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LMC Ultrasound > OB 2 FINAL (PP) > Flashcards

OB 2 FINAL (PP) Flashcards

1
Q

What is Menarche?

A

Onset of menstruation

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2
Q

What is Menopause?

A

Stop of menstruation

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3
Q

What is Metrorrhea?

A

irregular bleeding

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4
Q

What days does menstruation occur in the cycle?

A

1-4 days

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5
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of the endometrial canal during menstruation?

A

hypoechoic line

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6
Q

What is a corpus luteum?

A

small endocrine structure that develops in a ruptured ovarian follicle.

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7
Q

What hormones does a corpus luteum secrete?

A

progesterone and estrogen

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8
Q

What is the broad ligament?

A

double fold of peritoneum that covers the uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes

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9
Q

what are the round ligaments?

A

Between layers of broad ligament In front and below fallopian tubes

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10
Q

What are the cardinal ligaments?

A

cervix support with uterosacral

continuation of the broad ligaments that extend across the pelvic floor laterally

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11
Q

Where is the Posterior Cul-de-sac?

A

between the uterus and rectum

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12
Q

What are other names for the posterior cul-de-sac?

A

pouch of douglas

rectouterine pouch

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13
Q

Where is the anterior cul-de-sac?

A

between the bladder and uterus

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14
Q

what is another name for the anterior cul-de-sac?

A

vesicouterine pouch

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15
Q

what is the blood supply to the vagina?

A

anterior uterine artery

posterior branch of internal iliac

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16
Q

where is the space of retzius?

A

Between the anterior bladder wall and pubic symphysis

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17
Q

what is another name for the space of retzius?

A

retropubic space

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18
Q

what is the blood supply to the ovaries?

A

aorta
ovarian arteries
uterine arteries

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19
Q

what do the ovarian veins drain into?

A

left vein: drains into left renal vein

right vein: drains into IVC

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20
Q

what is the blood supply to the fallopian tubes?

A

ovarian arteries and veins

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21
Q

where are arcuate vessels found?

A

along the peripheral edge of the uterus

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22
Q

what is the embryology of the uterus and vagina?

A

they both develop from the mullerian ducts between 7-12weeks

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23
Q

what are the 3 layers of the uterus?

A

perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

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24
Q

what are the 2 layers of the endometrium?

A 
zona functionalis (superficial functional layer) 
zona basalis (deep basil layer)
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25
Q

what is the songraphic appererance of the endometrium?

A

echogenic to hypoechoic, depending on cycle

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26
Q

What layer sheds during menses?

A

zona functionalis

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27
Q

What is the size of ovaries?

A

3x2x2

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28
Q

What supports the ovary posteriorly?

A

broad ligament via mesovarium

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29
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of the ovary?

A

homogeneous, with an echogenic medulla

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30
Q

what supports the ovary medially?

A

ovarian ligament

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31
Q

what supports the ovary laterally?

A

suspensory ligament (infundibulopelvic)

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32
Q

what is ovarian torsion?

A

complete or partial rotation of the ovary, cutting off the blood supply

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33
Q

what day does ovulation occur?

A

day 14

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34
Q

what is the menstrual cycle?

A

menstraution = 1-4days
proliferative phase = 5-14 days
secretory phase = 15-28 days

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35
Q

what is the ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase = 1-14 days

luteal phase = 15-28 days

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36
Q

what is the size of a graafian follicle?

A

2cm

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37
Q

what is the rate of growth of a graafian follicle?

A

2-3mm per day

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38
Q

what is the length of the fallopian tubes?

A

10-12cm

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39
Q

what are the sections of the fallopain tube?

A

infundibulum
ampulla
isthums
inerstitial portion

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40
Q

what section of the fallopian tube is the widest?

A

ampulla

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41
Q

what are cysts in the cervix called?

A

nabothian cysts

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42
Q

what are cysts in the vagina called?

A

gartners duct cysts

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43
Q

what are the most common tumors of the uterus?

A

fibroids (leiomyomas)

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44
Q

where can fibroids form?

A

submucosal- endometrial cavity; irregular or heavy periods
intramural - most common site; myometrium
subserosal- peritoneal surface of uterus; pedunculate and appearing as extrauterine mass

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45
Q

what is adenomyosis?

A

nests of endometrial tissue within the myometrium

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46
Q

what can cause calcifications within the uterus?

