ENT1 Flashcards by Abby David

The following are true, except

A. The oral cavity is anterior to the free margin of the soft palate, the anterior tonsil pillar and base of the tongue
B. The nasopharynx extends from the base of the skull to the level of the soft palate
C. The oropharynx is at this level to the level of
epiglottis, while the line below is the laryngopharynx
or hypopharynx
D. None of the above

D. None of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are subunits of oral cavity, EXCEPT

A. Lip
B. Soft palate
C. Retromolar trigone
D. Oral tongue

B. Soft palate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue, EXCEPT

A. Genioglossus
B. Styloglossus
C. Myloglossus
D. Hyoglossus

C. Myloglossus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is true?

A. Parotid duct is also called Wharton’s duct
B. Stenson’s duct opens later to the 3rd molar
C. Rivinus duct opens adjacent to the lingual frenulum
D. None of the above

D. None of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The voluntary phase of swallowing includes which of the following components?

A. Tongue elevation
B. Cricopharyngeal relaxation
C. Laryngeal elevation
D. Velopharyngeal closure

C. Laryngeal elevation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What cavity is bounded anteriorly and laterally by the alveolar ridge and teeth, superiorly by the hard and soft palate, and posteriorly by the faucial isthmus?

A. Oral cavity
B. Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Hypopharynx

A. Oral cavity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following structures are seen during examination of the oral cavity, except

A. Arytenoid
B. Retromolar trigone
C. Buccal sulcus
D. Anterior tonsillar pillar

A. Arytenoid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Seen during indirect laryngoscopy, except

A. Buccal sulcus
B. Vocal cord
C. Epiglottis
D. Anterior commissure

A. Buccal sulcus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the blood supply of the cervical esophagus?

A. Superior esophageal artery
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. Transverse cervical artery
D. Horizontal cervical artery

B. Inferior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Esophagus lacks this layer

A. Mucosa
B. Submucosa
C. Lamina propria
D. Serosa

D. Serosa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This represents the most common premalignant oral mucosa lesion

A. Erythroplakia
B. Leukoplakia
C. Mucocele
D. Oral thrush

B. Leukoplakia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most common virally induced oropharyngeal ulcerative condition?

A. EBV
B. HSV
C. HPV
D. HHV

B. HSV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most common cause of pharyngitis in adults?

A. Adenovirus
B. Rhinovirus
C. Coronavirus
D. GABHS

B. Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Patient DG presented with fever, malaise and sore throat. PE: exudative pharyngitis with erythema, tonsillar hypertrophy, and cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis?

A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Acute pharyngitis
D. Diphtheriae

C. Acute pharyngitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following antibiotics causes maculopapular rash in patients with EBV?

A. Streptomycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Azithromycin

B. Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are the natural reservoirs of the GABHS, EXCEPT

A. Skin
B. Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Hypopharynx

D. Hypopharynx

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In foreign body ingestion, which part does the foreign body commonly lodge?

A. Oral cavity
B. Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Hypopharynx

D. Hypopharynx

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What causes coagulative necrosis in caustic ingestion?

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Alkali
D. Neutral solution

A. Acid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which causes liquefactive necrosis from caustic ingestion?

A. Acid
B. Base
C. Alkali
D. Neutral solution

C. Alkali

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the treatment for foreign body ingestion?

A. Bronchoscopy
B. Rigid esophagoscopy
C. Watchful waiting
D. Induced vomiting

B. Rigid esophagoscopy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following paranasal sinuses are present at birth?

A. Maxillary and sphenoid
B. Maxillary and ethmoid
C. Maxillary and sphenoid
D. Maxillary only

B. Maxillary and ethmoid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are components of your internal nasal valve, EXCEPT

A. Nasal septum
B. Upper nasal cartilage
C. Lower nasal cartilage
D. Inferior turbinate

C. Lower nasal cartilage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Inferior meatus receives drainage from

A. Frontal sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Anterior ethmoid
D. Nasolacrimal duct

D. Nasolacrimal duct

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following is true about the Kiesselbach plexus, EXCEPT

A. Most common cause of posterior epistaxis
B. Supplied by the anterior ethmoid arteries
C. Supplied by the sphenopalatine arteries
D. Supplied by the greater palatine arteries

A. Most common cause of posterior epistaxis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A pneumatized ethmoid cell extending to the maxillary sinus is also called A. Bulla ethmoidalis B. Haller cells C. Onodi cells D. Agger nasi

B. Haller cells

Which of the following contributes to the taste perception in olfactory function? A. Orthonasal flow B. Retronasal airflow C. Lingual airflow D. Oronasal airflow

B. Retronasal airflow

The first relay in olfactory system A. Olfactory neuroepithelium B. Olfactory bulb C. Tuft cells D. Anterior insula

B. Olfactory bulb

The following are associated with suggestive signs of nasal bone fracture, EXCEPT A. Epistaxis B. Nasal ecchymosis C. Nasal deformity D. Bone crepitus

D. Bone crepitus

Most common ENT emergency A. Epistaxis B. Rhinorrhea C. Nasal bone fracture D. Nasal congestion

A. Epistaxis

Diagnosis of rhinosinusitis A. Fever, halitosis and headache B. Facial pain and ear pain C. Facial congestion, dental pain and cough D. Facial pain

C. Facial congestion, dental pain and cough

Most common epithelial malignant neoplasm of the nose and paranasal sinuses A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Esthesioneuroblastoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

A 15-year-old male consult with left sided epistaxis and nasal obstruction. CT and MRI revealed nasal mass originating from pterygopalatine fossa and Holman-Miller sign. Diagnosis would be A. Inverted papilloma B. Juvenile angiofibroma C. Olfactory neuroblastoma D. Hemangioma

B. Juvenile angiofibroma

Osteomas are benign tumors that most frequently involve which sinuses? A. Frontal and ethmoid B. Frontal and maxilla C. Ethmoid and maxilla D. Maxillary and sphenoid

A. Frontal and ethmoid

Most frequently fractured facial bone A. Body of the mandible B. Nasal bone C. Condyle D. Angle of the mandible

B. Nasal bone

Following the algorithm for the management of nasal trauma, the next step for patients with nasal trauma <50% nasal bridge width deviation would be A. Closed nasal reduction B. No management, schedule next week C. Septoplasty D. Open nasal reduction

A. Closed nasal reduction

The following medications predispose the patient to epistaxis, except A. Aspirin B. Tranexamic acid C. NSAIDs D. Enoxaparin

B. Tranexamic acid

Nasal placodes develop during A. 4th week of development B. 6th week of development C. 8th week of development D. 10th week of development

A. 4th week of development

The nasal ala comes from the A. Frontonasal prominence B. Medial nasal prominence C. Lateral nasal prominence D. Nasolacrimal groove

C. Lateral nasal prominence

The roof of the nasal cavity is bounded by the following, EXCEPT A. Nasal bone anteriorly B. Frontal bone C. Cribriform base of the ethmoid D. Palatal processes of the maxillary

D. Palatal processes of the maxillary

True of the nasal septum, except A. It divides the nose into 2 cavities B. It is cartilaginous posteriorly C. It is comprised of nasal crest of the maxilla inferiorly D. It is comprised of nasal crest of the palatine bones inferiorly

B. It is cartilaginous posteriorly

Superficial layer of the deep cervical fascia also known as A. Prevertebral layer B. Visceral layer C. Investing layer D. Alar layer

C. Investing layer

This space is also known as “Lincoln highway” A. Retropharyngeal space B. Danger space C. Prevertebral space D. Carotid space

D. Carotid space

A potential space that lies anterior to the alar fascia of the deep layer and posterior to the buccopharyngeal fascia of the middle layer A. Carotid space B. Danger space C. Retropharyngeal space D. Prevertebral space

C. Retropharyngeal space

A space that extends from the clivus of the skull base to the coccyx A. Prevertebral space B. Carotid space C. Danger space D. Alar space

A. Prevertebral space

This is the anterior border of the occipital triangle A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Trapezius Posterior border C. Inferior border of the omohyoid D. Anterior border of digastric

A. Sternocleidomastoid

Most common congenital neck masses A. Dermoid B. Cystic hygroma C. Branchial cleft cysts D. Thyroglossal duct cyst

D. Thyroglossal duct cyst

Dysontogenetic tumors characterized by the presence of cellular elements from all three germ layers A. Teratoma B. Dermoid C. Hamartoma D. Cystic hygroma

A. Teratoma

Which of the following is true of thyroglossal duct? A. Most commonly seen in the lateral aspect of the neck B. FNAB is needed to establish the diagnosis C. Elevation upon protrusion of the tongue D. Pathogenesis is due to obliteration of the thyroglossal duct

C. Elevation upon protrusion of the tongue

Composed mainly of ectodermal elements with complete absence of entodermal elements A. Teratoma B. Cystic hygroma C. Dermoids D. Hemangiomas

C. Dermoids

Most common type of brachial cleft cyst A. Type 1A B. Type 1B C. Type 2 D. Types 3 and 4

C. Type 2

The most common immunoglobulin in the nasal mucosa. A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA

D. IgA

Structure that divides the anterior and posterior triangle. A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Strap muscles C. Trapezius muscle D. Platysma

A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

The lower part of the neck receives most of its blood supply from what structure? A. Internal carotid artery B. Common carotid artery C. Thyrocervical trunk D. External carotid artery

C. Thyrocervical trunk

Most common cause of anterior neck mass in the pediatric age group. A. Neoplastic B. Inflammatory C. Idiopathic D. Congenital

B. Inflammatory

This determines the appearance of the nasal tip and shape of the nares. A. Accessory cartilages B. Lateral cartilages C. Nasal bone D. Alar cartilages

D. Alar cartilages

Most common malignant neoplasm of the salivary gland. A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Acinic cell carcinoma

C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

The nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses are covered by what type of epithelium? A. Pseudostratified columnar B. Stratified squamous C. Simple columnar D. Simple squamous

A. Pseudostratified columnar

The nasolacrimal duct drains into which meatus? A. Inferior B. Supreme C. Superior D. Middle

A. Inferior

Infrahyoid muscles include the following except: A. Sternohyoid, sternothyroid B. Thyrohyoid C. Mylohyoid D. Omohyoid

C. Mylohyoid

Most common type of branchial cleft cystfistula. A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3

B. 2

Minor salivary glands drain into this structure. A. Sublingual duct B. Wharton's duct C. Stensen's duct D. Duct of Rivinus

D. Duct of Rivinus

Which of the following is/are correct with regards to hypoglossal nerve? A. Deep to mylohyoid muscle B. Superficial to mylohyoid muscle C. Deep to hyoglossus D. Superficial to hyoglossus muscle

A. Deep to mylohyoid muscle D. Superficial to hyoglossus muscle

The following may be a differential diagnosis in a patient that presents with rhinophonia clausa or hyponasal speech. A. Stroke B. Intranasal mass C. Cleft palate D. Cleft lip

B. Intranasal mass

The parotid duct orifice is located next to which molar? A. 2nd mandibular B. 2nd maxillary C. 1st maxillary D. 1st mandibular

B. 2nd maxillary

Most common benign neoplasm of the salivary gland. A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Warthin's tumor C. Mucocele D. Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

A. Pleomorphic adenoma

Most common site of epistaxis in children. A. Nasal turbinate B. Little's area C. Antero-superior area of the septum D. Woodruff’s plexus

B. Little's area

The standard of care in the diagnosis of thyroid masses. A. Fine needle cytology B. Core needle biopsy C. Excision biopsy D. Incision biopsy

A. Fine needle cytology

What is another name for pre-tracheal space? A. Carotid space B. Anterior visceral space C. Retropharyngeal

B. Anterior visceral space

The superior border of the submandibular triangle is by what muscle? A. Anterior belly of digastric muscle B. Posterior belly of the digastric muscle C. Superior border of the mandible D. Inferior border of the mandible

D. Inferior border of the mandible

Which of the following is the common site of squamous cell carcinoma? A. Upper lip B. Ventral surface of tongue C. Hard palate D. Lower lip

B. Ventral surface of tongue

Sensation of buccal mucosa is supplied by what branch of the cranial nerve? A. III B. VI C. IV D. V

D. V

What is the cardinal symptom in cervical lymphadenitis? A. Neck pain B. Otalgia C. Neck mass D. Fever

C. Neck mass

Which of the following is a local cause of epistaxis? A. Vascular disease B. Infectious disease C. Neoplasia D. Platelet disorder

C. Neoplasia

This is a salivary gland disease which is caused by diuretics, antihistaminic, anti-depression: A. Warthin tumor B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. Sialadenitis D. Xerostomia

D. Xerostomia

The shape of our nose is defined by which of the following structure/s? 1. Alar cartilage 2. Nasal bone 3. Lateral nasal cartilage 4. Medial nasal cartilage

1. Alar cartilage 2. Nasal bone 3. Lateral nasal cartilage

The lateral boundary of the nasal cavity: 1. Maxilla 2. Palatine bone 3. Ethmoid bone 4. Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone

1. Maxilla 3. Ethmoid bone

Which of the following condition is preneoplastic lesion? A. Fibroma B. Leukoplakia C. Pyogenic granuloma

B. Leukoplakia

In the olfactory projection pathway, the information is sent from the olfactory cortex of temporal bone to the orbitofrontal cortex via what structure? A. Hypothalamus B. Amygdala C. Thalamus D. Limbic system

C. Thalamus

Which of the following is normally non-palpable medial structure of the neck: A. Cricoid cartilage B. Thyroid cartilage C. Thyroid gland D. Hyoid bone

C. Thyroid gland

Which of the following is correct with regards to hypoglossal nerve? A. Deep to hyoglossus muscle B. Passes below the styloglossus muscle C. Superficial to mylohyoid muscle

B. Passes below the styloglossus muscle

Nasal polyposis requires surgical treatment if it is grade: A. Grade 4 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3 D. Grade 1

C. Grade 3

The only imaging modality that is accepted if chronic sinusitis is suspected: A. MRI B. Ultrasonography C. Skull x-ray D. CT scan

D. CT scan