O&G Flashcards

1
Q

RFs for pre-eclampsia

A
  • Aged 40 years or older
  • Nulliparity
  • Pregnancy interval of > 10 years
  • Family history of pre-eclampsia
  • Previous history of pre-eclampsia
  • BMI of 30kg/m^2 or above
  • Pre-existing vascular disease such as hypertension
  • Pre-existing renal disease
  • Multiple pregnancy
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2
Q

which anti-emetic has slight increased risk of cleft palate if taking in 1st trimester

A

ondanestron

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3
Q

The most common cause of ovarian enlargement in women of a reproductive age

A

follicular cyst

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4
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 25 years

A

dermoid cyst (teratoma)

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5
Q

diagnosis in a female with postmenopausal bleeding (PMB)

A

endometrial cancer until proven otherwise

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of pruritus vulvae?

A

contact dermatitis

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7
Q

The most common ovarian cancer

A

serous cystadenoma

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8
Q

what is mefenamic acid used for

A

NSAID so primary dysmenorrhoea

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9
Q

what is tranexamic acid used for

A

menorrhagia

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10
Q

mx of missed miscarriage

A

mifepristone
misoprostol 48hrs later

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11
Q

mix of incomplete miscarriage

A

misoprostol

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12
Q

If ruptures may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

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13
Q

up to how many weeks can you terminate child with anencephaly

A

any time

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14
Q

mx of prolapse

A
  • first degree: pelvic floor exercises
  • pessary ring
  • urogynae referral for 3rd degree, failed PFEs, severe incontinence = surgery
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15
Q

induction of labour

A
  • Endovaginal prostaglandin gel is a method of cervical ripening prior to induction
  • Membrane sweeps encourage normal labour but are not a recognised induction method on their own
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16
Q

Mx of third stage of labour

A
  • oxytocin
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17
Q

cervical screening when pregnant

A

wait until 3 months PP

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18
Q

pre-menstrual syndrome mx

A
  • 1st: COCP
  • 2nd: SSRI
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19
Q

features of uterine fibroids

A
  • menorrhagia
  • bulk-related symptoms
    lower abdominal pain: cramping pains, often during menstruation
    bloating
  • urinary symptoms, e.g. frequency, may occur with larger fibroids
  • subfertility
  • rare features: polycythaemia secondary to autonomous production of erythropoietin
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20
Q

Mx of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids

A
  • levonorgestrel IUS: cannot be used if there is distortion of the uterine cavity
  • NSAIDs e.g. mefenamic acid
    tranexamic acid
  • combined oral contraceptive pill
  • oral progestogen
  • injectable progestogen
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21
Q

Treatment to shrink/remove fibroids

A

Medical
- GnRH agonists may reduce the size short-term treatment due to side-effects such as menopausal symptoms and loss of BMD (gosrelin)

Surgery
- myomectomy: preserve fertility
- hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
- hysterectomy
- uterine artery embolization

22
Q

Mx of PPRom

A
  • erythromycin 10 days or until in established labour, whichever is sooner
  • offer steroids (dex or betamethasone) if between 24 and 33+6 weeks 12mg 2 IM injection 12hrs apart for organ maturation
  • can give tocolytics to ensure steroids are given
23
Q

examples of tocolytics

A
  • atosiban
  • nifedipine
  • salbutamol and terbutiline
  • indomethacin
24
Q

indications for cervical cerclage

A
  • TVUS between 16+0 and 24+0 weeks show a cervical length of 25 mm or less, and who have had
    either:
  • preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P-PROM) in a previous
    pregnancy
  • a history of cervical trauma.
25
Q

when to do cervical cerclage

A
  • For prophylaxis, inserted between 12 and 14 weeks
  • “Rescue cerclage” until 23 weeks
  • Cerclage electively removed at 37 weeks
26
Q

which embryonic structure forms the vas deferns

A

Wolffian duct

27
Q

what is the risk of taking unopposed oestrogen in HRT

A

increased endometrial cancer

28
Q

increased cancer risk with progesterone HRT

A

breast cancer

29
Q

what is the aim of treating rhesus negative pt with anti D

A

prevent hydrops in future pregnancies

30
Q

which ART technique is not suitable for tubal subfertility

31
Q

complete molar pregnancy US sign

A

snowstorm appearance

32
Q

first line antibiotic in 1st/2nd trimester

A

nitrofurantoin

33
Q

where are bartholin’s glands located on a clock face

A

4 and 8 o clock

34
Q

what can be done to prevent shoulder dystocia

A

McRoberts manoeuvre

35
Q

on what day in a 30 day cycle should mid luteal progesterone be measured

A

day 23 (7 days before end of cycle normal is day 21 of 28 cycle)

36
Q

system used to diagnose PCOS

A

Rotterdam criteria

37
Q

1st intervention to stop PPH

A

rub up uterine contraction

38
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • STI
  • protozoa parasite
  • yellow/green frothy discharge
  • strawberry cervix
  • Mx metronidazole
39
Q

what meds to give in PPH due to uterine atony

A
  • oxytocinh IM
  • ergometrine
  • if unresponsive give carboprost
40
Q

how many phases in menstrual cycle

A

2
follicular (day 1-14 up until ovulation)
luteal (day 15-28 ovulation to start of menstruation)

41
Q

what happens in follicular phase

A
  • FSH stimulates further development of the secondary follicles.
  • increasing amounts of oestradiol (oestrogen) = negative feedback effect on the pituitary gland, reducing the LH and FSH
  • cervical mucus to become more permeable, allowing sperm to penetrate the cervix around the time of ovulation
  • LH spikes just before ovulation (egg released) can cause pain
42
Q

what happens in luteal phase

A
  • after ovulation, the follicle that released the ovum collapses and becomes the corpus luteum.
  • corpus luteum secretes high levels of progesterone, which maintains the endometrial lining.
  • This progesterone causes the cervical mucus to become thick and no longer penetrable.
43
Q

UTI abx safe for breastfeeding

A

trimethoprim

44
Q

Ectopic pregnancy in which location is most associated with an increase risk of rupture?

45
Q

mx of inevitable miscarriage

A
  • expectant
  • medical (misoprostal or methotrexate)
  • dilatation and curettage if haemodynamically unstable
46
Q

Mx of mothers who have had a previous baby affected by early- or late-onset GBS

A

intrapartum benzylpenicillin (increased risk for other babies)

47
Q

haemoglobin cut-offs in normal, early/late pregnancy and post partum for iron supplementation

A
  • 115 for non-pregnant women
  • 110 in early pregnancy (1st)
  • 105 in later pregnancy (2nd/3rd)
  • 100 after childbirth
48
Q

types of perineal tear

A
  • 1st degree: Small tears affecting only the skin
  • 2nd degree: affecting the muscle of the perineum and the skin. These usually require stitches.
  • 3rd degree: injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex but sparing the mucosa
  • 4th degree: injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa
49
Q

when giving magnesium sulfate for eclampsia what do you need to monitor

A
  • reflexes
  • Resp rate (to check for no no evidence of respiratory depression)
50
Q

contraindication to ulipristal acetate

51
Q

mx of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

IV normal saline with added potassium as hypokalaemia is common