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IAM > Equine > Flashcards

Equine Flashcards

1
Q

What grass content do wild horses eat?

A

Over 80%

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2
Q

How many hours per day are horses turned out for in the summer?

A

13-16 hours

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3
Q

How large must a stable be?

A

Large enough for the horse to lie down

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4
Q

Why is ventilation very important in stables?

A

Often too warm, esp summer

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5
Q

What % of stabled horses show weaving, cribbing, box walking?

A

10-40%

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6
Q

What happens to stereotypes if horses fed at different times?

A

Increase

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7
Q

What are two problems with overgrazing?

A

Ingestion of poisonous plants, increased worm burden

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8
Q

In which horses is self-mutilation mainly documented in?

A

Stallions

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9
Q

Why are horses unlikely to pass on stereotypical behaviours?

A

Because they are a response to the environment

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10
Q

What two problems cause crib biting?

A

High concentrates, lack of forage

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11
Q

What should you do at vetting to check crib biting?

A

Check incisors

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12
Q

How is crib biting related to gastric ulcers?

A

Can lead to or be caused by

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13
Q

Why is crib biting reinforcing to the horse?

A

Causes dopamine release

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14
Q

What are two problems with crib collars?

A

Don’t address primary cause, lead to increased cortisol

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15
Q

What five problems are obesity linked to?

A

Laminitis, EMS, hyperinsulinaemia, osteochondrosis, osteoarthritis

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16
Q

How many times more likely are obese horses with insulin resistance to suffer laminitis?

A

10

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17
Q

Which breeds are predisposing to obesity?

A

Native ponies

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18
Q

By how much should you reduce DMI to get horses to lose weight?

A

1.5% body weight

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19
Q

Why should you not abruptly starve ponies?

A

Hyperlipaemia

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20
Q

How can you increase feeding time?

A

Feeding balls, hang hay net

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21
Q

Which oral chemical restraint can you use?

A

ACP tablets

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22
Q

Which kind of handling do foals respond well to?

A

Tight handling in sight of the mother

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23
Q

How can you train needle phobic horses?

A

Clicker training

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24
Q

Who makes the laws for horse transport?

A

EC

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25
Q

Why is there increased risk of respiratory disease during transport?

A

Head held higher

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26
Q

What may be an advantage of facing horses backwards?

A

May be able to balance better

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27
Q

What are six ways you can help a horse that is nervous to load?

A

Use shallow ramps, have a companion, make the trailer bright, try a mirror, sedatives, practice sessions

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28
Q

What two things must trailers have adequate ventilation for?

A

Exhaust emissions and ammonia

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29
Q

What are three ways of dealing with frightening stimuli?

A

Habituation, desensitisation, counter-conditioning

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30
Q

Which is most useful out of the three training methods?

A

Desensitisation

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31
Q

What is donkey heart rate like?

A

Very low, even in pain

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32
Q

How do donkeys show pain?

A

Dull/depressed

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33
Q

What is NSAID dose like in donkeys?

A

High (very)

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34
Q

Why does whip use increase injury rate?

A

Tired horse

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35
Q

How does race position affect fall risk?

A

Risk increases with decreasing race position

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36
Q

How can training reduce race injuries?

A

Strengthens bone

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37
Q

What are three common problems with dressage?

A

Back issues, SDF tendonitis, proximal suspensory ligament desmitis

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38
Q

What is Rollkur?

A

Hyperflexion of the neck

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39
Q

Which two organisations have banned Rollkur?

A

FEI and Swiss law

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40
Q

Why does Rollkur increase fear response?

A

Restricts visual field

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41
Q

What problem is Rollkur particularly linked to?

A

Fetlock hyperextension

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42
Q

What does a running martingale do?

A

Prevents horse raising head above angle of control, encourages it to stretch forward and down during lunging

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43
Q

What is the problem with a running martingale?

A

Can be too tight

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44
Q

What does a standing martingale do?

A

Acts on noseband to pull head down

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45
Q

What is the problem with a standing martingale?

A

Severe, not suitable for jumping

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46
Q

What do side reigns do?

A

Encourage horse to stretch forward and down during lunging

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47
Q

What can be a problem with side reigns?

A

Can be too tight

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48
Q

What can tightening of the nose band be used for?

A

To increase confidence

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49
Q

But what is a problem with tightening the nose band?

A

Can be painful

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50
Q

What four conditions are endurance racing associated with?

A

Hyperthermia and dehydration, musculoskeletal injuries, myopathies

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51
Q

What four conditions are associated with cross country?

