Nurse Labs Mix Flashcards
Client with history of depression & suicide attempts comes into ED after taking 15 tylenol pills 45 minutes earlier.
Which will be the priority
A.Perform gastric lavage
B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
C. Start an IV with Dextrose 5% and 0.33% normal saline
D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water
E. Conduct a psychiatric evaluation.
F. Apply wrist restraints to prevent further self-harm.
B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
Cardiac catheterization to evaluate potential coronary artery disease. known allergy to iodine-based contrast agents, which required premedication with corticosteroids and antihistamines. The procedure was successful, but the patient experienced brief hypotension during the administration of the contrast material. The patient has been transferred to the cardiac step-down unit for observation, and the nurse is aware of the potential complications that can arise in the initial 24 hours post-procedure. Which complication should the nurse monitor closely during this period
A. Persistent angina despite being at rest and receiving nitroglycerin
B. Thrombus formation leading to decreased peripheral pulses and cyanosis
C. Dizziness accompanied by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing
D. Gradual decrease in blood pressure with no other symptoms
In the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization, the nurse should closely monitor for thrombus formation
Which of the following is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
A.Trichomoniasis
B. Chlamydia
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
E. Gonorrhea
F. Escherichia coli
B. Chlamydia
72-year-old client with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and recent complaints of flank pain is scheduled for KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography in an outpatient setting.
which of the following actions should the nurse take to adequately prepare the client for the test?
Select all that apply.
A. Instruct the client that they must be NPO for 6 hours before the examination.
B. Administer an enema the evening before the examination to ensure clear imaging.
C. Administer furosemide 20 mg IV half an hour before the examination to enhance visualization.
D. Reassure the client and inform them that no special preparation is needed for this examination.
E. Ask the client to drink fluids and empty the bladder just prior to the examination to ensure a clear view.
F. Check for any allergies to contrast, even though it’s not typically used in a standard KUB.
G. Advise the client to wear loose-fitting clothing without any metal objects for the examination.
A KUB radiography is a diagnostic imaging test that provides a view of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. Typically, no special preparation is needed for this examination. However, asking the client to drink fluids and then empty the bladder just before the test can help ensure a clear view of the urinary structures
Heart failure and has a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L, on the lower end of the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Considering her clinical history and current condition, she is placed on a cardiac monitor and starts receiving an infusion of 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. While monitoring her EKG, which of the following patterns should prompt you to discontinue the potassium infusion immediately?
A. Narrowed QRS complex
B. Shortened “PR” interval
C. Tall peaked “T” waves
D. Prominent “U” waves
C. Tall peaked “T” waves
Tall peaked “T” waves are a classic sign of hyperkalemia. Given Mrs. Thompson’s chronic kidney disease and acute heart failure, continuing to infuse potassium with this EKG finding could be dangerous. The infusion should be discontinued immediately.
Option A: Narrow QRS complex indicates fast cardiac rhythms (generally more than 100 beats/min) with a QRS duration of 100 ms or less.
Option B: A short PR interval (<120 ms) is seen with preexcitation syndromes and AV nodal (junctional) rhythm.
Option D: Prominent U waves are characteristic of hypokalemia.
Patient has V fib. What is the first response from the nurse who arrives to find this patient.
Start a peripheral IV
B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
C. Establish an airway
D. Obtain the crash cart
Correct Answer: B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
Circulation
Airway
Breathing
Is the guideline for finding a pulse person
The National Institutes of Health (NIH), a part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
What is its function
Nation’s medical research agency — making important discoveries that improve health and save lives
When many people share the same values it may be possible to identify a philosophy of utilitarianism, with proposes that:
A. The value of people is determined solely by leaders in the Unitarian church.
B. The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the client has led so far.
C. The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician.
D. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
Correct
Correct Answer: D. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
A utilitarian system of ethics proposes that the value of something is determined by its usefulness.
“the greatest amount of good for the greatest number of people.”
