NURSING 2005_Neoplasia_1 Slide PP

Question 1

Front

Answer 1

Back

Question 2

<h1>Page 01</h1>

<br></br>What is hyperplasia?

Answer 2

B) Increase in number
Explanation: Hyperplasia refers to the proliferation of cells and an increase in their number, which is a characteristic feature of this type of plastic change.

Question 3

<h1>Page 01</h1>

<br></br>What is metaplasia?

Answer 3

C) Conversion of cell type
Explanation: Metaplasia involves the conversion of cell type, representing a change in the nature of cells, which distinguishes it as a type of plastic change.

Question 4

<h1>Page 01</h1>

<br></br>What is dysplasia?

Answer 4

E) Change in cell/tissue phenotype
Explanation: Dysplasia is characterized by a change in cell/tissue phenotype and a loss of uniformity, making it a distinct type of plastic change.

Question 5

<h1>Page 01</h1>

<br></br>What is neoplasia?

Answer 5

A) Abnormal proliferation of cells
Explanation: Neoplasia involves abnormal proliferation of cells, which sets it apart as a specific type of plastic change associated with the development of tumors.

Question 6

<h1>Page 02</h1>

<br></br>What is neoplasia?
A) A decrease in cell growth
B) A normal response to cellular signals
C) An increase in cell growth
D) A reversible change in cellular proliferation
E) A temporary alteration in the cellular genome

Answer 6

C) An increase in cell growth
Explanation: Neoplasia refers to new growth or tumour formation, characterized by an increase in cell growth that is poorly regulated and does not respond to normal signals controlling cell growth.

Question 7

<h1>Page 02</h1>

<br></br>What causes neoplasms (tumours)?
A) Normal cellular signals
B) Abnormal cellular genome
C) Controlled cellular proliferation
D) Reversible cellular changes
E) Temporary cellular maturation

Answer 7

B) Abnormal cellular genome
Explanation: Neoplasms, or tumours, are caused by alterations in the cellular genome, leading to uncontrolled cellular proliferation and the formation of tissue masses.

Question 8

<h1>Page 02</h1>

<br></br>How do neoplasms respond to normal signals controlling cell growth?
A) They respond normally
B) They do not respond
C) They respond reversibly
D) They respond temporarily
E) They respond excessively

Answer 8

B) They do not respond
Explanation: Neoplasms do not respond to normal signals controlling cell growth, indicating a failure of the normal mechanism that controls cellular proliferation and maturation.

Question 9

<h1>Page 02</h1>

<br></br>What happens when cells proliferate excessively in a poorly regulated manner?
A) They form reversible changes
B) They respond to normal signals
C) They form a lump or tissue mass
D) They undergo controlled maturation
E) They decrease in number

Answer 9

C) They form a lump or tissue mass
Explanation: Excessive and poorly regulated cellular proliferation leads to the formation of a lump or tissue mass, characteristic of neoplasms or tumours.

Question 10

<h1>Page 02</h1>

<br></br>What is the nature of the changes in neoplasia?
A) Temporary and reversible
B) Controlled and reversible
C) Permanent and irreversible
D) Excessive and reversible
E) Poorly regulated and reversible

Answer 10

C) Permanent and irreversible
Explanation: The changes associated with neoplasia are permanent and irreversible, indicating a fundamental alteration in cellular proliferation and maturation.

Question 11

<h1>Page 03</h1>

<br></br>What are the THREE P’s used to describe neoplasms?
A) Painless, Purposeful, Parasitic
B) Progressive, Painful, Purposeful
C) Progressive, Purposeless, Parasitic
D) Progressive, Purposeful, Painful
E) Progressive, Purposeless, Painless

Answer 11

C) Progressive, Purposeless, Parasitic
Explanation: Neoplasms are characterized by the THREE P’s: Progressive (independent of normal growth control), Purposeless (serving no direct purpose), and Parasitic (drawing nourishment from the body while contributing nothing to the body’s function). These characteristics distinguish neoplasms from normal tissue growth.

Question 12

<h1>Page 04</h1>

<br></br>What is the balance between in normal cell growth?
A) Cell growth and division only
B) Cell growth and division resulting in three daughter cells
C) Cell growth and division resulting in two daughter cells
D) Cell growth and division resulting in one daughter cell
E) Cell growth and division resulting in four daughter cells

Answer 12

C) Cell growth and division resulting in two daughter cells
Explanation: Normal cell growth involves a fine balance between cell proliferation, which results in two daughter cells, and apoptosis, or programmed cell death. This equilibrium is essential for maintaining healthy tissue and organ function.

Question 13

<h1>Page 04</h1>

<br></br>What is apoptosis in the context of normal cell growth?
A) Uncontrolled cell division
B) Programmed cell death
C) Rapid cell growth
D) Cell mutation
E) Cell differentiation

Answer 13

B) Programmed cell death
Explanation: Apoptosis refers to programmed cell death, which is a crucial process in normal cell growth. It helps to maintain tissue homeostasis and eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells.

Question 14

<h1>Page 04</h1>

<br></br>In a healthy adult, what is the relationship between cell proliferation and apoptosis?
A) Cell proliferation is greater than apoptosis
B) Cell proliferation is equal to apoptosis
C) Cell proliferation is less than apoptosis
D) Cell proliferation is unrelated to apoptosis
E) Cell proliferation is inhibited by apoptosis

Answer 14

B) Cell proliferation is equal to apoptosis
Explanation: In a healthy adult, the rate of cell proliferation is balanced by the rate of apoptosis, resulting in no net gain of new cells. This equilibrium is essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis and preventing abnormal cell growth.

Question 15

<h1>Page 05</h1>

<br></br>What is the imbalance that occurs in neoplasia?
A) Increase in cell size & decrease in cell division
B) Decrease in cell proliferation & increase in cell apoptosis
C) Increase in cell proliferation & decrease in cell apoptosis
D) Decrease in cell size & increase in cell division
E) No change in cell activity

Answer 15

C) Increase in cell proliferation & decrease in cell apoptosis
Explanation: Neoplasia is characterized by an imbalance leading to an increase in cell proliferation and a decrease in cell apoptosis, resulting in a net gain of cells and the development of a mass or tumor.

Question 16

<h1>Page 06</h1>

<br></br>What are the two types of genes responsible for maintaining the balance of cell proliferation?
A) Tumor-causing genes and suppressor genes
B) Proto-oncogenes and tumor-causing genes
C) Tumor-suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes
D) Oncogenes and suppressor genes
E) Proto-suppressor genes and tumor-causing genes

Answer 16

C) Tumor-suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes
Explanation: The balance of cell proliferation is maintained by two types of genes: proto-oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes. These genes play crucial roles in regulating the growth and division of cells, and any imbalance in their function can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer development.