A

SDF tendonitis, fetlock/stifle injuries, P1 fractures, back problems

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52
Q

What 8 things must an equine welfare assessment include?

A

Environment, history, nutrition, attitude/demeanor, BCS, clinical exam, dynamic exam, samples

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53
Q

What must you do with samples during a welfare assessment?

A

Give duplicates to the owner

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54
Q

What are three problems working horses often show?

A

Lameness, muscle strain, poorly fitting tack

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55
Q

Which alternative therapies are good?

A

ACPAT physiotherapists and acupuncturists

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56
Q

When is potassium chloride euthanasia only suitable?

A

Under GA

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57
Q

What are two advantages of euthanasia by injection over shooting?

A

No noise, looks better

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58
Q

What is one disadvantage of euthanasia by injection over shooting?

A

Slower if debilitated

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59
Q

What is an advantage of euthanasia by shooting over injection?

A

Cheaper

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60
Q

Who uses euthanasia by shooting?

A

Hunt kennels

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61
Q

What is forage high in?

A

Moisture

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62
Q

What are cereals high in?

A

Starch

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63
Q

Why do domestic horses need mineral supplementation?

A

Wild ones eat soil

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64
Q

Which feeds do horses use very efficiently?

A

Hay and roughage

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65
Q

What is horse mastication like?

A

Intense

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66
Q

What size are most hay particles with horses?

A

<1mm

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67
Q

What is the horse stomach capacity?

A

5-15L

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68
Q

Why must you starve overnight for gastroscopy?

A

Stomach rarely empty

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69
Q

What amount should you tube in a horse?

A

5-8L

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70
Q

Where is enzymatic digestion in the horse?

A

Duodenum and jejunum

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71
Q

Where is fermentation in the horse?

A

Caecum and large colon

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72
Q

What three bad habits are linked to decreased blood glucose or gut fill?

A

Wood chewing, coprophagy, bed eating

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73
Q

What kind of diets are associated with decreased blood glucose or gut fill?

A

High concentrates

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74
Q

What’s a problem with high starch diet?

A

Severe fluctuations in glucose and insulin

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75
Q

Do concentrates or roughage produce more saliva?

A

Roughage

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76
Q

What should you give a horse that requires more energy?

A

Oil/fibre

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77
Q

Why should you use oil/fibre rather than starch to provide energy?

A

These reduce the behavioural need to forage, increase satiety and reduce acid load

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78
Q

What does of oil should you use?

A

1ml/kg

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79
Q

What is the behavioural advantage of increasing fat in the diet?

A

Reduced spontaneous locomotion and activity

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80
Q

What are two advantages of feeding foals high fat and starch?

A

Spent longer grazing and were less stressed

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81
Q

Why do horses prefer stables with multiple forages?

A

Mimics wild

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82
Q

What % of ration by weight should roughage be?

A

50%

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83
Q

What % of body weight should forage or forage substitutes be?

A

1.5-2%

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84
Q

What % of body weight is the average max daily DMI?

A

2.5-3%

85
Q

Which BCS scale goes 0-5?

A

Huntingdon and Carroll

86
Q

How many points does the cresty neck BCS scale have?

A

5

87
Q

How can you calculate horse body weight if you don’t have scales?

A

girth x 2 x length/11800

88
Q

How do you work out length of a horse?

A

Point of shoulder to tuber ischii

89
Q

For how much of pregnancy is maintenance adequate?

A

Until the last 90 days

90
Q

What does maintenace increase by during months 9, 10, 11?

A

1.11, 1.13, 1.2

91
Q

What should you increase maintenance by in pleasure horses?

A

1.2x

92
Q

What should you increase maintenance by in performance horses?

A

1.4x

93
Q

What should you increase maintenance by in high work horses?

A

1.9x

94
Q

For which horses is protein quality important for?

A

Growing, lactating, working

95
Q

Feeding which foods is usually adequate protein for horses?

A

Good quality forage and concentrates

96
Q

What % protein do growing horses need (of the total ration)?

A

14-16%

97
Q

What % protein do mature horses need (of the total ration)?

A

8-10%

98
Q

What % protein do pregnant horses need (of the total ration)?

A

10-11%

99
Q

What % protein do lactating horses need (of the total ration)?

A

12-14%

100
Q

What is geriatric protein requirement like?

A

Same as young as long as liver and kidneys are adequate

101
Q

How many more times as dense is oil compared to concentrates?

A

Twice

102
Q

How easily is oil digested?

