Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

What % of sheep are in upland vs lowland?

A

50:50

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2
Q

What % of variable costs are lowland sheep feed costs?

A

60-75%

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3
Q

What is growing season like in hills/upland?

A

Short

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4
Q

When must hill/upland sheep gain weight for the winter?

A

In the summer

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5
Q

Minimum BCS for a hill/upland sheep?

A

2

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6
Q

What does “sent to tack” mean for hill/upland ewe lambs?

A

Wintered on better land

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7
Q

When are hill sheep usually only supplemented?

A

Bad weather

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8
Q

What feeds are given to hill sheep from 8 weeks old?

A

Hay, feed blocks, concentrates

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9
Q

What is supplemented in lactating hill sheep?

A

Magnesium

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10
Q

Until which month are feed blocks used in hill sheep?

A

May

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11
Q

How many lambs per year should hill sheep have?

A

One

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12
Q

When are lowland sheep on grass?

A

Spring to Autumn

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13
Q

What food should you give to lowland sheep in Autumn?

A

Fodder, root crops, byproducts

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14
Q

What food should you give lowland sheep during winter and at lambing?

A

Stored root crops

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15
Q

What should you feed store lambs?

A

Arable crops and byproducts

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16
Q

When should you feed ewes concentrates?

A

Late pregnancy and lactation

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17
Q

What should you feed fattened lambs?

A

Concentrates with minimal roughage

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18
Q

What is silage from mature grass like?

A

Low digestibility and crude protein

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19
Q

What is the risk if silage isn’t properly fermented?

A

Listeriosis

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20
Q

What is the minimum dry matter than hay should be?

A

85%

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21
Q

Risk if dry matter of hay is too low?

A

Mould and mycotoxin

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22
Q

What is the minimum digestibility hay should be?

A

60

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23
Q

How does digestibility of grass change with time?

A

Falls with grass maturity

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24
Q

What is the minimum crude protein hay should be?

A

14%

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25
Q

What mineral is often added to sheep concentrates?

A

Magnesium

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26
Q

Why should you not use cattle feed for sheep?

A

Too much copper - stored in liver

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27
Q

What is in home mix (for sheep)?

A

Cereal with protein/mineral balancer

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28
Q

Where is the protein from in home mix?

A

Fishmeal, soya, maize

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29
Q

What is the problem with home mix for sheep?

A

Maize gluten palatability

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30
Q

What happens to sheep if you use ground cereal?

A

Get acidosis

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31
Q

At how many weeks does the sheep embryo implant?

A

3-4 weeks

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32
Q

During which days does the sheep placenta develop?

A

30-90

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33
Q

Why should sheep lose condition during placental development?

A

To optimise placental growth

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34
Q

During which days should sheep be scanned?

A

70-90

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35
Q

How much sheep foetal growth is in the last trimester?

A

90%

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36
Q

How much sheep foetal growth occurs within the last month?

A

60%

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37
Q

During which time period does the sheep mammary tissue develop?

A

Last 30 days

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38
Q

What should feed be like in late sheep pregnancy?

A

High dry matter and digestibility

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39
Q

What is the minimum % digestible undegradable protein should be? Why?

A

At least 30% so bacterial protein can be used for energy

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40
Q

What should sheep BCS be in 1st month?

A

1-1.5

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41
Q

What should sheep BCS be in 2nd/3rd month?

A

2.5-3

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42
Q

How much BCS is it acceptable for a ewe to lose in late pregnancy?

A

0.5

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43
Q

Compared to maintenance, how much does sheep energy demands rise during lactation?

A

3x maintenance

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44
Q

How much milk does a 5kg lamb need per day?

A

1L

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45
Q

What % crude protein does a lactating sheep need?

A

18%

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46
Q

How long after lambing does milk production peak?

A

3-5 weeks

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47
Q

After how long are lambs grass-dependent?

A

6 weeks

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48
Q

After how long are lambs herbivores?

A

8 weeks

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49
Q

What happens if dry matter is too low in lambs?

A

Scour

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50
Q

Which parasites can cause problems in lambs?

A

Coccidiosis and nematodirus

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51
Q

At what stage is ill-thrift common in lambs?

A

The stage when they are becoming grass dependent/herbivore

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52
Q

Lack of which nutrients affects lamb growth?