Question 17

<h1>Page 07</h1>

<br></br>What is the role of proto-oncogenes in normal cells?
A) Inhibit cell growth and proliferation
B) Regulate normal cell growth and proliferation
C) Cause cell apoptosis
D) Prevent genetic alterations
E) Induce cell mutation

Answer 17

B) Regulate normal cell growth and proliferation
Explanation: Proto-oncogenes are responsible for regulating normal cell growth and proliferation, highlighting their essential role in maintaining cellular homeostasis.

Question 18

<h1>Page 07</h1>

<br></br>What happens when a genetic alteration occurs in a proto-oncogene?
A) Both alleles must be affected for an effect
B) No effect on cell behavior
C) Cells undergo apoptosis
D) Dominant genes are suppressed
E) Dominant genes are activated

Answer 18

E) Dominant genes are activated
Explanation: Genetic alterations in proto-oncogenes only need to occur in one of the two alleles to have an effect, leading to the activation of dominant genes and potentially contributing to the transformation of the proto-oncogene into an oncogene.

Question 19

<h1>Page 07</h1>

<br></br>What is the consequence of a proto-oncogene transforming into an oncogene?
A) Cells undergo apoptosis
B) Normal cell growth is inhibited
C) Cells designated for apoptosis survive and proliferate
D) Genetic alterations are repaired
E) Cell proliferation is halted

Answer 19

C) Cells designated for apoptosis survive and proliferate
Explanation: The transformation of a proto-oncogene into an oncogene causes cells designated for apoptosis to survive and proliferate instead, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and potential tumorigenesis.

Question 20

<h1>Page 08</h1>

<br></br>What is the function of tumor suppressor genes in normal cells?
A) Promote cell proliferation
B) Inhibit cell proliferation
C) Control cellular respiration
D) Enhance DNA repair
E) Increase mutation rate

Answer 20

B) Inhibit cell proliferation
Explanation: Tumor suppressor genes act as the ‘brakes’ for normal cell proliferation, exerting control over the rate of cell division and preventing uncontrolled growth, which is a crucial function in maintaining cellular homeostasis.

Question 21

<h1>Page 08</h1>

<br></br>What needs to occur for mutations in tumor suppressor genes to have an effect?
A) Mutations in one copy of the gene
B) Mutations in both copies of the gene
C) No mutations required
D) Mutations in the promoter region only
E) Mutations in the enhancer region only

Answer 21

B) Mutations in both copies of the gene
Explanation: Mutations in both copies of the tumor suppressor gene or allele are required for the gene to lose its inhibitory function, leading to the potential for uncontrolled cell proliferation, which is a characteristic of recessive genes.

Question 22

<h1>Page 08</h1>

<br></br>What is the consequence of mutations in tumor suppressor genes?
A) Enhanced inhibition of cell proliferation
B) Decreased mutation rate
C) Increased apoptosis
D) Loss of inhibition and increased mutation rate
E) Enhanced DNA repair

Answer 22

D) Loss of inhibition and increased mutation rate
Explanation: Mutations in tumor suppressor genes result in a loss of inhibition of cell proliferation and an increase in the mutation rate, which can contribute to the development of cancerous cells and the progression of tumors.

Question 23

<h1>Page 09</h1>

<br></br>What is the function of proto-oncogenes in normal cells?
A) To encode proteins that inhibit cell growth
B) To encode proteins that promote cell growth
C) To regulate blood pressure
D) To regulate bone density
E) To regulate body temperature

Answer 23

B) To encode proteins that promote cell growth
Explanation: Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help to regulate normal cell growth and proliferation, promoting the normal functioning of cells. When mutated, they can become activated oncogenes, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

Question 24

<h1>Page 09</h1>

<br></br>What is the effect of mutation in tumour-suppressor genes?
A) Mutations cause activation of genes
B) Mutations cause inactivation of genes, leading to loss of suppression characteristics
C) Mutations cause increased gene expression
D) Mutations cause the genes to become recessive
E) Mutations cause the genes to become dominant

Answer 24

B) Mutations cause inactivation of genes, leading to loss of suppression characteristics
Explanation: Mutations in tumour-suppressor genes lead to the inactivation of these genes, resulting in the loss of their ability to suppress abnormal cell growth. This can contribute to the development of cancer.

Question 25

<h1>Page 09</h1>

<br></br>How many alleles need to be affected for a mutation to occur in proto-oncogenes?
A) Only one (dominant)
B) Both must be affected (recessive)
C) At least three
D) At least four
E) None, mutations occur randomly

Answer 25

A) Only one (dominant)
Explanation: Only one allele needs to be affected (dominant) for a mutation to occur in proto-oncogenes, highlighting the potential impact of a single mutation on cell regulation and growth.

Question 26

<h1>Page 09</h1>

<br></br>Which genes ‘apply the breaks’ to normal cell proliferation?
A) Proto-oncogenes
B) Tumour-suppressor genes
C) Homeobox genes
D) Ribosomal genes
E) Polymerase genes

Answer 26

B) Tumour-suppressor genes
Explanation: Tumour-suppressor genes ‘apply the breaks’ to normal cell proliferation, playing a crucial role in regulating cell growth and preventing the development of cancer. Their inactivation due to mutations can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation.

Question 27

<h1>Page 09</h1>

<br></br>Which genes encode proteins that help to regulate normal cell growth and proliferation?
A) Proto-oncogenes
B) Tumour-suppressor genes
C) Homeobox genes
D) Ribosomal genes
E) Polymerase genes

Answer 27

A) Proto-oncogenes
Explanation: Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help to regulate normal cell growth and proliferation, contributing to the balanced and controlled growth of cells. When mutated, they can become activated oncogenes, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

Question 28

<h1>Page 10</h1>

<br></br>What encodes our genetic code to form gene sequences?
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Proteins
D) Carbohydrates
E) Lipids

Answer 28

B) DNA
Explanation: Our genetic code is encoded by DNA to form gene sequences, highlighting the fundamental role of DNA in storing and transmitting genetic information.

Question 29

<h1>Page 10</h1>

<br></br>What can mutations alter in the cell?
A) Cell size
B) Cell shape
C) Cell function
D) Cell color
E) Cell location

Answer 29

C) Cell function
Explanation: Mutations can alter the way certain proteins are produced, leading to changes in the function of the cell, which can have significant implications for cellular processes.