A

Easily

103
Q

Which 6 types of horses should you give oil to?

A

Old, poor doers, high level of work, skin conditions, allergic airway disease, colic

104
Q

Why is oil good for gastric ulcers?

A

Reduces starch and delays emptying

105
Q

What is one problem with oil?

A

Can cause loose faeces

106
Q

What should you supplement oil with?

A

Vitamin E

107
Q

Which oil is best?

A

Linseed

108
Q

Why is coconut oil bad?

A

No omega 3, high inflammatory

109
Q

How much water per 100kg body weight do horses need?

A

5L

110
Q

Which horses have the lowest Ca and P requirement?

A

Mature

111
Q

When are Ca and P requirement the greatest?

A

Growth, last 1/3 pregnancy, lactation

112
Q

What should the Ca:P ratio be?

A

1.5 : 1

113
Q

If there is a renal function issue, what is the highest Ca should be?

A

10% total ration

114
Q

What amount of potassium do horses require?

A

0.5g/kg

115
Q

What % potassium do most roughages contain?

A

Greater than 1%

116
Q

How much do lactation and sweating increase potassium needs by?

A

1.8x

117
Q

How must salt loss can heavy sweating cause?

A

30g loss in 1-2 hours

118
Q

How do horses get themselves the correct salt level?

A

Seek when needed, rarely consume in excess

119
Q

How do you provide salt to horses?

A

Salt blocks

120
Q

What can you give to diarrhea patients to get their salt levels up?

A

Water buffet

121
Q

What is iron supplementation like in most horses?

A

Over-supplemented

122
Q

What is NOT an indicator for iron supplementation?

A

Low PCV

123
Q

How does extra iron affect RBC production?

A

Does not

124
Q

When should you only supplement iron?

A

If blood loss is significant

125
Q

Why can iron be toxic to young foals?

A

Difficult to excrete

126
Q

Which other minerals can iron interfere with the absorption of?

A

Zn, Cu

127
Q

If sub-clinical iron toxicity or deficiency more common?

A

Sub-clinical toxicity

128
Q

What does low typtophan cause in rats?

A

Anxiety

129
Q

What effect does high tryptophan possible have in horses?

A

Calming

130
Q

What is tryptophan sold for in horses?

A

Calmer

131
Q

What other things does ProKalm include?

A

Magnesium, B vitamins, amino acids, herbs

132
Q

What effect does valerian have in humans?

A

Sedative

133
Q

What effect does valerian have in pigs?

A

Reduces HR in response to behavioural stress

134
Q

Who has banned valerian?

A

FEI

135
Q

What is osteoarthritis a common cause of?

A

Lameness

136
Q

What six ways can you treat osteoarthritis?

A

Intra-articular steroids, polysulphated GAGs, hyaluronic acid injections, NSAIDs, farriery, joint fusion

137
Q

Which two ingredients are common in joint supplements?

A

Glucosamine and chondroitin

138
Q

What are polyunsaturated fatty acids given for?

A

Lubricate joints and stabilise cell membranes

139
Q

What are the only two examples of joint supplements working?

A

Omega-3 in dogs and biotin for hooves

140
Q

Why can x-rays be unhelpful for joints?

A

Hard to correlate x-ray severity and level of pain the horse is in

141
Q

What is bioavailability of glucosamine and chondroitin?

A

Poor - 2-30%

142
Q

What three conditions are altered microbiota associated with?

A

Colitis, colic, laminitis

143
Q

What are three treatments for altered microbiota?

A

Prebiotics, probiotics, faecal transfaunation

144
Q

What is evidence for probiotics like?

A

Lacking

145
Q

What can turmeric improve in humans?

A

Improves mobility in human OA

146
Q

What is the average dose of turmeric fed?

A

24-60g

147
Q

How does turmeric dose affect the effect?

A

Doesn’t

148
Q

What is serum protein albumin useful for?

A

Reflects protein status and intake

149
Q

What is serum protein albumin like in severe inflammation?

A

Low as it is an acute phase protein

150
Q

What 5 diseases in serum protein albumin low in?

A

Liver disease, protein losing enteropathy, parasitism, blood loss, protein losing nephropathy

151
Q

What is serum protein albumin like in dehydration?

A

Elevated

152
Q

What two things could cause age-related changes in digestibility?

A

Dental disease or parasite management

153
Q

What is the most common geriatric problem?

A

Weight loss

154
Q

Which three things is it good to increase in an older horse’s diet?

A

Crude protein, vegetable oil, additional fibre

155
Q

How can you improve starch digestibility?