A

fibroids and arcuate arteries

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47
Q

what is the size of a vaginal cuff?

A

2cm

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48
Q

who can acquire endometritis?

A

postpartum patients, occurs with PID too

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49
Q

what is the most common ovarian mass?

A

simple ovarian cysts

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50
Q

simple ovarian cysts in postmenopausal women can be what size

A

less than 5cm before consider malignant

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51
Q

what are thecomas

A

benign, unilateral mass seen in postmenopausal women

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52
Q

what pelvic organ in the most involved with metastatic disease?

A

ovaries

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53
Q

what % of postmenopausal bleeding is endometrial carcinoma?

A

10%

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54
Q

what is the most common mass during pregnancy?

A

corpus leutal cyst

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55
Q

what is another term for endometriomas?

A

chocolate cysts

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56
Q

where are endometriomas commonly located?

A

ovaries, cul-de-sac, retrovaginal septum, peritoneal surface of posterior wall of uterus

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57
Q

what is the most common benign tumor of the ovary?

A

dermoid

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58
Q

what is a mucinous cyst adenoma?

A

Epithelial tumor lined with mucinous elements of endodermis and bowel
Typically larger than serous cyst adenoma
Simple, septated cyst with differing echogenicity

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59
Q

what is a serous cyst adenomas?

A

2nd most common benign tumor of ovary Smaller than mucinous cystadenomas Unilateral, septated, irregular borders

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60
Q

what is another name for PCOS?

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome

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61
Q

what is PCOS?

A

disorder with chronic anovulation
bilateral enlarged round ovaries
teens-twenties
amenorrhea, obesity, infertile, hirsutism

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62
Q

what is salpingitis?

A

infected fallopian tubes

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63
Q

septate uterus can cause what?

A

infertility

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64
Q

In the first trimester, testing is done to identify..

A

pattern of biochemical markers associated with plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and free BhCG

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65
Q

PAPP-A and free BhCG values are used in conjunction with an ultrasound performed between 11 and 14 weeks, what is it?

A

Nuchal translucency

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66
Q

First trimester lab values give a more accurate calculation to determine if a child has..

A

chromosomal abnormalities

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67
Q

Second trimester screening can be performed with..

A

maternal serum quad screen lab and a targeted ultrasound examination

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68
Q

What does quad screen look at?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Unconjugated estriol
Inhibin-A

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69
Q

Chorionic villus sampling

A

Ultrasound directed biopsy of the placenta or chorionic villi that is an alternative test used to obtain a fetal karyotype by the culturing of fetal cells similar to an amniocentesis
*risk of fetal loss 1-3%

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70
Q

When is CVS used?

A

10-12 weeks

*Transcervically or transabominally

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71
Q

Embryoscopy

A

A specialized prenatal test that permits the direct viewing of the developing embryo using transcervical endoscope inserted into the extracoelomic cavity during the first trimester

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72
Q

Amniocentesis

A

First used to relieve polyhydramnios, predict Rg isoimmunization, and document fetal lung maturity.

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73
Q

Why is amniocentesis performed?

A

To determine karyotype, lung maturity, and Rh condition

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74
Q

Optimal collection sites for amniocentesis

A

Away from the fetus, placenta, umbilical cord, and maternal midline

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75
Q

What is the major protein in the fetal serum that is produced by the yolk sac in early gestation and later by the fetal liver?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

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76
Q

Where can AFP be found?

A

Fetal spine
Gastrointestinal tract
Liver
Kidney

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77
Q

AFP can be measured in what two things?

A

Maternal serum (MSAFP) or amniotic fluid (AFAFP)

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78
Q

Reasons for high levels of AFP

A 
Neural tube defects
Encepaloceles
Kidney lesions
Placental lesions
Heart failure
Liver diseases in mother
Cystic adenomatoid malformations
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79
Q

MSAFP levels increase with..

A

advancing gestational age and peak from 15-18 weeks, then decrease with fetal age

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80
Q

Which two abdominal wall defect produce elevations of AFP? Which one is higher?