Question 30

<h1>Page 10</h1>

<br></br>What can cause genetic mutations?
A) Normal DNA replication
B) Exposure to non-carcinogenic agents
C) Lack of inherited mutations
D) Reduced cell proliferation
E) Decreased risk of mutagenesis

Answer 30

A) Normal DNA replication
Explanation: Mistakes made in normal DNA replication can lead to changes in genotype, which is one of the causes of genetic mutations, highlighting the significance of DNA replication in maintaining genetic integrity.

Question 31

<h1>Page 10</h1>

<br></br>What can increase the risk of mutagenesis?
A) Decreased cell proliferation
B) Chronic inflammation
C) Reduced exposure to carcinogenic agents
D) Inherited mutations
E) Normal DNA replication

Answer 31

B) Chronic inflammation
Explanation: Sustained proliferation from any cause, such as chronic inflammation, can increase the risk of mutagenesis, underscoring the link between prolonged cellular activity and genetic mutation.

Question 32

<h1>Page 11</h1>

<br></br>Where are hereditary genetic mutations present?
A) In somatic cells
B) In all cells of the body
C) Only in the brain cells
D) In acquired cells
E) In the cells of the immune system

Answer 32

B) In all cells of the body
Explanation: Hereditary genetic mutations are present in germ cells, which give rise to gametes, and therefore in all the cells of the body. This characteristic distinguishes them from acquired genetic mutations.

Question 33

<h1>Page 11</h1>

<br></br>How are hereditary genetic mutations passed down?
A) From parent to child
B) From sibling to sibling
C) From grandparent to grandchild
D) From aunt to nephew
E) From cousin to cousin

Answer 33

A) From parent to child
Explanation: Hereditary genetic mutations are passed from generation to generation, typically from parent to child, highlighting their transmission pattern and familial nature.

Question 34

<h1>Page 11</h1>

<br></br>When do acquired genetic mutations occur?
A) During embryonic development
B) During childhood
C) During adolescence
D) During a person’s life
E) During old age

Answer 34

D) During a person’s life
Explanation: Acquired genetic mutations occur from damage to genes during a person’s life, distinguishing them from hereditary mutations which are present in germ cells and passed down through generations.

Question 35

<h1>Page 11</h1>

<br></br>Where are acquired genetic mutations present?
A) In all cells of the body
B) Only in the brain cells
C) In somatic cells
D) In the cells of the immune system
E) In the cells of the digestive system

Answer 35

C) In somatic cells
Explanation: Acquired genetic mutations are present in only one or a few cells, occurring from damage to genes during a person’s life. This sets them apart from hereditary mutations which are present in all cells of the body.

Question 36

<h1>Page 12</h1>

<br></br>How do mutations contribute to cancer development?
A) By increasing the body’s immunity
B) By reducing cell division
C) By promoting healthy cell growth
D) By disrupting normal cell function
E) By preventing DNA damage

Answer 36

D) By disrupting normal cell function
Explanation: Mutations can cause cancer by disrupting normal cell function, leading to uncontrolled growth and division of abnormal cells. This disruption in cellular processes can contribute to the development of cancerous tumors.

Question 37

<h1>Page 13</h1>

<br></br>What can increase the chances of mistakes in normal DNA replication during separation of chromosomes?
A) Exposure to sunlight
B) Exposure to carcinogenic substances
C) Lack of sleep
D) Regular exercise
E) Consumption of fruits and vegetables

Answer 37

B) Exposure to carcinogenic substances
Explanation: Exposure to carcinogenic substances can increase the chances of mistakes in normal DNA replication during the separation of chromosomes, thereby contributing to the initiation of cancer formation, known as carcinogenesis.

Question 38

<h1>Page 13</h1>

<br></br>When do mistakes in normal DNA replication occur naturally?
A) During photosynthesis
B) During respiration
C) During mitosis
D) During digestion
E) During excretion

Answer 38

C) During mitosis
Explanation: Mistakes in normal DNA replication occur naturally during the separation of chromosomes, specifically during mitosis, which is a crucial phase in the cell cycle.

Question 39

<h1>Page 13</h1>

<br></br>What is the initiation of cancer formation known as?
A) Carcinoma
B) Carcinogenesis
C) Carcinogen
D) Carcinoma formation
E) Carcinoma initiation

Answer 39

B) Carcinogenesis
Explanation: The initiation of cancer formation is known as carcinogenesis, which involves the process of mistakes in normal DNA replication and the impact of exposure to carcinogenic substances.

Question 40

<h1>Page 14</h1>

<br></br>What is the role of an ‘initiator’ in carcinogenesis?
A) It causes cell mutation
B) It repairs DNA damage
C) It slows down cell division
D) It promotes cell growth
E) It enhances DNA stability

Answer 40

A) It causes cell mutation
Explanation: Initiators are responsible for the initial cell mutation, leading to the onset of carcinogenesis. They cause rapid and irreversible damage to DNA, known as mutagenic, and are exemplified by various substances such as alkylating agents, hydrocarbons, aromatic amines, nitrosamines, and tobacco-specific nitrosamines.

Question 41

<h1>Page 14</h1>

<br></br>What characterizes the damage caused by initiators to DNA?
A) Reversible
B) Slow
C) Mutagenic
D) Non-destructive
E) Protective

Answer 41

C) Mutagenic
Explanation: Initiators cause rapid and irreversible damage to DNA, known as mutagenic, which is a key characteristic of their impact on cellular genetic material. This damage is a crucial step in the process of carcinogenesis.

Question 42

<h1>Page 14</h1>

<br></br>Which of the following is an example of an initiator in carcinogenesis?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antioxidants
C) Alkylating agents
D) Probiotics
E) Analgesics

Answer 42

C) Alkylating agents
Explanation: Alkylating agents are examples of initiators in carcinogenesis, contributing to the initial cell mutation and the subsequent development of cancer. These agents are known for causing rapid and irreversible damage to DNA.

Question 43

<h1>Page 14</h1>

<br></br>What is the primary effect of UV irradiation in the context of carcinogenesis?
A) DNA repair
B) Cell regeneration
C) Cell differentiation
D) Cell mutation
E) Apoptosis

Answer 43

D) Cell mutation
Explanation: UV irradiation, such as sunlight, plays a significant role in carcinogenesis by causing cell mutation. This exposure contributes to the initiation of cancer development through its impact on DNA.