A

Cobalt, copper

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53
Q

Up to what age does the weight of a ewe increase?

A

3yo

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54
Q

Up until what age should you feed a ewe for weight gain?

A

18 months

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55
Q

How much of her mature weight should a ewe lamb be at breeding?

A

60%

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56
Q

How much of her mature weight should a shearling (2 tooth) be at breeding?

A

80%

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57
Q

What % should ewe lambs and two toothed ewes increase their weight by during pregnancy?

A

5%

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58
Q

What are mature rams usually fed?

A

Grass with hay during winter months

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59
Q

What is target BCS for tups at the start of tupping?

A

3.5-4

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60
Q

How long before mating should underweight tups be given concentrate?

A

6-8 weeks before mating

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61
Q

How many mls/kg of colostrum should lambs receive in the first 18 hours of life?

A

200

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62
Q

How many daily feeds of milk replacer should lambs receive?

A

3

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63
Q

What what age can creep feed be given to lambs?

A

7 days

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64
Q

On good grass, what growth rate can lambs achieve?

A

250g/day

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65
Q

After what month must lambs not finished be fed on forage crops?

A

August

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66
Q

Which foods are fed to store lambs as grass quality declines?

A

Cheap - grass aftermaths, crop byproducts, green forages, root crops

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67
Q

Why do you give store lambs iodine supplements?

A

To counteract goitrogens in kale or rape

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68
Q

What do brassicas contain that can cause haemolytic anaemia?

A

SMCO

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69
Q

Which feed can cause photosensitisation?

A

Rape

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70
Q

What growth rates can indoor cereal finished lambs achieve?

A

250-300g/day

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71
Q

How quickly to indoor cereal finished lambs reach 40kg (slaughter weight)?

A

90 days

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72
Q

How many kg of feed is required to take indoor cereal finished lambs from weaning to slaughter?

A

100kg

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73
Q

What triggers hypocalcaemia in sheep?

A

Stress

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74
Q

When are ewes commonly affected by hypocalcaemia?

A

Last few weeks of pregnancy or early lactation

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75
Q

Why does increasing dietary calcium not work to prevent hypocalcaemia in sheep?

A

Not calcium deficient, the problem is uptake from the gut

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76
Q

When do ewes most often get hypomagnesemia?

A

Parturition and early lactation

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77
Q

Clinical signs of hypomagnesemia in sheep?

A

Tetanic spasms and fits

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78
Q

How lost must you supplement magnesium for in sheep after lambing?

A

Several weeks

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79
Q

What is cobalt needed for in the sheep rumen?

A

B12 synthesis

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80
Q

Signs of cobalt deficiency in lambs?

A

Poor growth rate, ocular discharge, poor wool growth and quality, anaemia

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81
Q

Effects of cobalt deficiency in adult sheep?

A

Reduced fertility and lamb survival

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82
Q

How can you confirm a sheep cobalt deficiency?

A

Liver or plasma assay

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83
Q

What is the best way to give cobalt to sheep?

A

Oral bolus

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84
Q

Which minerals in the diet may block copper uptake in sheep?

A

Molybdenum, S and Fe

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85
Q

Why can copper deficiency occur after lime on pasture in sheep?

A

Increased pH of the soil increases the available molybdenum in the diet

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86
Q

WHen should you supplement copper in sheep?

A

Only if proven deficiency

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87
Q

Which copper preparations should be avoided in sheep?

A

Edatate or glycinate

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88
Q

Three ways to supplement copper in sheep?

A

Copper heptonate injection, oral capsules, soluble glass boluses

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89
Q

What is selenium needed for in sheep?

A

Enzymes that scavenge free radicals eg glutathione

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90
Q

Which feeds is vitamin E present in?

A

Green forages, grass silage, grains

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91
Q

How do fertilisers affect vitamin E present in food?

A

Increase growth rate of crop so decrease vit E

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92
Q

Which kind of feeds are commonly vit E deficient?

A

Root crops for pregnant ewes or poor quality roughage

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93
Q

Which treatments of feed decrease vitamin E?

A

Preservatives and caustic soda

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94
Q

How do oil seeds with high PUFAs affect vitamin E demand?

A

Increase

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95
Q

Which areas commonly get iodine deficient soil?

A

Away from the sea

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96
Q

Effects of iodine deficiency in sheep?

A

Infertility, stillborn lambs, high neonatal lamb mortality

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97
Q

What do iodine deficient lambs look like at PM?

A

Enlarged thyroid

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98
Q

How is iodine commonly administered to sheep?

A

Commercial mineral preparations and boluses

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99
Q

Why are pig diets processed and what is a problem with this?

A

To increase digestibility, but causes stomach ulceration

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100
Q

How do pigs digest cheap cereal byproducts like wheat bran?

A

In caecum to use fibre

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101
Q

Where does the protein in pig feed come from?

A

Legumes or milk powder/whey

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102
Q

Which kind of protein is illegal to use in pig feed?

A

Animal (but fish can be used)

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103
Q

Where does energy come from in pig feed?

A

Oil and fats like soya oil

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104
Q

What are the most important minerals in pig feed?

A

Ca and P (as dicalcium phosphate)

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105
Q

What is the problem with using beans and peas in pig feed?

A

Cause trypsin inhibition

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106
Q

Which is the rate limiting amino acid in pigs/the most important/runs out first?

A

Lysine

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107
Q

Which kind of pig has the lowest lysine requirement?

A

Lactating sows

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108
Q

Which kind of pig has the highest lysine requirement?

A

Creep/weaner

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109
Q

Which kind of pig feed is lowest in lysine so must be supplemented?

A

Cereals

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110
Q

How can you estimate the crude protein in a diet?

A

Nitrogen

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111
Q

What are the four point you should BCS a sow?

A

At weaning, service, mid-pregnancy, farrowing

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112
Q

Why should you BCS a sow at weaning?

A

Poorest condition here

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113
Q

What should you do if a sow BCS is too low at weaning?

A

Wait a heat

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114
Q

Why should you BCS a sow at farrowing?

A

To know if feeding strategy worked

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115
Q

Why should you restrict a sows feed just after farrowing?

A

To increase intake when it is really needed later

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116
Q

How many times per day should you feed a sow?

A

3x

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117
Q

When should you replace condition in a sow?

A

During the next pregnancy

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118
Q

What is the problem with high feeding a sow during pregnancy?

A

Low feeding in lactation and excessive weight loss = “milking off her own back”

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119
Q

How are boars treated with regards to feeding?

A

Like a dry sow

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120
Q

What are the problems with a thin sow at weaning (thin sow syndrome)?

A

Decreased ovulation, increased W-R interval, ulcers/pressure sores

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121
Q

What are the causes of thin sow syndrome?

A

Feeding too much/little in pregnancy, too little in lactation, bullying, cold, parasitism

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122
Q

How should you ideally feed the lactating sow?

A

Give high protein first then feed to appetite to increase overall feed intake (let milk production increase in line with requirements)

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123
Q

Which substances have the same effect as antibiotics in pig feed?

A

ZInc oxide and copper sulphate

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124
Q

What is the problem with using zinc oxide in copper sulphate?

A

Contaminate environment

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125
Q

Why do young pigs get post-weaning diarrhoea?

A

Lack enzymes to digest starch

126
Q

What are the three properties creep feeds should have?

A

Highly digestible, high in nutrients due to low intake, palatable

127
Q

What do creep feeds contain to make them highly digestible?

A

Cooked cereal and milk

128
Q

What do creep feeds contain to make them palatable?

A

Sweeteners and flavouring

129
Q

What do grower-finisher feeds need to provided?

A

High growth rate and maximum feed conversion efficiency

130
Q

What is the daily weight gain of a grower-finisher?

A

600grams/day

131
Q

What is the genetic potential maximum weight gain for a grower-finisher?

A

900grams/day

132
Q

What are the problems with feeding dry pellets to pigs?

A

More expensive than meal, heat can remove some nutrients, can cause colitis

133
Q

What are the adv/dis of dry meal for pigs?

A

Cheaper and doesn’t need processing but more dust and waste

134
Q

Why is liquid feeding for pigs cheaper?

A

Can use things it would otherwise be difficult to incorporate

135
Q

What is it illegal to use in liquid feed for pigs?

A

Catering waste or animal by-products unless it is treated

136
Q

How does liquid feeding for pigs affect gut flora?

A

Increases acidity which improves gut flora

137
Q

How does liquid feeding in pigs affect phosphorus availability, digestibility and FCE?

A

Improves all

138
Q

What is the problem with floor feeding pigs?

A

Cheap and natural but wasteful

139
Q

How much room should pigs have at troughs?

A

Enough room for all to feed at the same time

140
Q

What specific minerals do pigs require?

A

Ca, P, Zn, Fe, Se

141
Q

Which specific vitamins do pigs require?

A

A, D, E, thiamine, riboflavine, pantothenic acid

142
Q

Which vitamins do pigs require which are water soluble?

A

thiamine, riboflavine, pantothenic acid

143
Q

What is the result of calcium deficinecy in growing pigs?

A

Poor mineralisation at fractures especially at slaughter

144
Q

What are the signs of calcium deficiency in first-litter gilts?

A

Dog sitting and fracture

145
Q

How do you treat first-litter gilts with calcium deficiency?

A

Remove litter and give IV calcium

146
Q

What does iron deficiency cause in piglets?

A

Hypochromic microcytic anaemia

147
Q

What is the iron requirement of a piglet and what does the sow supply?

A

15mg/day vs 1mg/day

148
Q

By what age will iron deficient sows show clinical signs?

A

Three weeks

149
Q

What are clinical signs of iron deficiency in piglets?

A

Hairy, pale/yellow, lethargic, prominent apex beat, dyspnoea, sudden death

150
Q

At PM, what does an iron deficient pig look like?

A

Pale, watery blood, enlarged heart, pale enlarged liver

151
Q

How do you treat iron deficiency in piglets?

A

Iron dextran or glyptoferrin

152
Q

How do you prevent iron deficiency in piglets?

A

Dosing or sterile soil

153
Q

What does zinc deficiency cause in pigs?

A

Parakeratosis

154
Q

What are the causes of zinc deficiency in pigs?

A

Dry meal, earthenware troughs, excess phytate, high calcium

155
Q

What are the clinical signs of zinc deficiency in pigs?

A

Depressed growth rate by 2-4 months, then reddish lesions under the thigh, fetlock, hindlimbs and back

156
Q

How do you treat zinc deficiency in pigs?

A

Supplementation

157
Q

What does vitamin D deficiency cause in pigs?

A

Rickets or osteomalacia during lactation

158
Q

What are clinical signs of vitamin D deficiency in pigs?

A

Swollen costochondral junctions and growth plates lameness, distortion and collapse of joint surfaces

159
Q

How do you confirm vitamin D levels in pigs?

A

Plasma assay

160
Q

How do you treat vitamin D deficiency in pigs?

A

Increase dietary levels then supplement

161
Q

What does vitamin E deficiency cause in weaned, rapidly growing pigs?

A

Sudden death, hepatosis dietetica, steatitis and infertility

162
Q

What does chronic vitamin E deficiency cause in pigs?

A

Poor condition

163
Q

At PM, what does a vitamin E deficient pig look like?

A

Good condition but pallor and excess pericardial fluid, sometimes a blood-filled peritoneum due to liver rupture

164
Q

What does the heart muscle look like in vitamin E deficient pigs?

A

Reddened and streaked - “mulberry heart”

165
Q

How do you diagnose vitamin E deficiency in pigs?

A

Plasma levels, sudden death, gross heart lesions, histopathology, liver levels

166
Q

How do you treat vitamin E deficiency in pigs?

A

Parenteral or dietary vitamin E

167
Q

What does pantothenic acid deficiency cause in pigs?

A

Goose stepping and eventual paralysis

168
Q

How is pantothenic acid deficiency caused in pigs?

A

When animals receive bakery waste with no balancer

169
Q

How do you treat pantothenic acid deficiency in pigs?

A

Multivitamins for goose-stepping but euthanase if paralysed

170
Q

What are some common poisonings in pigs?

A

Salt, warfarin, bracken, mycotoxicosis

171
Q

What are some examples of fungal toxins in pigs?

A

Zearalenone, vomitoxin, ochratoxin, aflatoxin, ergot

172
Q

What does salt poisoning cause in pigs?

A

Convulsions, gait abnormalities, death

173
Q

What are clinical signs of salt poisoning in pigs?

A

Pruritis, thirst, constipation, blindness, ataxia, head pressing

174
Q

What % of salt poisoning cases in pigs results in death?

A

5%

175
Q

What does salt poisoning in pigs look like pathologically?

A

Eosinophilic meningitis

176
Q

What does the carcass look like in salt poisoned pigs?