A

Omphalocele

Gastroschisis; higher level

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81
Q

what is hydrops

A

excessive fluid within fetal body cavities

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82
Q

What is nonimmume hydrops

A

hydrops that is not related to Rh factor

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83
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of hydrops

A 
scalp edema 
pleural effusion 
pericardial effusion 
ascites 
polyhydramnios 
thick placenta
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84
Q

Hydrops can be caused by

A

Fetal anemia

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85
Q

what are sonographic markers for downs

A 
thick NT/nuchal fold 
choroid plexus cysts 
echogengic bowel 
pylectasis 
short long bones 
echogenic intracardiac focus
absent nasal bone 
omphalocele talipes 
micrognathia 
diaphragmatic hernia
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86
Q

Another name for trisomy 21

A

Down syndrome; most common chromosomal disorder, associated with maternal age

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87
Q

how often does trisomy 21 occur

A

1/600 births

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88
Q

Another name for trisomy 18

A

Edwards syndrome; second most common chromosomal disorder

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89
Q

how often does trisomy 18 occur

A

3/10,000 births

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90
Q

what are sonographic markers for Edwards

A 
heart defects 
clench hands 
omphalocele 
micrognathia
talipes 
choroid plexus cysts 
strawberry head 
cleft lip & palate 
diaphragmatic hernia 
renal anomalies
cerebellar hypoplasia
meningomyelocele
SUA
IUGR and hydramnios
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91
Q

Another name for trisomy 13

A

Patau’s syndrome

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92
Q

how often does trisomy 13 occur

A

1/5,000 births

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93
Q

what are sonographic markers for Pataus

A 
holoprosenchephaly-40%
polydactyly 
talipes 
cleft lip & palate 
renal anomalies 
menignomylocele 
heart defects
omphalocele
micrognathia
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94
Q

what are sonographic makers for Turners Syndrome

A 
cystic hygroma 
heart defects 
coarctaion of the aorta 
hydrops 
renal anomalies
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95
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A

XO syndrome-occurs in females only
High risk for utero demise
Survivors have ovarian dysgenesis and short stature

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96
Q

what commonly causes triploidy

A

1 ova fertilized by 2 sperm

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97
Q

Complete extra set of chromosomes

A

triploidy

*majority spontaneously abort prior to 20 weeks

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98
Q

what are sonographic markers for Triploidy

A 
heart defects 
omphalocele 
renal anomalies 
cranial defects 
facial defects
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99
Q

what is VACTERL

A 
Group of complex anomalies
vertebral defects 
anal atresia 
cardiac anomalies 
transesophageal fistula 
renal anomalies 
limb dysplasia
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100
Q

what diseases can happen to pregnant women

A

diabetes hypertension (chronic or pregnancy induced)

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101
Q

hypertensive mothers can have what size placenta

A

small

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102
Q

Insulin-dependent diabetes mothers are at an increased risk for

A

early and late trimester pregnancy loss

congenital anomalies

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103
Q

what are some sonographic markers in diabetic pregnancies

A 
polyhydramnios 
macrosomia 
caudal regression syndrome-most common 
NT defects 
heart defects 
renal anomalies
 GI defects
 single umbilical artery
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104
Q

what is preeclampsia

A

high blood pressure that develops with proteinuria or edema

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105
Q

what is eclampsia

A

mother can develop seizures and coma

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106
Q

maternal obesity can cause what type of defects

A

neural tube defects

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107
Q

Uterien fibroids may cause

A

Pain or premature labor, delivery complications depending upon location

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108
Q

Uterine contractions can resolve in how many minutes?

A

20 to 30 mins

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109
Q

Uterine contractions can appear as what on ultrasound?

A

Focal mass and mimic a fibroid

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110
Q

at what week is it still considered preterm labor

A

37 weeks

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111
Q

Zygocity

A

number of ovum fertilized-monozygotic and dizygotic

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112
Q

Chorionicity

A

number of placentas-monochorioinc and dizygotic

113
Q

Amnionicity

A

number of amniotic sacs

114
Q

what are dizygotic twins

A

2 separate ova fertilized by 2 separate sperm

115
Q

what are monozygotic twins

A

1 fertilized egg that divides into 2 fetuses

116
Q

when does Di-Di twinning occur

A

division of zygote at 1-3 days

117
Q

when does Di-Mono twinning occur

A

division of zygote at 4-8 days

118
Q

when does Mono-Mono twinning occurs

A

division of zygote at 8 days

119
Q

when does conjoined twinning occurs

A

division of zygote after 13 days

120
Q

what percentage of pregnancies began with twins and end with a singleton

A

70%

121
Q

what is a vanishing twin

A

early fetal demise that is absorbed

122
Q

what is fetus papyraceous

A

fetal death that occurs after the fetus has reached a certain growth that is too large to resorb into the uterus