Question 44

<h1>Page 14</h1>

<br></br>What is the common characteristic of substances like hydrocarbons and tobacco-specific nitrosamines in carcinogenesis?
A) They promote cell growth
B) They are non-mutagenic
C) They are antioxidants
D) They cause irreversible DNA damage
E) They induce apoptosis

Answer 44

D) They cause irreversible DNA damage
Explanation: Substances like hydrocarbons and tobacco-specific nitrosamines are known for causing irreversible damage to DNA, a characteristic that aligns with their role as initiators in the process of carcinogenesis. This damage contributes to the development of cancer.

Question 45

<h1>Page 15</h1>

<br></br>What is the second step in the process of carcinogenesis?
A) Exposure to hormones
B) Exposure to chronic inflammation
C) Exposure to cyclamates
D) Exposure to promoters
E) Exposure to viruses

Answer 45

D) Exposure to promoters
Explanation: The second step in the process of carcinogenesis involves exposure to ‘promoters’, which can cause cells to divide and undergo clonal expansion, amplifying the effect of a low-dose initiator. Promoters, such as hormones, chronic inflammation, cyclamates, and some viruses, act reversibly and can be turned on and off.

Question 46

<h1>Page 15</h1>

<br></br>What effect do promoters have on cells in the process of carcinogenesis?
A) They cause cells to shrink
B) They cause cells to multiply with different DNA
C) They cause cells to divide and undergo clonal expansion
D) They cause cells to become dormant
E) They cause cells to migrate to other organs

Answer 46

C) They cause cells to divide and undergo clonal expansion
Explanation: Promoters have the effect of causing cells to divide and undergo clonal expansion, resulting in the proliferation of cells with the same DNA. This amplifies the effect of a low-dose initiator and is a key step in the process of carcinogenesis.

Question 47

<h1>Page 15</h1>

<br></br>What is a characteristic of promoters in the process of carcinogenesis?
A) They act irreversibly
B) They can only amplify high-dose initiators
C) They are always active
D) They can be turned on and off
E) They are only found in artificial sweeteners

Answer 47

D) They can be turned on and off
Explanation: Promoters in the process of carcinogenesis are characterized by their reversible action, as they can be turned on and off. This feature allows them to amplify the effect of a low-dose initiator, contributing to the development of cancer.

Question 48

<h1>Page 15</h1>

<br></br>Which of the following is an example of a promoter in the process of carcinogenesis?
A) Aspirin
B) Vitamin C
C) Oestrogen
D) Antibiotics
E) Antihistamines

Answer 48

C) Oestrogen
Explanation: Oestrogen is an example of a promoter in the process of carcinogenesis. Other examples include chronic inflammation, cyclamates, and some viruses, all of which can amplify the effect of a low-dose initiator and contribute to the development of cancer.

Question 49

<h1>Page 15</h1>

<br></br>What is the role of promoters in the process of carcinogenesis?
A) They prevent cell division
B) They cause cells to mutate
C) They amplify the effect of a low-dose initiator
D) They inhibit the effect of a low-dose initiator
E) They promote cell differentiation

Answer 49

C) They amplify the effect of a low-dose initiator
Explanation: Promoters play a crucial role in the process of carcinogenesis by amplifying the effect of a low-dose initiator, leading to the division and clonal expansion of cells. This process contributes to the development and progression of cancer.

Question 50

<h1>Page 16</h1>

<br></br>What is the meaning of ‘IN SITU’ in the categorization of neoplasms?
A) In a foreign country
B) In a specific location
C) In a state of uncertainty
D) In its place
E) In a state of emergency

Answer 50

D) In its place
Explanation: ‘IN SITU’ in the categorization of neoplasms refers to the neoplasm being in its original or primary location, without having invaded surrounding tissues or organs. This term is used to describe the early stage of cancer development.

Question 51

<h1>Page 16</h1>

<br></br>Which type of neoplasm is characterized by uncertain or unknown behavior?
A) Invasive neoplasm
B) Malignant neoplasm
C) Benign neoplasm
D) In situ neoplasm
E) Metastatic neoplasm

Answer 51

D) In situ neoplasm
Explanation: Neoplasms with uncertain or unknown behavior are categorized as ‘in situ’ neoplasms, indicating that their potential for progression to invasive or malignant forms is not yet determined.

Question 52

<h1>Page 16</h1>

<br></br>Which type of neoplasm is non-cancerous and does not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body?
A) Invasive neoplasm
B) Malignant neoplasm
C) Benign neoplasm
D) In situ neoplasm
E) Metastatic neoplasm

Answer 52

C) Benign neoplasm
Explanation: Benign neoplasms are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body. They are typically localized and have a low potential for causing harm.

Question 53

<h1>Page 16</h1>

<br></br>Which type of neoplasm is cancerous and has the potential to invade and destroy nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body?
A) Invasive neoplasm
B) Malignant neoplasm
C) Benign neoplasm
D) In situ neoplasm
E) Metastatic neoplasm

Answer 53

B) Malignant neoplasm
Explanation: Malignant neoplasms are cancerous growths that have the potential to invade and destroy nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body, posing a significant health risk.

Question 54

<h1>Page 17</h1>

<br></br>What is a characteristic of benign tumors?
A) Contained and invasive
B) Metastatic potential
C) Poorly differentiated
D) Tend to grow slowly
E) Generally faster growth

Answer 54

D) Tend to grow slowly
Explanation: Benign tumors are known for their slow growth, which is a key characteristic that distinguishes them from malignant tumors.

Question 55

<h1>Page 17</h1>

<br></br>What is a distinguishing feature of malignant tumors?
A) Contained and invasive
B) No metastatic potential
C) Poorly differentiated
D) Tend to grow slowly
E) Generally faster growth

Answer 55

C) Poorly differentiated
Explanation: Malignant tumors are characterized by being poorly differentiated, indicating a lack of normal tissue structure and function, which contributes to their aggressive nature.

Question 56

<h1>Page 18</h1>

<br></br>What is a characteristic of well-differentiated neoplasms?
A) Resembles mature cells
B) High mitotic activity
C) Poor prognosis
D) More cytologic atypia
E) Low resemblance to mature cells

Answer 56

A) Resembles mature cells
Explanation: Well-differentiated neoplasms are characterized by resembling mature cells, exhibiting less cytologic atypia, and having little mitotic activity, which is typically associated with a better prognosis.

Question 57

<h1>Page 18</h1>

<br></br>What is a defining feature of poorly differentiated neoplasms?
A) Resembles mature cells
B) Low mitotic activity
C) Better prognosis
D) Poor resemblance to mature cells
E) Less cytologic atypia

Answer 57

D) Poor resemblance to mature cells
Explanation: Poorly differentiated neoplasms are characterized by poor resemblance to mature cells, increased cytologic atypia, and higher mitotic activity, which is typically associated with a poorer prognosis.

