GU

A

T12-L2

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12
Q

What are the primary motions of the OA?

A

Flexion and Extension

Type 1 like: Sidebending and rotation are opposite

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13
Q

What are the primary motions of the AA?

A

Rotation

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14
Q

What is the primary motion of C2-C7?

A

Sidebending

Type 2 like

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15
Q

What is the facet orientation of the portions of the spine?

A

Cervical: BUM: backwards, upwards, medial

Thoracic: BUL: backwards, upwards, lateral

Lumbar: BM: Backwards and Medial

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of a typical rib?

A

Head neck and body

One facet articulates with the same numbered vertebrae

One facet articulates with the above number vertebrae

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of the atypical ribs?

***(ribs with either a 1 or a 2 in the numbers)

A

Rib 1: one facet and two subclavian grooves

Rib 2: rough area for serratus anterior

Rib 10: one facet

Ribs 11 and 12: no neck, one facet

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18
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 1?

A

Anterior and middle scalenes

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19
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 2?

A

Posterior Scalene

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20
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 3-5?

A

pectoralis minor

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21
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 6-9?

A

Serratus anterior

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22
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 10-12?

A

Latissimus dorsi

23
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T1-T3?

A

SP and TP are in line

24
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T4-T6?

A

TP is half a segment above the SP

25
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T7-T9?

A

TP is one full segment above SP

26
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T10?

A

TP is one full segment above the SP

**TP of 10 is actually in line with T9 SP

27
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T11?

A

TP is a half a segment above the SP

28
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T12?

A

SP and TP are equal

29
Q

_______ is the age related or wear and tear degenerative changes in the spine

A

Spondylosis

30
Q

What are the findings that are associated with spondylosis?

A

Osteophytes
Disc space narrowing
Pain with movement that resolves with rest

31
Q

Obesity and overuse are common risk factors of ________

A

Spondylosis

32
Q

________ refers to the anterior slippage of one vertebrae relative to the one beneath it

A

Spondylolisthesis

33
Q

What will the Xray of a patient with spondylolisthesis demonstrate?

A

Step off

34
Q

_______ is a fracture in the pars interarticularis of a vertebrae

A

Spondylolysis

35
Q

What will the Xray of a patient with spondylolysis show?

A

Scotty dog: pars interarticularis is the neck

36
Q

What is a positive straight leg raise indicative of?

A

Lumbar disc herniation

L5 and S1 is the most common with a posterolateral displacement of the disc from a weak posterior longitudinal ligament

37
Q

What are the 3 structures that can be narrowed and cause spinal nerve impingement in lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Central spinal canal
Lateral spinal recess
Spinal intervertebral foramen

38
Q

In ______ ________ ________ the back pain is worse with extension and better with flexion

***shopping cart injury and wide gait

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

39
Q

In a functional short leg length discrepancy (acquired, usually from a hip replacement), what is the innominate somatic dysfunction typically?

A

Anterior innominate rotation

40
Q

In an anatomical short leg length discrepancy, what is the innominate somatic dysfunction?

A

Posterior innominate rotation

41
Q

What is the treatment for a short leg in an older patient?

A

1/16 inch every 2 weeks

42
Q

What is the treatment for a short leg of a younger patient?

A

1/8 inch every 2 weeks

43
Q

What is the MAX short leg treatment?

A

1/2 inch every 2 weeks

44
Q

The _______ ligament stabilizes the anterior motion of L5 on the pelvis and is the FIRST ligament injured in an innominate SD

A

Iliolumbar

45
Q

What are the attachments, action, and innervation of the piriformis muscle>

A

Anterior sacrum and greater trochanter attachments

ABduction and EXternal rotation

S1 and S2 innervation

46
Q

What is the main hip flexor?

A

Iliopsoas

47
Q

Name the SD:

positive seated flexion on the ipsilateral side
ASIS is inferior
PSIS is superior
Quads are tight

A

anterior innominate rotation

48
Q

Name the SD:

positive seated flexion on the ipsilateral side
ASIS is superior
PSIS is inferior
Hamstring tightness

A

Posterior innominate rotation

49
Q

Name the SD:

Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side
ASIS is superior
PSIS is superior

A

Superior innominate shear

50
Q

Name the SD:

Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side
ASIS is closer to the umbilicus
Ischial tuberosity is more lateral

A

Inflare

51
Q

Name the SD:
Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side
ASIS is further to the umbilicus
Ischial tuberosity is more medial

A

Outflare

52
Q

During craniosacral flexion, the sacral base rotates ______ and is in ________

A

Posteriorly

Counternutation

53
Q

During craniosacral extension, the sacral base rotates ______ and is in _______

A

Anteriorly

Nutation