123
Q

what is poly-oli sequence

A

“stuck twin” occurs around 16-26 weeks

one twin has polyhydramnios the other has oligohydramnios

124
Q

what is twin to twin transfusion

A

an arteriovenous shunt within the placenta the arterial blood of 1 is pumped into the venous system of 2

125
Q

what happens to the fetuses in twin to twin

A

the donor twin becomes anemic and growth restricted (oligo, pulmonary hypoplasia, renal hypoplasia) poor outcome
the recipient grows too quickly, too much blood, has polyhydramnios, can have heart failure, and hydropic

126
Q

what type of twinning is twin to twin transfustion

A

monochorionic diamniotic

127
Q

what is acradiac twin

A

twin abnormality where 1 twin develops without an upper half, occurs in monochorionic twins

128
Q

what are the 5 different locations for conjoined twins

A 
thoracopagus- joined at chest
omphalopagus- joined at abdomen
craniopagus- joined at head
pygopagus- joined at butt
ischiopagus- joined at hip
129
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

Perihepatic inflammation that can result from PID or endometritis

130
Q

Another name for 4D

A

active matrix arrays

131
Q

What was the first company to actively use the 3D technology in 1989?

A

Kretztechnik AG

132
Q

Basic features of 3D ultrasound

A

Represent the structure, texture, and form a specific area of interest

133
Q

Steps to obtain a 3D image

A
  • Echo-data must process along an ultrasound beam
  • The ultrasound beam must move over the area of interest
  • Translation and rotation of the axis from the ultrasound beam and the time of the reflected sound waves creates the 3D data set, which is converted into distance information by the assumption of the speed of sound within the area of interest
  • Storage of the data and gap-filling procedure
  • Visualization of the data obtained
134
Q

What are the 2 types of 3D acquisitions

A

Manual “free hand”

Automatic- more accurate

135
Q

What are the 2 types of 3D imaging modes

A

Multiplanar reconstruction mode

Volume rendering mode

136
Q

What is multiplanar reconstruction

A

First method of 3D imaging
Movement of the intersection planes throughout the 3D volume and rotating the image planes; the sonographer or physician has the liberty to generate anatomic views from an infinite number of perspectives

137
Q

What is volume rendering

A

This method is an extension of the planar reconstruction method, because the additional image processing techniques are applied to a region of interest (ROI) within the 3D volume data set

138
Q

What are the 2 types of 3D rendering modes

A

Surface rendering

Transparent rendering

139
Q

What is surface rendering

A

Displays surface detail of anatomy Ex. Fetal face

140
Q

What is transparent rendering

A

Looks beyond the surface anatomy to reveal structures located within
Sometimes called x-ray mode
not useful in OB imaging

141
Q

What are other modes to transparent rendering

A

Maximum
Minimum
X-ray

142
Q

When does the umbilical cord form

A

Develops in the first 5 weeks

143
Q

Where does the umbilical cord rise from

A

Omphalomesenteric (yolk stalk) and allantios ducts

144
Q

How long are the intestines herniated outside the fetal abdomen

A

From 7-10 weeks

145
Q

What covers the umbilical cord

A

Whartons jelly-myxomatous connective tissue

146
Q

What is the diameter of the umbilical cord

A

1-2cm

147
Q

What is the normal length of the umbilical cord

A

40-60 cm

148
Q

What is the ductus venosus

A

Conduit between the portal system and systemic veins

149
Q

What is a short cord

A

Less than 35cm

150
Q

What is a long cord

A

Greater than 80cm

151
Q

What are true knots

A

Knot is formed when a loop of cord is slipped over the fetal head or shoulders

152
Q

What are true knots associated with

A

Long cords
Polyhydramnios
IUGR
Monoamniotic twins

153
Q

What is a velamentous cord insertion

A

Cord inserts into the membranes before the placenta

154
Q

What is the occurrence of cleft lip and palate with different races

A

Blacks 1/3,000
Whites 1/600
Asians 1/350
Native Americans 1/150-250

155
Q

What percentage of cleft lips are complete? unilateral?