Question 58

<h1>Page 18</h1>

<br></br>What does the term ‘well-differentiated’ refer to in neoplasms?
A) High mitotic activity
B) Poor resemblance to mature cells
C) Low cytologic atypia
D) Resemblance to mature cells
E) Poor prognosis

Answer 58

D) Resemblance to mature cells
Explanation: The term ‘well-differentiated’ in neoplasms refers to the extent to which tumour cells resemble mature cells histologically, exhibiting less cytologic atypia and little mitotic activity, and is usually associated with a better prognosis.

Question 59

<h1>Page 18</h1>

<br></br>What is the defining factor of poorly differentiated neoplasms?
A) Low mitotic activity
B) Resemblance to mature cells
C) Better prognosis
D) Poor cytologic atypia
E) Poor resemblance to mature cells

Answer 59

E) Poor resemblance to mature cells
Explanation: The defining factor of poorly differentiated neoplasms is their poor resemblance to mature cells, along with more cytologic atypia and increased mitotic activity, which is usually associated with a poorer prognosis.

Question 60

<h1>Page 18</h1>

<br></br>What does the term ‘poorly differentiated’ indicate in neoplasms?
A) High mitotic activity
B) Resemblance to mature cells
C) Low cytologic atypia
D) Poor resemblance to mature cells
E) Good prognosis

Answer 60

D) Poor resemblance to mature cells
Explanation: The term ‘poorly differentiated’ in neoplasms indicates the poor resemblance of tumour cells to mature cells histologically, along with more cytologic atypia and increased mitotic activity, which is usually associated with a poorer prognosis.

Question 61

<h1>Page 19</h1>

<br></br>What distinguishes benign tumors from malignant tumors?
A) Ability to invade adjacent tissue
B) Ability to metastasize to distant sites
C) Both A and B
D) Slow growth rate
E) Life-threatening nature

Answer 61

C) Both A and B
Explanation: Benign tumors lack the ability to invade adjacent tissue or metastasize to distant sites, which are key characteristics that differentiate them from malignant tumors. This distinction is crucial in classifying tumors as ‘cancer’ or non-cancerous.

Question 62

<h1>Page 19</h1>

<br></br>What is a notable characteristic of benign tumors once they are removed?
A) They grow back rapidly
B) They remain localized
C) They become malignant
D) They metastasize
E) They cause life-threatening complications

Answer 62

B) They remain localized
Explanation: Once removed, benign tumors generally do not grow back and remain localized, in contrast to malignant tumors which have the potential to spread to other parts of the body. This characteristic contributes to their non-life-threatening nature.

Question 63

<h1>Page 19</h1>

<br></br>What are some potential problems caused by benign tumors?
A) Rapid growth
B) Metastasis
C) Ulceration and hemorrhage
D) Obstruction and compression
E) Ability to invade adjacent tissue

Answer 63

D) Obstruction and compression
Explanation: Benign tumors can cause serious problems such as obstruction, compression on surrounding tissue and nerves, and become space-occupying lesions or masses. These complications can lead to significant health issues despite their non-cancerous nature.

Question 64

<h1>Page 19</h1>

<br></br>Why are benign tumors not classified as ‘cancer’?
A) They are slow-growing
B) They lack the ability to invade adjacent tissue
C) They are not life-threatening
D) They do not metastasize
E) They remain localized

Answer 64

B) They lack the ability to invade adjacent tissue
Explanation: Benign tumors are not classified as ‘cancer’ because they lack the ability to invade adjacent tissue or metastasize to distant sites, which are defining characteristics of cancerous tumors. This differentiation is crucial in understanding the nature of benign tumors.

Question 65

<h1>Page 19</h1>

<br></br>What distinguishes benign tumors from malignant tumors in terms of their potential to cause blood loss?
A) They have no potential for ulceration or hemorrhage
B) They have a high potential for ulceration or hemorrhage
C) They cause minimal blood loss
D) They cause life-threatening hemorrhage
E) They have the ability to metastasize

Answer 65

B) They have a high potential for ulceration or hemorrhage
Explanation: Benign tumors have the potential for ulceration and hemorrhage, causing blood loss, which is a serious complication despite their non-cancerous nature. This distinguishes them from malignant tumors and underscores the need for appropriate management.

Question 66

<h1>Page 20</h1>

<br></br>What is a characteristic of malignant tumors?
A) They cannot penetrate surrounding tissue
B) They do not have metastatic potential
C) They can only metastasize to nearby sites of the body
D) They are not classified as ‘cancer’
E) They can penetrate and invade surrounding tissue and have metastatic potential

Answer 66

E) They can penetrate and invade surrounding tissue and have metastatic potential
Explanation: Malignant tumors are characterized by their ability to penetrate and invade surrounding tissue, as well as their potential to metastasize to distant sites of the body, making them a significant threat to health.

Question 67

<h1>Page 20</h1>

<br></br>How are malignant tumors classified?
A) As benign growths
B) As non-cancerous
C) As pre-cancerous
D) As ‘cancer’
E) As non-threatening growths

Answer 67

D) As ‘cancer’
Explanation: Malignant tumors are classified as ‘cancer’ due to their invasive nature, ability to metastasize, and potential to be life-threatening, distinguishing them from benign tumors.

Question 68

<h1>Page 20</h1>

<br></br>What can be a consequence of the destruction of tissue by malignant tumors?
A) Increased normal function
B) No impact on normal function
C) Damage to vital structures
D) Improved vital structures
E) Reduced vital structures

Answer 68

C) Damage to vital structures
Explanation: The destruction of tissue by malignant tumors can lead to damage to vital structures, ulceration, hemorrhage, perforation, and obstruction, resulting in significant health complications.

Question 69

<h1>Page 20</h1>

<br></br>What is a potential systemic effect of malignant tumors?
A) Increased body strength
B) Weight gain
C) Systemic cachexia
D) Improved body function
E) Enhanced body metabolism

Answer 69

C) Systemic cachexia
Explanation: Malignant tumors can lead to systemic cachexia, which is characterized by weakness and wasting of the body, indicating the detrimental impact of these tumors on overall health.

Question 70

<h1>Page 21</h1>

<br></br>What is the key difference between benign and malignant tumors?
A) Benign tumors are cancerous, while malignant tumors are not
B) Benign tumors do not spread, while malignant tumors can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body
C) Benign tumors are always fatal, while malignant tumors are curable
D) Benign tumors are smaller in size than malignant tumors
E) Benign tumors are more painful than malignant tumors

Answer 70

B) Benign tumors do not spread, while malignant tumors can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body
Explanation: The key difference between benign and malignant tumors lies in their ability to spread. Benign tumors do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors have the potential to do so, making them more dangerous.

Question 71

<h1>Page 22</h1>

<br></br>What is the key difference between benign and malignant tumors?
A) Benign tumors are cancerous, while malignant tumors are non-cancerous
B) Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors can metastasize
C) Benign tumors are always life-threatening, while malignant tumors are not
D) Benign tumors are more common in older individuals, while malignant tumors occur in younger individuals
E) Benign tumors are smaller in size, while malignant tumors are larger

Answer 71

B) Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors can metastasize
Explanation: The key difference between benign and malignant tumors is that benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors have the potential to metastasize, making them more dangerous and difficult to treat.

Question 72

<h1>Page 22</h1>

<br></br>Which type of tumor is more likely to be life-threatening?
A) Benign tumor
B) Malignant tumor
C) Both are equally life-threatening
D) Neither are life-threatening
E) It depends on the location of the tumor

Answer 72

B) Malignant tumor
Explanation: Malignant tumors are more likely to be life-threatening as they have the ability to invade and damage nearby tissues and organs, as well as spread to other parts of the body, posing a greater risk to the individual’s health.

Question 73

<h1>Page 22</h1>

<br></br>What is the typical growth pattern of benign tumors?
A) Rapid and aggressive growth
B) Slow and progressive growth
C) No growth at all
D) Shrinking in size over time
E) Growth pattern varies widely

Answer 73

B) Slow and progressive growth
Explanation: Benign tumors typically exhibit slow and progressive growth, and they do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body, which contributes to their non-life-threatening nature.

Question 74

<h1>Page 22</h1>

<br></br>Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant tumors?
A) Encapsulation
B) Well-defined borders
C) Limited to one location in the body
D) Ability to metastasize
E) Slow growth rate

Answer 74

D) Ability to metastasize
Explanation: Malignant tumors have the characteristic ability to metastasize, meaning they can spread to other parts of the body, making them more difficult to treat and more likely to be life-threatening.

Question 75

<h1>Page 22</h1>

<br></br>What is the typical outcome for individuals with benign tumors?
A) Complete recovery after surgical removal
B) High likelihood of recurrence after treatment
C) Inevitable progression to malignancy
D) No impact on overall health
E) Rapid deterioration of health

Answer 75

A) Complete recovery after surgical removal
Explanation: In general, individuals with benign tumors have a favorable outcome, as these tumors can often be completely removed through surgery, leading to a complete recovery and minimal impact on overall health.

Question 76

<h1>Page 23</h1>

<br></br>What is the key difference between benign and malignant tumors?
A) Benign tumors are cancerous, while malignant tumors are non-cancerous
B) Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors can metastasize
C) Benign tumors are always fatal, while malignant tumors are curable
D) Benign tumors grow rapidly, while malignant tumors grow slowly
E) Benign tumors are more common in children, while malignant tumors are more common in adults

Answer 76

B) Benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors can metastasize
Explanation: The key difference between benign and malignant tumors is that benign tumors do not spread to other parts of the body, while malignant tumors have the potential to metastasize, making them more dangerous and difficult to treat.

Question 77

<h1>Page 23</h1>

<br></br>Which type of tumor is more likely to be life-threatening?
A) Benign tumor
B) Malignant tumor
C) Both are equally life-threatening
D) Neither are life-threatening
E) It depends on the location of the tumor

Answer 77

B) Malignant tumor
Explanation: Malignant tumors are more likely to be life-threatening as they have the ability to spread to other parts of the body, causing damage to vital organs and tissues.

Question 78

<h1>Page 23</h1>

<br></br>What is the typical growth pattern of benign tumors?
A) Rapid growth
B) Slow growth
C) No growth
D) Shrinking in size
E) Unpredictable growth

Answer 78

B) Slow growth
Explanation: Benign tumors typically grow slowly and do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body, distinguishing them from malignant tumors.

Question 79

<h1>Page 23</h1>

<br></br>Which of the following statements is true about malignant tumors?
A) They are always curable
B) They do not invade nearby tissues
C) They do not metastasize
D) They can be life-threatening
E) They are more common in children

Answer 79

D) They can be life-threatening
Explanation: Malignant tumors have the potential to be life-threatening as they can invade nearby tissues and metastasize to other parts of the body, posing a significant risk to the patient’s health.

Question 80

<h1>Page 23</h1>

<br></br>What is a distinguishing feature of benign tumors?
A) They are always cancerous
B) They can metastasize to other parts of the body
C) They grow rapidly
D) They do not invade nearby tissues
E) They are more common in adults

Answer 80

D) They do not invade nearby tissues
Explanation: A key characteristic of benign tumors is that they do not invade nearby tissues or metastasize to other parts of the body, making them less aggressive and generally non-life-threatening.

Question 81

<h1>Page 24</h1>

<br></br>What is metastasis in cancer?
A) The growth of the initial tumor
B) The spread of cancer cells to a distant site
C) The shrinking of the tumor
D) The development of a benign tumor
E) The formation of a cyst

Answer 81

B) The spread of cancer cells to a distant site
Explanation: Metastasis in cancer refers to the process where cancer cells detach from the initial tumor, travel through the blood, lymph, or body cavities, and start growing in a site distant from the site of origin, resulting in the development of a separate (secondary) tumor.

Question 82

<h1>Page 25</h1>

<br></br>When does metastasis typically occur in the tumour’s life cycle?
A) Early on
B) Midway through
C) Late in the tumour’s life cycle
D) At any stage
E) Only after treatment

Answer 82

C) Late in the tumour’s life cycle
Explanation: Metastasis is known to occur late in the tumour’s life cycle, after the tumour has gained a wide range of mutations and developed phenotypic attributes favorable for metastasis to take place.

Question 83

<h1>Page 25</h1>

<br></br>What must tumours be able to do in order for metastasis to occur?
A) Remain stationary
B) Decrease in size
C) Gain a wide range of mutations
D) Develop a protective shell
E) Change color

Answer 83

C) Gain a wide range of mutations
Explanation: Tumours need to gain a wide range of mutations before they have phenotypic attributes that are favorable for metastasis to occur, highlighting the complexity of the process.

Question 84

<h1>Page 25</h1>

<br></br>What is one of the requirements for tumours to spread during metastasis?
A) Remain attached to the original tumour site
B) Be immobile
C) Stimulate angiogenesis independently
D) Decrease in size
E) Avoid surrounding tissue

Answer 84

C) Stimulate angiogenesis independently
Explanation: Tumours must be able to stimulate angiogenesis independently in order to gain access to blood, lymph, or body cavities to spread, which is a crucial step in the metastatic process.

Question 85

<h1>Page 25</h1>

<br></br>What is a key factor for tumours to survive within the circulation during metastasis?
A) Rapid growth
B) High oxygen levels
C) Low mutation rate
D) Ability to adhere to new tissue
E) Ability to change shape

Answer 85

D) Ability to adhere to new tissue
Explanation: Tumours must be able to adhere to new tissue distant from the site of origin in order to survive within the circulation during metastasis, demonstrating the adaptability required for successful metastatic spread.

Question 86

<h1>Page 25</h1>

<br></br>What is a crucial ability for tumours during metastasis?
A) Remain in the same environment
B) Avoid surrounding tissue
C) Detach from the original tumour site
D) Decrease in size
E) Decrease in mobility

Answer 86

C) Detach from the original tumour site
Explanation: Tumours must be able to detach from the original tumour site in order to initiate the process of metastasis, marking a critical step in the spread of cancer to distant sites.

Question 87

<h1>Page 26</h1>

<br></br>Which route of metastasis is most common with sarcomas?
A) Blood (haematogenous spread)
B) Lymph (lymphatic spread)
C) Direct seeding of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Answer 87

A) Blood (haematogenous spread)
Explanation: Sarcomas most commonly metastasize through the blood, a process known as haematogenous spread. This route is particularly associated with the spread of sarcomas, distinguishing it from other types of metastasis.

Question 88

<h1>Page 26</h1>

<br></br>Which route of metastasis is most common with carcinomas?
A) Blood (haematogenous spread)
B) Lymph (lymphatic spread)
C) Direct seeding of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Answer 88

B) Lymph (lymphatic spread)
Explanation: Carcinomas most commonly metastasize through the lymphatic system, a process known as lymphatic spread. This route is particularly associated with the spread of carcinomas, distinguishing it from other types of metastasis.

Question 89

<h1>Page 26</h1>

<br></br>Which route of metastasis involves the peritoneum, pleura, and joint spaces?
A) Blood (haematogenous spread)
B) Lymph (lymphatic spread)
C) Direct seeding of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Answer 89

C) Direct seeding of body cavities (transcoelomic spread)
Explanation: The direct seeding of body cavities, also known as transcoelomic spread, involves the spread of cancer to the peritoneum, pleura, and joint spaces. This route of metastasis is distinct from the other routes and is associated with specific types of cancer.

Question 90

<h1>Page 27</h1>

<br></br>What is metastasis in relation to cancer cells?
A) When cells remain at the original site
B) When cells detach and grow in a distant site
C) When cells divide rapidly
D) When cells become dormant
E) When cells shrink in size

Answer 90

B) When cells detach and grow in a distant site
Explanation: Metastasis refers to the process in which cancer cells detach from the original site and start growing in a different location within the body, indicating the spread of cancer beyond its initial point of origin.

Question 91

<h1>Page 27</h1>

<br></br>What is direct invasion in the context of cancer?
A) When cells detach and grow in a distant site
B) When cells remain at the original site
C) When cells divide rapidly
D) When cells become dormant
E) When cells extend from the original tumor

Answer 91

E) When cells extend from the original tumor
Explanation: Direct invasion occurs when cancer cells extend from the original tumor, representing the local spread of cancer within the same area or organ, as opposed to the distant spread seen in metastasis.

Question 92

<h1>Page 28</h1>

<br></br>Which of the following is NOT a common site of metastasis?
A) Liver
B) Lung
C) Heart
D) Bone
E) Adrenal glands

Answer 92

C) Heart
Explanation: The heart is not a common site of metastasis. The provided content lists the liver, lung, brain, bone, and adrenal glands as the most common sites due to their large blood supply.

Question 93

<h1>Page 28</h1>

<br></br>What is a macroscopic characteristic of metastasized cells?
A) They have a single tumor
B) They have multiple lesions
C) They change color
D) They become smaller in size
E) They become transparent

Answer 93

B) They have multiple lesions
Explanation: Metastasized cells will have multiple lesions rather than a single tumor, indicating a spread of cancer cells to different areas of the body.

Question 94

<h1>Page 28</h1>

<br></br>How do metastasized cells appear in terms of their original cell type?
A) They change into a different cell type
B) They become larger in size
C) They lose their color
D) They still look like cells of origin
E) They become unrecognizable

Answer 94

D) They still look like cells of origin
Explanation: Once metastasized, the cells still look like cells of origin. For example, a melanoma in the brain still looks brown/black because they are melanoma skin cells, highlighting the preservation of their original appearance.

Question 95

<h1>Page 29</h1>

<br></br>What are the two prognostic criteria used to determine the severity of cancer?
A) Size and color
B) Histological and microscopic
C) Stage and grade
D) Location and age
E) Genetic and environmental

Answer 95

C) Stage and grade
Explanation: The severity of cancer is determined using the prognostic criteria of stage and grade, which involve assessing the macroscopic and histological/microscopic characteristics of the cancer. These criteria play a crucial role in understanding the extent and aggressiveness of the disease.

Question 96

<h1>Page 29</h1>

<br></br>What does the grade of cancer refer to?
A) The size of the tumor
B) The microscopic characteristics
C) The location of the cancer
D) The age of the patient
E) The genetic makeup of the cancer

Answer 96

B) The microscopic characteristics
Explanation: The grade of cancer refers to the histological or microscopic characteristics of the tumor, providing insights into the level of abnormality and aggressiveness of the cancer cells. This information is crucial in determining the severity and potential spread of the cancer.

Question 97

<h1>Page 29</h1>

<br></br>What does the stage of cancer assess?
A) The size of the tumor
B) The microscopic characteristics
C) The location of the cancer
D) The spread of the cancer
E) The genetic makeup of the cancer

Answer 97

D) The spread of the cancer
Explanation: The stage of cancer evaluates the macroscopic characteristics of the disease, particularly focusing on the extent of spread or metastasis. This assessment is crucial in determining the severity and prognosis of the cancer.

