OB4 Flashcards
The most frequent site of tubal pregnancy
A. Ampulla
B. Cornual
C. Isthmic
D. Interstitial
A. Ampulla
The underlying risk factor for most tubal ectopic pregnancy
A. Previous ectopic pregnancy
B. Prior STD infection
C. Peritubal adhesions
D. Abnormal fallopian tube anatomy
D. Abnormal fallopian tube anatomy
Tubal abortion is most common in this type of tubal pregnancy
A. Isthmic
B. Cornual
C. Fimbrial
D. Interstitial
C. Fimbrial
Medical therapy with methotrexate for ectopic pregnancy is not indicated in which condition?
A. Initial serum HCG level is low
B. Absent fetal heart tones
C. Size of the ectopic pregnancy is <3.5 cm
D. Evidence of tubal rupture
D. Evidence of tubal rupture
What is the worst form of primary therapy failure in ectopic pregnancy?
A. Formation of a complex mass
B. Rupture of a persistent ectopic pregnancy
C. Hemoperitoneum formation
D. Abdominal pregnancy
B. Rupture of a persistent ectopic pregnancy
Radical surgery for ectopic pregnancy
A. Salpingotomy
B. Salpingostomy
C. Salpingectomy
D. Salpingo-oophorectomy
C. Salpingectomy
The type of abortion commonly seen in women over 35 years of age
A. Euploid abortion
B. Aneuploid abortion
C. Maternal gametogenesis errors
D. Paternal errors
B. Aneuploid abortion
What is a special risk factor for interstitial pregnancy?
A. Ipsilateral salpingectomy
B. IUD failure
C. Congenital anomalies of the uterus
D. ART
A. Ipsilateral salpingectomy
This type of ectopic pregnancy has a pathogenesis likened to a placenta accreta and carries similar risk for serious hemorrhage
A. PUL
B. CS scar pregnancy
C. Interstitial pregnancy
D. Abdominal pregnancy
B. CS scar pregnancy
This type of pregnancy occurs after an early tubal rupture or abortion with reimplantation
A. CS scar pregnancy
B. Interligamentous pregnancy
C. Cornual pregnancy
D. Abdominal pregnancy
D. Abdominal pregnancy
A 40-year-old G1P0 came in due to the passage of vesicular tissues admixed with blood. She has been amenorrheic for 8 weeks already. What is the strongest risk factor for this patient?
A. Prior H. mole
B. Age
C. Ethnicity
D. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Age
Which of the following types of trophoblast produces HCG and HPL?
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
C. Intermediate trophoblast
D. Trophoblast
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
What is responsible for the exuberant proliferation of trophoblastic growth in complete mole?
A. Excessive maternal genome
B. Excessive paternal and maternal genome
C. Excessive paternal and absence of maternal genome
D. Absence of paternal and excessive maternal genome
C. Excessive paternal and absence of maternal genome
A G6P5 (5005) came in with a sonographic report of a fetus with multicystic placenta. Which of the following would not characterize the fetuses with this condition?
A. Multiple congenital anomalies
B. Mental retardation
C. Severe growth restriction
D. High IQ
D. High IQ
A 42 yo G5P4 (4004) came in for intractable vomiting. She was already 12 weeks amenorrheic. On PE, the uterus was 20 weeks’ size, boggy, no fetal heart tone. Ultrasound was done, a snowstorm pattern and anechoic cystic mass about 8x6 cm was noted at the right adnexal mass. How would you manage this patient?
A. Suction curettage
B. Hysterectomy + cystectomy
C. Hysterectomy alone
D. Total abdominal hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
C. Hysterectomy alone
Medical conditions not associated with moles
A. Anemia
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Cardiomyopathy
Close biochemical surveillance for gestational neoplasia follows hydatidiform mole evacuation. What is the median time for the level of β-hCG titer to normalize for a complete mole?
A. 7 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 14 weeks
A. 7 weeks
A G2P1 underwent suction curettage for H. mole. Post-operatively, which of the contraceptives would be ill-advised for the patient, except?
A. OCP
B. Progestin implant
C. IUD
D. Injectable depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate
C. IUD
A primigravida came in with severe hypogastric pain accompanied by heavy vaginal bleeding. The bleeding stopped after the passage of meaty tissues and blood clots. She is 7 weeks AOG based on her ultrasound 1 week ago. Which of the following findings would suggest a complete abortion?
A. Blood clots are seen grossly
B. Sonography documents a thickened endometrium of 5 mm
C. Closed cervix
D. Sonography documents first an IUP and then later an empty cavity
D. Sonography documents first an IUP and then later an empty cavity
Which of the following would indicate a case of missed abortion in a patient at 10 weeks amenorrhea by ultrasound?
A. A CRL threshold of <7 mm plus absent cardiac activity
B. A gestational sac with no embryo or yolk sac
C. Absence of embryo in a sac with a mean sac diameter (MSD) of ≥ 25 mm
D. A yolk sac diameter of <7 mm in pregnancies with 10 weeks gestation
C. Absence of embryo in a sac with a mean sac diameter (MSD) of ≥ 25 mm
A G3P0 (0020) came in for amenorrhea. She had spontaneous pregnancy losses at 8 and 12 weeks AOG. She underwent curettage for the 2 pregnancy losses. What is the most likely cause if the patient will experience this again?
A. Asherman’s syndrome
B. Infertility
C. APAS syndrome
D. Recurrent pregnancy loss
A. Asherman’s syndrome
Endocrine problem, which if uncontrolled, is a known abortifacient
A. Subclinical hypothyroidism
B. Progesterone deficiency
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes mellitus
A G2P1 (0010) at 16 weeks AOG came in and sought consult due to hypogastric pain. Upon cervical IE, it shows a 2-cm dilation with bulging of membranes. She had spontaneous labor to her previous pregnancy at the same AOG. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Infection
B. Incompetent cervix
C. Trauma
D. Congenital abnormality of the cervix
B. Incompetent cervix
To avoid post-abortal infection, what should be done on a patient scheduled with surgical evacuation?
A. Screening for gonorrhea, syphilis, HIV, Hep B, and chlamydia
B. Assessment of hemoglobin level and Rh status
C. NSAIDs 1 hour prior to procedure
D. Doxycycline 100 mg 2 caps 1 hour prior to procedure
D. Doxycycline 100 mg 2 caps 1 hour prior to procedure