A

complete cleft lip- 85%

unilateral- 70%

156
Q

What is exophtalmia

A

Abnormal protrusion of the eyeballs

157
Q

What is the most common neck mass

A

Cystic hygroma

158
Q

Rare neck lesions

A 
Cervical meningomyelocele
Hemaniomas
Teratomas
Goiter
Sarcoma
Metastatic adenopathy
159
Q

What is anencephaly

A

Most common neural tube defect
Absence of the brain
Caused by the failure of closure of the neural tube at the cranial end
Lethal

160
Q

What is the occurrence of anencephaly

A

1/1,200

161
Q

What are cephaloceles

A

A neural tube defect in which the meninges or meninges and brain herniate thru a defect in the calvarium

162
Q

What abnormalities associate with cephaloceles

A

Trisomy 13

Meckel Gruber syndrome

163
Q

What can cause a celphalocele

A

Amniotic band syndrome

164
Q

What is a encephalocele

A

A herniation of the meninges and brain thru a defect

165
Q

What abnormalities associate with encephaloceles

A

Meckel Gruber

166
Q

Meckel Gruber syndrome is commonly identified by what sonographic findings

A

cephaloceles/ or encephaloceles
polydactytly
polycystic kidneys

167
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation demonstrates

A

Banana shaped cerebellum
scalloping frontal bones
lemon shaped head

168
Q

What are the sonographic findings of spina bifida

A

Splaying of posterior ossification center
Meningocele-protrusion of a saclike structure that may be anechoic
Meningomylocele- contains neural elements
Cleft in skin
Intracranial malformations

169
Q

What kind of intracranial malformations could be present with spina bifida

A

Lemon head-flattening of the frontal bones
Banana cerebellum
Absent cisterna magna
Ventriculomegaly

170
Q

Abnormalities linked with ventricular dilation include

A

aqueductal stenosis,
arachnoid cysts,
and vein of Galen aneurysms.

171
Q

Common causes of ventriculomegaly include

A

spina bifida, and encephaloceles

172
Q

When is a ventricle considered dilated

A

Greater than 10mm

173
Q

What is the most important determinant for fetal viability?

A

Pulmonary development

174
Q

Fetuses younger than ____ are considered non viable, due to pulmonary development

A

24 weeks

175
Q

how do you evaluate the fetal chest

A

size
shape
symmetry

176
Q

Average cardiac axis is

A

45 degrees

177
Q

Lung echogenicity

A

homogenous and moderately echogenci

178
Q

What two problems can complicate the exact determination of echogenicity

A

Overlying ribs

Acoustic enhancement produced by blood in the heart

179
Q

ultrasound cannot asses what in the fetal chest

A

lung maturity

180
Q

what is congetntial cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)

A

abnormal cystic growths within the bronchial trees that can cause a mediastinal shift, hydrops and polyhydramnios

181
Q

how many types of CCAM are there

A

3

182
Q

what is type 1 CCAM

A

several large cysts that replace normal lung tissue
2-10cm
favorable outcome

183
Q

what is type 2 CCAM

A

lesions that have multiple small cysts < 1cm
poor outcome
associated with fetal and or chromosomal abnormalities in 25% of cases-renal agenesis, pulmonary anomalies, diaphragmatic hernia

184
Q

what is type 3 CCAM

A

large bulky noncystic mass

echo-dense masses of the entire lung lobe

185
Q

Common findings with CCAM

A

Mediastinal shift
Hydramnios
Hydrops

186
Q

Steps to take when CCAM is present

A
  • Determine the number and size of cysts •Check for mediastinal shift
  • Identify and asses the size of lungs
  • Look for hydrops
  • Exclude cardiac masses and other fetal anomalies
187
Q

what are bronchogenic cysts

A

Occurs within the mediastinum or lung

Most common lung mass detected prenatally that is a small circumscribed masses without a mediastinal shift

188
Q

what is pulmonary hypoplasia

A

poor or reduced lung growth causing small, inadequate lungs

189
Q

what is are common causes for pulmonary hypoplasia

A

prolonged oligohydramnios or a small thoracic cavity

190
Q

what % of neonates die from pulmonary hypoplasia

A

80%

191
Q

Severity of pulmonary hypoplasia depends on what three things

A

When it occurred in the pregnancy
Its severity
Duration

192
Q

what is pleural effusion

A

accumulation of fluid within the pleural cavity appearing isolated or secondary to multiple fetal anomalies