Question 98

<h1>Page 29</h1>

<br></br>What is the relationship between the grade/stage of cancer and the prognosis?
A) Higher grade/stage leads to a better prognosis
B) Lower grade/stage leads to a better prognosis
C) Grade/stage does not affect the prognosis
D) Prognosis is unrelated to cancer grade/stage
E) Grade/stage only affects the treatment, not the prognosis

Answer 98

B) Lower grade/stage leads to a better prognosis
Explanation: The lower the grade and stage of the cancer, the better the prognosis. This indicates that less aggressive and less advanced cancers are associated with a more favorable outlook, emphasizing the importance of early detection and treatment.

Question 99

<h1>Page 30</h1>

<br></br>What is the definition of ‘grade’ based on differentiation in tumours?
A) The size of the tumour cells
B) The extent to which tumour cells resemble their normal counterparts histologically
C) The location of the tumour in the body
D) The number of tumour cells present
E) The age of the patient

Answer 99

B) The extent to which tumour cells resemble their normal counterparts histologically
Explanation: Grade in the context of tumours refers to the degree to which tumour cells resemble their normal counterparts histologically. This distinction is crucial in determining the prognosis and potential aggressiveness of the tumour.

Question 100

<h1>Page 30</h1>

<br></br>What are the characteristics of a well-differentiated tumour?
A) Resemble mature cells, high mitotic activity, poor prognosis
B) Resemble mature cells, less cytologic atypia, little mitotic activity, better prognosis
C) Poorly resemble mature cells, more cytologic atypia, more mitotic activity, poorer prognosis
D) Resemble mature cells, more genomic instability, better prognosis
E) Poorly resemble mature cells, less cytologic atypia, little mitotic activity, better prognosis

Answer 100

B) Resemble mature cells, less cytologic atypia, little mitotic activity, better prognosis
Explanation: Well-differentiated tumours exhibit characteristics such as resembling mature cells, less cytologic atypia, and little mitotic activity, which collectively contribute to a better prognosis for the patient.

Question 101

<h1>Page 30</h1>

<br></br>What are the characteristics of a poorly differentiated tumour?
A) Resemble mature cells, high mitotic activity, poor prognosis
B) Resemble mature cells, less cytologic atypia, little mitotic activity, better prognosis
C) Poorly resemble mature cells, more cytologic atypia, more mitotic activity, poorer prognosis
D) Resemble mature cells, more genomic instability, better prognosis
E) Poorly resemble mature cells, more cytologic atypia, more mitotic activity, poorer prognosis

Answer 101

E) Poorly resemble mature cells, more cytologic atypia, more mitotic activity, poorer prognosis
Explanation: Poorly differentiated tumours are characterized by their poor resemblance to mature cells, increased cytologic atypia, and heightened mitotic activity, leading to a poorer prognosis due to their increased aggressiveness and likelihood of metastasis.

Question 102

<h1>Page 31</h1>

<br></br>What factors are considered in determining the progression of malignancy in terms of local spread and metastasis?
A) Age and gender
B) Size and color of the tumour
C) Depth of invasion and location of metastasis
D) Blood type and cholesterol levels
E) Diet and exercise habits

Answer 102

C) Depth of invasion and location of metastasis
Explanation: The progression of malignancy is determined by factors such as the depth of invasion of the primary tumor and the location of metastasis, which are crucial in assessing the spread and severity of the cancer.

Question 103

<h1>Page 31</h1>

<br></br>How are cancer stages generally grouped?
A) A - D
B) 1 - 5
C) 0 - 4
D) I - IV
E) Low, medium, high, very high

Answer 103

C) 0 - 4
Explanation: Cancer stages are generally grouped into stages 0 to 4, providing a standardized classification system to categorize the extent and severity of the cancer.

Question 104

<h1>Page 31</h1>

<br></br>What is used to determine the spread of cancer, such as the presence of metastasis?
A) Blood pressure measurements
B) Radiological and pathological assessments
C) Eye color examination
D) Dental check-ups
E) Hearing tests

Answer 104

B) Radiological and pathological assessments
Explanation: The spread of cancer, including the presence of metastasis, is determined by a combination of radiological and pathological assessments, which are essential in evaluating the progression and severity of the disease.

Question 105

<h1>Page 32</h1>

<br></br>What was the age-adjusted incidence rate for cancer in South Australia in 2017?
A) 500.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 400.0 for females
B) 700.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 600.0 for females
C) 594.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 452.3 for females
D) 300.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 250.0 for females
E) 800.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 700.0 for females

Answer 105

C) 594.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 452.3 for females
Explanation: The age-adjusted incidence rate for cancer in South Australia in 2017 was 594.0 new cases per 100,000 males and 452.3 for females, indicating the prevalence of cancer in the region during that year.

Question 106

<h1>Page 32</h1>

<br></br>What was the age-adjusted mortality rate for cancer in South Australia in 2017?
A) 100.0 deaths per 100,000 for males and 80.0 for females
B) 300.0 deaths per 100,000 for males and 250.0 for females
C) 211.8 deaths per 100,000 for males and 143.6 for females
D) 400.0 deaths per 100,000 for males and 350.0 for females
E) 500.0 deaths per 100,000 for males and 450.0 for females

Answer 106

C) 211.8 deaths per 100,000 for males and 143.6 for females
Explanation: The age-adjusted mortality rate for cancer in South Australia in 2017 was 211.8 deaths per 100,000 for males and 143.6 for females, reflecting the impact of cancer on the population’s mortality during that year.

Question 107

<h1>Page 32</h1>

<br></br>By how much have mortality rates for cancer in South Australia decreased in the last 5 years?
A) 2.0% per year for males and 1.5% per year for females
B) 1.8% per year for males and 1.2% per year for females
C) 3.0% per year for males and 2.5% per year for females
D) 1.0% per year for males and 0.5% per year for females
E) 2.5% per year for males and 2.0% per year for females

Answer 107

B) 1.8% per year for males and 1.2% per year for females
Explanation: In the last 5 years, mortality rates for cancer in South Australia have decreased by 1.8% per year for males and 1.2% per year for females, indicating a positive trend in the reduction of cancer-related deaths in the region.

Question 108

<h1>Page 33</h1>

<br></br>What do 5-year survival rates measure?
A) The likelihood of developing cancer within 5 years
B) The percentage of people who survive for at least 5 years after cancer diagnosis
C) The rate of cancer recurrence within 5 years
D) The average age of cancer patients
E) The number of new cancer cases within 5 years

Answer 108

B) The percentage of people who survive for at least 5 years after cancer diagnosis
Explanation: 5-year survival rates measure the percentage of people who survive for at least 5 years after being diagnosed with cancer, providing valuable insight into the effectiveness of treatments and the overall prognosis for cancer patients.