Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATR 72-600 > OCA Questions > Flashcards

OCA Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Why is Vr increased for an icing take off?

A

Because V2 is also increased so Vr is increased to reach V2 by the 35ft screen height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Degrees per mile for 15nm arc

A

4*/nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Degrees per mile for 12nm arc

A

5*/nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Degrees per mile for 10nm arc

A

6*/na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Climb gradient calculation

A

Grounds speed x climb gradient (%) = required ROC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Currency requirements

A

Under the AMS:

  • Within 35 days - minimum of one sector (if exceeded - 2 sectors with a training captain or 2 hour sims session is req)
  • Annual line check
  • 6 monthly OCA

On top of that:

  • if absent more than 14 days days the pilot has to complete the recency CBT module.
  • if absent for 45 days or more, the pilot has to complete both a sim session and 2 sectors with a training captain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vis / Cloud base below minimas. Can you continue past the FAF?

A

Yes for the cloud base. No for the visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where do you find TIBA procedures?

A

Rear of the south flip, ENR 1.5-13 (pink pages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is it good to monitor NP on a failed engine?

A

Oil in layering seals can wreck engine on subsequent start up.
An engine that is shut down shouldn’t be turning and creating oil pressure - hence a bigger overhaul required by engineers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Low Vis T/O req >800m

A
  • Both pilots qualified
  • Runway approved. Centerline markings
  • ATPCS working
  • Visibility 14 rows of lights
  • Departure Alt must be notified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Requirement for 2 alternates

A

If forecast indicate that at the ETA of arriving at the destination, the cloud base and or visibility is below the normal approach minima. i.e fog vis below landing minima

  • one alternate that meets 1000ft above the DA/MDA and 5km vis or 2km above minima.
  • two alternates that meet the standard alternate minima.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Wake turbulence for T/O from mid point - heavy

A

3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wake turbulence for T/O from mid point - A380

A

4 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wake turbulence for T/O from start of runway - heavy

A

2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Wake turbulence for T/O from start of runway - Super heavy

A

3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wake turbulence distance between aircraft following each other: Heavy

A

5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Wake turbulence distance between aircraft following each other: Super heavy

A

7nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Speed control for aircraft on a visual and instrument approach

A
  • 4nm for visual approach
  • 5nm for instrument approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the T/O configuration test?

A
  • Pwr MGT T/O
  • Flap 15
  • Pitch trim in green range
  • TLU Low Speed
  • Ail Lock light extinguished
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum fuel reserve

A

30 min of holding at the destination airfield at 1500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What fuel contingency percentage is required for A-B and B-C

A
  • 6% for A-B
  • 3% for B-C
22
Q

Difference between FAF and FAP

A
  • FAP is for ILS
  • FAF is for non precision
23
Q

Response time for a TCAS RA

A

5 sec
2.5 sec for reversal

24
Q

Why do some abnormal procedures have warnings instead of cautions?

A

Require memory items

25
Q

What are the different methods of ensuring terrain clearance?

A
  • Visual
  • Radar
  • Evaluated climb gradients / VORSEC charts
  • SID’s / STAR’s / Approaches
  • AMA (Area minimum altitude)
  • DME steps
  • MSA
26
Q

Altimeter difference tolerance

A

60ft on ground at Sea Leavel or at 8000ft. 120ft between IESI and normal altimeters

27
Q

Where do you find departure alternates

A

In the route guide - under ‘Area’ NZ

28
Q

What is 201nm rule

A

Aircraft must not fly in an area that is more than 201nm from an aerodrome listed in the categorization table (route guide) that meets following requirements:
- Met reporting service
- At least 1 let down aid
- Sufficient lighting

29
Q

Minimum reuse fire service (RFS) category

A

Cat 3. Can be reduced to Cat 1 for no more than 72 hours

30
Q

Can a passenger carry a mobility scooter in the cabin?