193
Q

if pleural effusion is seen, what structures should be carefully search

A

lungs, heart and diaphragm to rule out associated abnormalities

194
Q

what is the occurrence of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

1/2,000 to 1/5,000

195
Q

What is congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

an opening in the pleuroperitoneal membrane

196
Q

at how many weeks is the diaphragm intact

A

by the end of the 8th week

197
Q

what is the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia

A

hernias 90% of the time are thru the foramen of Bochdalek

198
Q

where is the foramen of Bochdalek located

A

posterior and laterally

199
Q

what are the 2 most common anterior abdominal wall defects

A

gastroschisis

omphalocele

200
Q

what process helps the embryo transform itself into a cylindrical shape

A

“folding”

201
Q

when do the intestines return to the abdominal cavity

A

12 weeks

202
Q

what is an omphalocele

A

central abdominal wall defect with eviscerated bowel and or liver into the base of the umbilical cord

203
Q

what forms the membrane that surrounds the omphalocele

A

peritoneum and amnion

204
Q

what can occur with omphaloceles

A 
ascites 
polyhydramnios 
complex cardia diseases 
GI defects 
NT defects 
genitourinary tract anomalies 
diaphragmatic hernia
205
Q

what is gastroschisis

A

an opening in the abdominal wall with a herniation of bowel, no membranous covering the herniation of the stomach and genitrourinary organs happen infrequently

206
Q

what causes gastroschisis

A

atrophy of the right umbilical vein or disruption of the omphalomesenteric artery

207
Q

how big are gastroschisis defects

A

2-4cm located to the right of a normal cord insertion

208
Q

gastroschisis causes an elevation in what lab

A

MSAFP

209
Q

markedly dilated bowel in gastroschisis may suggest what

A

infarction or bowel atresia

210
Q

What is amniotic band syndrome

A

is the rupture of the amnion, which leads to entrapment of entanglement of fetal parts by the “sticky” chorion

211
Q

early entrapment in amniotic bands can lead to what

A

severe craniofacial defects

internal malformations

212
Q

associated anomalies associated with amniotic band syndrome

A

anomalies of the limbs, cranium, face, thorax, spine, and abdominal wall

213
Q

limb body wall complex involves what other defects

A

cranial defects
facial clefts
body-wall defect of thorax / abdomen (or both)
limb defects

214
Q

scoliosis is associated with what type of defect

A

limb body wall defect

215
Q

what side is more common to be affected by limb body wall

A

left side 3x more likely than right

216
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of haustral folds

A

thin linear echoes with the lumen of the colon

217
Q

what is the normal diameter of the colon at full term

A

14-18mm

*later on the colon diameter increases and the fold become longer and thicker

218
Q

what is the appearance of meconium as it grows near term

A

increasing echogenicty

219
Q

what is situs inversus

A

total or partial reversal of thoracic and abdominal organs

220
Q

what organs are involved with partial situs inversus

A

only the heart or abdominal organs are reversed, the stomach may or may not be involved

221
Q

what is pseudoascites

A

a sonolucent band near the fetal anterior abdominal wall

222
Q

when can pseudoascites be seen

A

18 weeks or greater

223
Q

what happens in duodenal atresia

A

the duodenal lumen is blocked by a membrane that prohibits the passage of amniotic fluid, causing a double bubble

224
Q

where are most cases of duodenal atresia founds

A

below the ampulla

225
Q

what abnormality can often coexist with double bubble

A

an annular pancreas

226
Q

what % of double bubble cases have trisomy 21

A

30%

227
Q

what % of duodenal atresia have other anomiles

A

50%

228
Q

what is the occurrence of esophageal atresia

A

1/2,500 live births

229
Q

what % of esophageal atresia cases have coexisting anomalies

A

50%-70%

230
Q

what is the most common anomaly found with esophageal atresia

A

anorectal atresia (others could be VACTERL)

231
Q

what is the occurrence of extrophy of the bladder

A

1/50,000 male births

232
Q

what causes bladder extrophy

A

a defective closure of the inferior part of the abdominal wall at 4 weeks

233
Q

what 2 renal findings are incompatible with life

A

renal agenesis

infantile polycystic kidney disease

234
Q

when do the fetal kidney start contributing to amniotic fluid

A

14-16 weeks

235
Q

in renal agenesis what structures can be mistaken for as kidneys

A

adrenal glands

236
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of renal agenesis

A

severe oligohydramnios after 13 to 15 weeks
persistent absence of the bladder
failure to see kidneys
small thorax

237
Q

what is Potters syndrome associated with

A 
renal agenesis 
oligohydramnios 
pulmonary hypoplasia 
abnormal facies 
malformed hands and feet
238
Q

how many types of Potters syndrome are there

A

4

239
Q

what is type 1 Potters syndrome

A

(AR) infantile polycystic kidney disease

240
Q

what is type 2 Potters syndrome

A

renal agenesis, multicystic kidneys, renal dysplasia

241
Q

what is type 3 Potters syndrome

A

(AD) polycystic kidney disease

242
Q

what is type 4 Potters sydndrome

A

renal dysplasia obstructive kidney disease

243
Q

what is the most common form of renal cystic disease in infants and neonates

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

244
Q

what happens in multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

A

renal tissue is replace by multiple noncommunicating cysts, causing the kidney to be nonfunctional

245
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of infantile polycystic kidney dieases

A

kidneys appear enlarged

246
Q

what is the most common reason for hydronephorsis in utero

A

UPJ

247
Q

where does the UPJ obstruction occur

A

at the junction between the renal pelvis and ureter

248
Q

True/False UPJ’s are usually a unilateral defect

A

True

249
Q

what can cause UPJ

A

abnormal bend/kinks in ureter abnormal valves in ureter abnormal outlet shape

250
Q

what findings occur with posterior urethral valves

A

hydronephrosis
hydroureters
enlarged bladder
posterior urethra “keyhole” appearance

251
Q

what is the most common fetal anomaly

A

hydronephrosis

252
Q

the renal pelvis should not measure more than ____

A

4mm

253
Q

what is utereocele

A

cystic dilation of the intravesical segment of the distal ureter

254
Q

what is skeletal dysplasia

A

abnormal growth and density of cartilage and bone

255
Q

how many types of skeletal dysplasia are there

A

over 100, but not all are detected by ultrasound

256
Q

dwarfism occurs ______ to a skeletal dysplaisa

A

secondary

257
Q

what is rhizomelia

A

short long bones (Hum/Fem)

258
Q

what is mesomelia

A

short distal bone (ulna/radius, tib/fib)

259
Q

what is micromelia

A

shortening of all the extremity bones

260
Q

what are sonographic findings of thanatophoric dysplaisa

A 
rhizomelia 
bowed long bones 
narrow thorax 
normal trunk length
large head or cloverleaf head 
flat vertebral bodies(platyspondyly)
frontal bossing 
hypertelorism
261
Q

what is type 1 thanatophoric dysplaisa

A

short, curved femurs and flat vertebral bodies

262
Q

what is type 2 thanatophoric dysplaisa

A

straight, short femurs, flat vertebral bodies and cloverleaf skull

263
Q

what is the most common nonlethal skeletal dysplaisa

A

achondroplasia

264
Q

what is the occurence of achondroplasia

A

5-15/10,000 births 1/66,000 births in USA

265
Q

what type of bones does achondroplasia produce

A

short, squat bones

266
Q

what % of achondroplasia cases are from spontaneous mutation

A

80% but some can be transmitted in an autosomal form

267
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

disorder of production, secretion or function of collagen causing brittle bones and hypomineralization

268
Q

what is the occurrence of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

1/20,000 - 30,000 births

269
Q

what are findings of osteogenesis imperfecta type 2

A

numerous fractures short femurs decreased mineralization of bones and calvarium

270
Q

what is the occurrence of osteogenesis imperfecta type 2

A

1/60,000 births

271
Q

jeunes syndrome has what

A

a very narrow thorax, causing pulmonary hypoplasia

272
Q

how is jeunes syndrome acquired

A

inherited by an auto-recessive manner

1 in 70,000 births

273
Q

what are sonographic findings of jeunes syndrome

A

small thorax
rhizomelia
renal dysplasia
polydactyly (14%)

274
Q

how often does club foot occur

A

1/400 births unilateral; higher in males

275
Q

what chromosomal anomaly has rocker-bottom feet

A

trisomy 18

276
Q

how often does Ellis-Van Creveld syndrome occur

A

1/200,000 births

277
Q

Ellis-Van creveld syndrome is also known as

A

chondoectodermal dysplasia

278
Q

what community has a high incidence of Ellis-Van Creveld

A

Amish

279
Q

what are sonographic features of Ellis-Van Creveld

A 
short limbs
polydactyly 
heart defects- 50% 
narrow thorax 
death up to 50%
survivors are short, normal intellect

LMC Ultrasound (32 decks)

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