A

Treat grains

156
Q

Why should you avoid legumes in old horses?

A

Reduce P consumption so give no more than 1% calcium

157
Q

Which supplements should you give if oil is added?

A

Vitamin C and E

158
Q

Under what conditions should you especially supplement vitamin C and E?

A

Chronic infections

159
Q

What are five signs of dental disease?

A

Weight loss, halitosis, quidding, choke, food packing

160
Q

What % of horses above 20 years old have dental disease?

A

60%

161
Q

Which length grass is better for mild dental disease?

A

Long

162
Q

Old horses can cope well even if which teeth are bad?

A

Incisors

163
Q

What happens if you give severe dental disease cases long fibre?

A

Packs into spaces

164
Q

Which three feeds are useful for severe dental disease with oil added?

A

Hay pellets, alfalfa cubes, soaked sugar beet

165
Q

What should you do to feeding frequency in dental disease?

A

Increase

166
Q

Proper name for Cushing’s?

A

PPID - pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction

167
Q

Five signs of cushings diease?

A

PUPD, pot bellied, sweating, laminitis, patchy hair

168
Q

What drug do you treat Cushing’s with?

A

Pergolide

169
Q

What is a disadvantage of Pergolide?

A

May have an adverse effect on appetite

170
Q

Why should you lower carb intake even in thin Cushing’s horses?

A

Laminitis risk even if thin

171
Q

What disease is EMS similar to?

A

T2D

172
Q

Where is the regional adiposity often found in EMS horses?

A

Cresty neck

173
Q

What should you test in a blood test for EMS?

A

Glucose and insulin

174
Q

Which kind of horses almost definitely have EMS?

A

Fat horses with laminitis

175
Q

Which diet is best for EMS horses?

A

Low starch, high calorie

176
Q

What can you add to the diet in EMS horses?

A

Oils or fibre-beet

177
Q

When are the fructans in the grass lowest?

A

Early/late in the day

178
Q

What increases the fructans in the grass?

A

Frost

179
Q

What should be the maximum CHO in the diet of an EMS horse?

A

10%

180
Q

What can you use for fibre in EMS horses?

A

Low calorie chaff

181
Q

What should you reduce forage to in EMS horses?

A

1.25-1.5% body weight

182
Q

What kind of grazing should you use at turnout for EMS horses?

A

Zero grazing

183
Q

Is chronic low grade liver disease or acute liver failure more common?

A

Chronic low grade

184
Q

How much liver function can be lost before clinical signs?

A

60-70%

185
Q

What parameter should you check in a sunburnt horse?

A

Liver function

186
Q

Why should you feed glycaemic CHO (corn, molassed beet pulp) to liver disease horses?

A

Lower capacity for gluconeogenesis

187
Q

Why should you avoid fat in liver disease horses?

A

Liver involved in fat metabolism

188
Q

Which supplements should you avoid in liver disease?

A

Iron

189
Q

Which multivitamins should you esecially give in liver disease?

A

B and fat soluble (A, D, E, K)

190
Q

Why should you lower protein in liver disease?

A

Reduce ammonia production

191
Q

When may a horse need more protein if it has liver disease?

A

Muscle wastage

192
Q

What feeds should you avoid in liver disease?

A

Wheat and oats

193
Q

What feeds are good in liver disease?

A

Corn, beet pulp, wheat bran

194
Q

What are three names given to a group of muscle disorders?

A

Rhabdomyolysis/ERS/tying up

195
Q

What is exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Exercise-associated muscle damage

196
Q

What causes recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Inherited abnormality

197
Q

What should you do to diet in recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Increase fat, reduce starch

198
Q

What is the integral part of the management of recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A

Diet

199
Q

What is PSSM?

A

Glucose storage disorder

200
Q

What predisposes to PSSM?

A

Genetics

201
Q

What should you do to diet in PSSM?

A

High fibre, lower starch and sugar

202
Q

What should you give as an ebergy source in PSSM?

A

Oil/fat

203
Q

How often should you exercise in PSSM?

A

Daily

204
Q

What % of body mass should you give in dry matter daily to achieve weight loss without hyperlipaemia?

A

1.25%

205
Q

What are two ways of prolonging eating times?

A

Feed balls or hay nets

206
Q

What’s the advantage of zero grazing?

A

Exercise and stimulation without uncontrolled intake

207
Q

What’s wrong with grazing muzzles?

A

Can cause frustration

208
Q

WHich drug may increase rates of weight loss?

A

Metformin

IAM (7 decks)

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