A

Yes up to 300whr battery

31
Q

Requirement for extra passenger oxygen carried in the cabin

A

Engineering must make an entry in the tech log. No NOTOC is required

32
Q

Max weight for CAT B circling approach in icing

A

21500kg

33
Q

Cooling time after aborted take off

A

10 mins

34
Q

Minimum Acceleration altitude for approach into 34 Wellington single engine

A

3000ft

35
Q

Sever Icing Definition

A
  • Ice covering a substantial part of the un heated section of the side window
  • Unable to maintain speed
  • Water splashing on window
  • Extensive ice accumulated on on the airframe in areas not normally observed
  • Ice accumulation lower surface of wing aft of the protected area
  • Ice accumulation on spinner further aft than normally observed
36
Q

With both DC Gens failed and the TRU on, what busses are supplied

A

DC EMER BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC&AC STBY BUSSES.

37
Q

Why do you turn off the green hydraulic pump during a dual DC Gen failure?

A

To shed the load of AC power for the TRU to work

38
Q

Why can you not do a flaps 30 landing after a sever ice incident?

A

If there is still ice on the tail plane, setting flaps 30 can cause the airflow over the tail to separate and cause a tail stall. (Recovery is the opposite to a standard stall).

39
Q

During the sever icing checklist, if there is an uncommanded roll when AP is disconnected, what would you do?

A

Stall procedure

40
Q

Low Vis T/O req 400 - 800m

A
  • Both Pilots qualified, Performed by CM1.
  • Runway Approved. Centerline markings, Edge lighting must be on, Secondary power supply must be serviceable.
  • ATPCS on
  • Full runway length used
  • When lined up, 7 rows of lights visible
  • 10kts X wind max
  • Departure alt nominated.
41
Q

Mandatory use of NP 100%

A

Surface wind including gust exceeds 40kts

42
Q

Comms failure on departure with level restriction

A
  • Maintain last assigned level to points specified then climb to maintain cruise alt from flight plan.
  • If no points specified, maintain last assigned level for 5 min, then climb to cruise alt from flight plan.
43
Q

Comms failure on departure under radar vectors

A

Maintain last assigned vector for 2 min, then climb to minimum safe altitude if necessary to maintain terrain clearance then proceed as per flight plan.

44
Q

Vapp calculation

A

Vref
+ 1/3 hwc or gust factor (up to 15kts)

45
Q

What can cause an engine flame out other than mechanical problems

A
  • mismanaged fuel
  • heavy rain or ice
  • heavy turbulence
46
Q

When are the ALD and the LDTA charts used in a flight?

A
  • ALD tables are used following in-flight failure affecting aircraft performance
  • LDTA tables are used during ‘normal operations’ i.e., no in-failure affecting landing performance, however MEL performance penalties can be applied.
47
Q

What is ALD

A

Actual landing distance:

ALD is the actual demonstrated distance necessary to land an aircraft from a point 50ft above the threshold and come to a complete stop, as demonstrated in manufacturer flight testing.

Deceleration is achieved using normal braking, antiskid operative and both PL at GI (no reverse)

ALD represents best performance and is generally only used for abnormal/emergency conditions or to calculate RLD

48
Q

What is RLD

A

Required landing distance:

RLD is ALD factored by 1.43 to comply with Part 121 requirements to achieve a full stop landing within 70% of the total runway length (dry) e.g., with an ALD of 700m the runway available must be 1000m. In wet conditions, 115% of the dry RLD must be available. For contaminated runway operations, either the wet RLD or the manufacturer’s contaminated landing data will be used, whichever is greater

49
Q

What is LDTA

A

Landing distance at time of arrival:

Used in SPS

Rather than use ALD for inflight calculations, most manufacturers now provide performance data that is based on more operationally realistic criteria, in that it provides for normal pilot skill and operating conditions (in comparison, ALD is derived from the certification flight tests conducted by test pilots).

LDTA also includes a 15% safety factor on top of this operational landing distance. Air NZ company policy across all fleets is that inflight data must preserve the 15% safety margin unless an emergency condition necessitates using shorter landing distances (ALD).

50
Q

Can you operate to an aerodrome if there is contaminated runway

A

Yes but only if it has an ATS

51
Q

Can you use SPS to calculate performance after severe ice - and deciding aircraft not clear of ice and a reduced flap landing?

A

No - manually calculate using QRH

52
Q

What restrictions are there when landing in less than 1000m visibility

A
  • Captain only approach.
  • Max crosswind of 15kts

ATR 72-600 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions