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ATR 72-600 > ATPL Flight Test > Flashcards

ATPL Flight Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of flight time

A

From the moment the aircraft starts moving to coming to a stop at the end of the flight.

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2
Q

ATPL Privileges

A
  • Any of the privileges of a private and commercial pilot licence
  • Act as PIC of an aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot and is engaged on an air transport operation or an operation for hire or reward:
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3
Q

CAA Part 121 Definition

A

Aircraft operating on an Air Transport / Commercial Transport operations with seating of more than 30 seats and a payload capacity of more than 3410kg.

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4
Q

List in order of importance the company operational Priorities

A
  1. Safety
  2. Customer Care
  3. OTP
  4. Commercial
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5
Q

What is the company policy with automation?

A
  • Automation must be used at the level most appropriate to enhance the priorities of the company. Using the appropriate level of automation will allow other matters requiring the pilot’s attention to be dealt with more effectively.
  • For manual skill retention, it is permissible to manually fly an approach after consideration of the risk by the PIC.
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6
Q

Define prevailing visibility

A

The maximum visibility covering at least half of the total horizon

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the final fuel reserve?

A

Emergencies?

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8
Q

What radio call should be made if fuel remaining in tanks equals the final fuel reserve?

A
  • If fuel remaining after landing at the aerodrome with the existing clearance is going to be equal to the the fuel reserve - “Minimum Fuel” (no priority)
  • If the fuel after landing will be less than the fuel reserve - “Mayday Mayday Mayday Fuel” (priority)
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9
Q

Can ATC or a Pilot use a VORSEC chart as a basis for holding at an unpublished fix?

A

They may be used by aircraft arriving, departing or transiting the area of cover, but not for aircraft holding at an unpublished fix or holding pattern.

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10
Q

What is the definition of TIBA

A

Traffic Information Broadcast for Aircraft

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11
Q

Should an aircraft that is under radar vectors establish on the LOC if no instructions have been received?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Transponder codes for Emergency, Loss of coms and unlawful interference?

A

Emergency = 7700
Loss of comms = 7600
Unlawful interference = 7500

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13
Q

When can a pilot expect to be issued with an aprox approach time?

A
  • In the event that an aircraft is held enroute or at a location other than the initial approach fix, the aircraft will be given an onwards clearance time from the holding location
  • In the event that an aircraft is instructed to hold at an initial approach fix, if the delay will exceed five minutes an expected approach time will be passed.
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14
Q

En-route to Auckland the HIALS fail - does this affect the CAT 1 ILS minima?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What colour are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue

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16
Q

Runway centre line light are white but transition to red at what distance from the runway end?

A

White - up to 914m
Red and White - 914m - 300m
Red - from 300m

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17
Q

How is the highest elevation on an Approach Chart depicted?

A

A dot with an arrow pointing to it.

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18
Q

Can a visual approach be requested if the cloud base is below the cleared level of the aircraft?

A

No

19
Q

What triggers the use of ‘reduced take off minima procedures.

A

When the weather is below:

  • 300ft and 1500m
    Or
  • the Takeoff minima for that runway
20
Q

When should a pilot report established in a holding pattern?

A

Once the entry procedure is complete

21
Q

What are the time requirements when flying the outbound leg of a holding pattern?

A

1 min below 14000ft

1.5 min above 14000ft

22
Q

With regard to PBN what is the max cross track error/deviation allowed when not turning?

A

Half the PBN. Ie. PBN 2 (enroute) = 1nm deviation allowed

23
Q

With regulatory factors applied, what minimum percentage of the runway will remain with a normal landing on a dry runway?

A
  • Landing distance has to be no more than 70% of the distance available.
  • If wet, the actual landing needs to be 115% to still meet the rule above.
24
Q

The MEL book prescribe time limitations. Does a time limitation include the day a MEL defect is reported?

A

No, it excludes the date of discovery.

Cat A - No time
Cat B - 3 Consecutive days
Cat C - 10 Consecutive days
Cat D - 120 Consecutive days

25
Q

How is transponder mandatory airspace indicated on navigation charts?

A

TM (upper alt) / (lower alt)

26
Q

What does the black shading on IAP chart NAV AID frequency box indicate?

A

Represents the NAVAID that is required for the procedure. Ie. On the VOR/DME 34 WN - the Newlands ndb is not shaded.

27
Q

What ATC separation is provided between IF aircraft in Class G, D, C airspace?

A

Class C:
- IFR and IFR
- IFR and VFR
- IFR and SVFR

Class D:
- IFR and IFR

Class G:
- Nil

28
Q

For wake turbulence separation purposes what is the weight range of aircraft classified in the medium range?

A

7000kg - 136000kg

29
Q

What documents need to be carried on board?

A

Part 121:
- The weather package.
- Load manifest.
- Dangerous goods if applicable.
- Charts / AIP.

Part 91:
- Airworthiness Cert
- Flight Manual
- Tech Log
- Weight and balance (CAA 2173)
- Aircraft radio levels (CAA 2129)

30
Q

Do we require a passenger manifest on every flight?

A

The flight can dispatch without a passenger manifest at the discretion of the PIC as per SOP’s

31
Q

It’s 30​° OAT as you taxi out and the amber icing light begins to flash, with associated master caution. What is your thought process at this time?

A
  • Could be an issue with the probe.
  • Could be some moisture on the probe.
32
Q

Light Signals

A

Green - Cleared to land
Red - Give way and circle
Red flashes - Do not land (unsafe)
Series of white flashes - Land and proceed to apron (expect green to be cleared)
Red / green - Danger

33
Q

How long is the RAIM predictions valid for?

A

72 hours

34
Q

When must you notify ATC of RAIM

A

After 10 min of displaying RAIM or 1 min of DR mode

35
Q

When is RVR reported?

A

When visibility drops below 1500m

36
Q

How Many Satalights are required for:
- 3D
- RAIM
- RAIM prediction and Exclusion

A
  • 3D = 4
  • RAIM = 5
  • RAIM prediction and Exclusion = 6
37
Q

How Long is a SIGMET valid for?

A

4 hours (7 for VAA)

38
Q

What are the main points to cover straight away for a Coms Failure?

A
  • Set 7600
  • Try alternative equipment / check equipment (try ATIS)
  • Transmit position reports and intentions assuming control can hear you by prefixing “transmitting blind”
  • Turn all lights on (Landing lights above transition)
  • Try to communicate with mobile phone (Phone numbers to call in the pink pages)
  • Proceed as per the flight plan

Following actions will be determined depending on what phase of flight your in.

39
Q

What are the main points for TIBA operations?

A
  • Use the frequency instructed by ATS or if none specified, use the frequency map to find the correct frequency.
  • Start a listening watch at least 10 min before entering the airspace.
  • Broadcasts should be made:
    • 10 min before entering or before take-off
    • 10 min prior to - crossing rep points, crossing or joint ATS routes.
    • 10 min intervals.
    • 2 - 5 min before a level change.
    • When starting and reaching level change.
  • Content of the calls refer to pink pages.
  • If collision avoidance is req, descend or climb 500ft unless other maneuvers seem more reasonable.
40
Q

Can you take off in freezing fog / rain / drizzle or snow?

A

No because the aircraft cannot be de - iced within the required holdover time

41
Q

Can you fly through known / forecasted severe ice

A

Yes through forecasted with contingency, no for known severe ice

42
Q

ATPL Currency Requirements

A
  • 3 takeoffs and Landings within 90 days day or night
  • Sim
43
Q

Terrain Clearance either side of an Arc

A

2.5nm either side

44
Q

Minimum Angle of Bank, terrain clearance, and climb gradient for a Missed Approach

A
  • 15 degrees
  • 98ft
  • 2.5%

ATR 72-600 (12 decks)

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