A

High chloride

177
Q

How do you treat salt poisoning in pigs?

A

Gradually restore water and euthanase those which are non-viable

178
Q

How do you prevent salt poisoning in pigs?

A

Ensure enough water, monitor salt levels in waste food

179
Q

Which kind of pig diets are prone to salt poisoning?

A

Whey and bread-based

180
Q

What is the largest single variable cost in milk production?

A

Feed for the cattle

181
Q

How much does feed cost per litre per cow per day?

A

24-33p

182
Q

What five things does the energy in a cattle diet affect/cause?

A

Infertility, lameness, acidosis, LDA, protein level

183
Q

What condition can a lack of protein cause in cattle?

A

Infertility

184
Q

What does the amount of fibre in a cows diet affect?

A

Milk fat

185
Q

What three conditions can dry cow feeding affect?

A

Milk fever, fatty liver, hypomagnesaemia

186
Q

Which metabolites in milk, blood, urine, can be used to assess cattle nutritional status?

A

Urea-N, betahydroxybutyrate, glucose, non-esterified fatty acids

187
Q

What % does feed intake contribute to underperformance in cattle?

A

66%

188
Q

What % do feed and energy intake contribute to underperformance in cattle?

A

86%

189
Q

What % do feed, energy and protein intake contribute to underperformance in cattle?

A

97%

190
Q

How much BCS should a cow lose between calving and 60 days after?

A

0.5 max

191
Q

What should BCS be at calving?

A

3

192
Q

What should BCS be at peak yield?

A

2.5

193
Q

What should BCS be 6-8 weeks before drying off?

A

2.75

194
Q

What should BCS be at drying off?

A

2.75-3

195
Q

Above what BCS change is associated with long term fertility effects in cattle?

A

0.75

196
Q

How many cows should you sample for BCS and when?

A

5 cows in each of early lactation, late lactation and dry

197
Q

What is the critical factor in cow ration formation?

A

How much a cow is eating

198
Q

What three things influence how much a cow is eating?

A

The cow, the food and the management

199
Q

What is the most difficult aspect to measure of a cow diet?

A

DMI

200
Q

If not in calf, how much of the diet should be dry matter?

A

3% of weight or 2.5% of weight + 10% milk yield

201
Q

What is the target DMI/day for a 700kg high-yield cow in late gestation?

A

12-15kg

202
Q

What is the target DMI/day for a 700kg high-yield cow in peak gestation?

A

25-30kg

203
Q

What is the equation to determine energy required by metabolic bodyweight in cattle?

A

0.86W^0.67

204
Q

What is the approximate ME/day required by a cow?

A

65-70MJ

205
Q

How much energy is required for each litre of milk in a cow?

A

5-6 MJ/kg

206
Q

What should weight change be in early lactation?

A

None

207
Q

When is the only time a foetus requires extra energy?

A

3rd trimester

208
Q

In what kind of cow are pregnancy requirements an issue?

A

Dry cow

209
Q

How many litres of milk should the ration be formulated for?

A

Maintenance + 20 litres

210
Q

Which are the four groups of feed which provide energy?

A

Carbohydrates, fat, silage acids, protein

211
Q

Which feed groups are not affected by the rumen?

A

Carbohydrates, and fats, esp maize

212
Q

Do microbes absorb silage acids?

A

No

213
Q

What do carbohydrates in the rumen become?

A

VFAs and gases

214
Q

What is left for bacteria in the rumen?

A

Fermentable metabolisable energy

215
Q

What do ruminal microbes do to starch and sugars?

A

Rapidly break down

216
Q

What happens to the cow if too much starch and sugar?

A

Ruminal acidosis

217
Q

What happens to the cow if not enough starch and sugar?

A

Microbes die

218
Q

What is the only way lignin can be broken down in cattle?

A

Can’t unless treated with ammonia or hydroxide

219
Q

What breaks down cellulose and hemi-cellulose in cattle? How quickly?

A

Enzymes and rumination - slowly

220
Q

What happens to “protected fats” in cattle?

A

Pass into SI to be digested

221
Q

What happens in cow given too much protected fats?

A

Coats fibre and disrupts rumen function

222
Q

What are the two things that can happen to protein in cattle?

A

Either absorbed in SI and broken down in the liver for energy OR used to make microbial energy

223
Q

What bacteria produces butyric acid and spoils silage?

A

Clostridia

224
Q

Which acid does normal silage produce?

A

Lactic acid

225
Q

What pH is normal silage?

A

4

226
Q

What does mould growth do to silage?

A

Reduces palatability

227
Q

What % DM is good silage?

A

25-30%

228
Q

What can happen if silage or slurry enters a water course?

A

Microbial breakdown uses dissolved oxygen so fish die

229
Q

What are three ways you can reduce effluent from silage?

A

Ensile at >25% DM, wilt before ensiling, don’t ensile in the rain

230
Q

What should you dilute silage effluent to if you are spreading it on land?

A

1:1

231
Q

How much silage effluent are you allowed to spread on land?

A

<25m3/ha

232
Q

If you don’t want to dilute effluent, what else can you do to it before spreading it?

A

Aerate it

233
Q

What is the problem with aerating effluent?

A

Increases greenhouse gases

234
Q

What can you do to a slurry tank to reduce methan production?

A

Cover it

235
Q

Over how long and how many cows and when should you monitor milk production?

A

10 cows over 1 month after peak lactation

236
Q

Above what % decline of milk production in the month you study them indicates a nutritional problem?

A

10%

237
Q

Where does milk protein come from and what does this depend on?

A

Microbial protein which depends on dietary energy

238
Q

What reflects the long term energy status of a cow?

A

Milk protein

239
Q

Which two types of protein make up the metabolisable protein?

A

Microbial + bypass

240
Q

How much does an extra 10MJ of ME increase milk protein by?

A

0.03%

241
Q

What are three ways you can increase the energy intake of a cow?

A

Maximise DMI during early lactation, use a mixture of forage to stimulate intake, feed more concentrates/maize

242
Q

How should you prevent buytric silage building up?

A

Put it at the feed barrier and clean out the troughs each day

243
Q

What three things can you supplement silage with?

A

Second cut silage, big bale silage or brewers grain

244
Q

What is the maximum amount of concentrates you should give a cow per day?

A

6kg

245
Q

What can you feed to increase milk protein due to the increased energy to the cow?

A

Bypass starch (maize)

246
Q

How can protected soya be used in cattle?

A

Increases milk protein but only if dietary protein is limiting

247
Q

What is a problem with using protected soya in cattle?

A

It will stimulate milk production so may exacerbate problems

248
Q

Why would you give extra DUP in the dry cow ration?

A

To help increase milk protein levels

249
Q

How fast is the response to dietary changes to increase milk protein levels?

A

Slow

250
Q

When changing the diet to increase milk protein levels, what usually increases first?

A

Milk yield

251
Q

What happens to farmers if milk quality is poor?

A

There is a penalty (reduced payment)

252
Q

What are two advantages of increasing DMI in cows?

A

Improves FCE and reduces the methane produced per litre of milk

253
Q

What is the advantage of increasing concentrates in cattle?

A

Reduces methane production but as a proportion of energy intake

254
Q

Which diets produce the most methane in cattle?

A

High fibre

255
Q

Which dies produce the least methane in cattle?

A

High concentrate

256
Q

What % of cows should be ruminating while resting to indicate normal rumen function?

A

Over 60%

257
Q

What is the ideal cud-rate?

A

50-80

258
Q

What are two causes of a concave paralumbar fossa?

A

Low rumen fill or LDA

259
Q

Below what pH is a rumen acidic?

A

5.8

260
Q

How do you assess how acidic the rumen is?

A

Rumenocentesis

261
Q

What are two causes of stiff faeces in cattle?

A

Slow transit time and a high fibre diet

262
Q

What is gut health like with stiff faeces in cattle?

A

Can be good

263
Q

What are two causes of loose faeces in cattle?

A

Rapid transit and low fibre

264
Q

What is gut function like if loose faeces in cattle?

A

Sub-optimal

265
Q

What causes osmotic diarrhoea in cattle?

A

Fermentation shifts to colon and caecum

266
Q

How does decreased colonic pH affect the faeces?

A

Kills flora so fermentation ceases and faeces get harder

267
Q

What do short fibres and absent grains say about rumen function?

A

Good

268
Q

What does undigested grain say about rumen function?

A

Disturbed

269
Q

What three things can undigested grain and long fibres say about rumen function?

A

Disturbed fermentation, poor harvesting or poor preparation

270
Q

How much food should remain if you are feeding ad lib?

A

5-10%

271
Q

What do fermentable and non-fermentable metabolisable energy become?

A

Carbohydrates

272
Q

What two things does fermentable metabolisable energy become?

A

QFE and SFE

273
Q

What are the QFEs?

A

Starch and sugars - non-fibre carbohydrates

274
Q

What are the SFEs?

A

Cellulose and hemicellulose

275
Q

Which four things provide the energy for rumen bacteria?

A

QFE, SFE, NH3, effective rumen degradable protein

276
Q

Which three acids do rumen flora produce?

A

Propionate, butyrate, acetate

277
Q

What processes do SFEs allow?

A

Saliva, buffering, rumination

278
Q

What happens to acetate?

A

Produces milk fat via the mammary gland

279
Q

What happens to propionate?

A

Turned into glucose in the liver

280
Q

How does higher glucose affect the milk?

A

Increases milk protein and yield

281
Q

What three things does urea contribute to?

A

BUN, milk urea and urine

282
Q

What are the four functions of fibre in cattle?

A

Degraded by microbes for energy, promote rumination, forms rumen mat, produces acetate

283
Q

What are two ways of measuring fibre content?

A

Neutral detergent fibre and acid detergent fibre

284
Q

What does neutral detergent fibre measure?

A

Plant cell wall material

285
Q

What does acid detergent fibre measure?

A

Cellulose and lignin

286
Q

What does neutral detergent fibre correlate with?

A

Rate of digestion/DMI

287
Q

What does acid detergent fibre correlate with?

A

Digestibility

288
Q

How do you classify feed as cellulosic or non-cellulosic?

A

Neutral detergent fibre

289
Q

What is the key factor in whether a food will stimulate rumination?

A

Physical form - long fibre 2.5cm-10cm

290
Q

What tests can show how much “long fibre” a food contains?

A

Effective fibre, physically effective NDF, “scratch value”, structural value

291
Q

Why is chop length an issue in silage?

A

Good silage must be chopped short quickly and then compacted

292
Q

Which crop has especially short chop lengths?

A

Maize

293
Q

If given teh chance, which fibre length will cows eat?

A

Short

294
Q

What are the only two ways of assessing long fibre?

A

Visually by observing the diet mixing process or using a Penn State Forage Particle Separator

295
Q

How many chews should there be before swallowing in a cow?

A

50-80

296
Q

What is the problem if there are less than 50 chews before swallowing?

A

Not enough fibre or too short chop length

297
Q

What is the problem if there are more than 80 chews before swallowing?

A

Too much fibre

298
Q

What are four clinical consequences of irregular feed activity and TMR sorting?

A

Rapid transit times, sub-optimal gut function, loose faeces with undigested grains, fluctuations in rumen pH

299
Q

What are three causes of reduced rumen pH?

A

Irregular feed availability, TMR sorting, slug feeding of concentrates in parlour

300
Q

How does reduced rumen pH affect the milk?

A

Reduced production and fat

301
Q

What are five consequences of too much non-fibre carbohydrates (QFE)?

A

Decreased rumen pH, decreased fibre digestion, increased acidosis, low milk fat, off feed

302
Q

What is the problem with under-developed rumen papillae?

A

Can’t absorb VFAs

303
Q

What are three causes of too much QFE (non-fibre carbohydrates)?

A

Insufficient fibre intake, excessive starches and sugars, inadequate saliva production

304
Q

What is a cause of inadequate saliva production?

A

Reduced rumination times due to poor cow comfort

305
Q

What is LF syndrome?

A

Low forage, low fibre, low milkfat, lame feet, low fertility

306
Q

How long before calving should you acclimatise rumen flora to lactation?

A

3-4 weeks

307
Q

How can you make long fibre more palatable?

A

Use molasses

308
Q

What’s a problem with increasing rumen pH by adding bicarbonate?

A

Palatability

309
Q

How can you increase cow saliva flow?

A

Free access hay

310
Q

What does adding yeast do to the rumen microflora?

A

Removes oxygen and stimulates bacteria which digest fibre and use lactic acid

311
Q

What are five consequences of sub-acute ruminal acidosis?

A

Reduced DM intake, reduced milk yield, poor milk quality, reduced fertility, disease