The Nurse Practice Acts are an example of:
A. Statutory law
B. Common law
C. Civil law
D. Criminal law
Correct Answer: A. Statutory law
The NPA is then interpreted into regulations by each state and territorial nursing board with the authority to regulate the practice of nursing care and the power to enforce the laws
Option B: Common law results from judicial decisions made in courts when individual legal cases are decided. Examples of common law include informed consent, the patient’s right to refuse treatment, negligence, and malpractice.
The scope of Nursing Practice, the established educational requirements for nurses, and the distinction between nursing and medical practice is defined by:
A. Statutory law
B. Common law
C. Civil law
D. Nurse Practice Acts
Correct Answer: D. Nurse Practice Acts
The NPA is then interpreted into regulations by each state and territorial nursing board with the authority to regulate the practice of nursing care and the power to enforce the laws.
During surgery, there is an increased potential for arrhythmias when catecholamines are given with:
A. halothane (Fluothane)
B. digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. bupivacaine (Marcaine)
D. lidocaine (Xylocaine)
A. halothane (Fluothane)
(Inhalation anesthetics - nitrous oxide, halothane, isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane)
bupivacaine - Anesthetic
General anesthetics potentiate the effects of which of the following drugs?
A. Depolarizing agents
B. Skeletal muscle relaxants
C. Volatile liquids
D. Inhalation anesthetics
B. Skeletal muscle relaxants
Lorzone (chlorzoxazone)
Flexeril or Amrix (cyclobenzaprine)
Robaxin (methocarbamol)
A. Depolarizing Agents = relaxation of skeletal muscles & anesthesia Succinylcholine is a major one
C. Volatile liquids
D. Inhalation anesthetics
(Include halothane & other -thane medication)
The most dangerous metabolic side effect of general anesthesia that can occur during surgery is:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperthermia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypothermia
B. Hyperthermia
Malignant hyperthermia
severe reaction to certain drugs used for anesthesia
the defective gene that puts you at risk of malignant hyperthermia is inherited, though sometimes it’s the result of a random genetic defect
General Anesthesia is associated Hyperglycemia and higher levels of catecholamines, cortisol, and glucagon than local or epidural anesthesia
Volatile anesthetic agents inhibit insulin secretion and increase hepatic glucose production.
Geneva is reviewing for her upcoming quiz in Pharmacology. She should be aware that local and regional anesthesia act by:
A. Inhibiting depolarization.
B. Increasing depolarization.
C. Producing a semiconscious state.
D. Inhibiting motor movement.
A. Inhibiting depolarization.
Local anesthetics are also class I antiarrhythmic drugs due to the blockade of cardiac sodium channels, with lidocaine being the class IB prototype. They selectively block channels that are frequently depolarizing (tachyarrhythmias) and slow transmission.
The nurse teaching a client who will receive thiopental (Pentothal) as an anesthetic explains what common adverse effects might occur?
A. Headache
B. Emergence delirium
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Paralysis
B. Emergence delirium
Barbiturates are a group of sedative-hypnotic medications used for the treatment of seizure disorder, neonatal withdrawal, insomnia, preoperative anxiety, induction of coma for increased intracranial pressure. They are also useful for inducing anesthesia.
Barbiturates (phenobarbital, methohexital, butalbital, pentobarbital, primidone, and amobarbital.)
reduce the efficacy of warfarin, steroids
oral contraceptive
psychoactive
immunosuppressants.
Phenobarbital will also lower the plasma concentrations of other antiepileptic drugs such as lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, tiagabine, and valproate.
No antidote exist
client received lidocaine viscous before a gastroscopy was performed. Following the procedure, the nurse places a priority on what assessment?
A. Return of the gag reflex
B. Ability to urinate
C. Abdominal pain
D. Ability to stand
Correct Answer: A. Return of the gag reflex
Because the throat is anesthetized, monitor the client for return of the gag reflex before drinking or eating.
Not for use in <3 yrs
> 3 use q3h not to exceed 8 doses daily
The nurse observes a co-worker preparing to administer a solution of lidocaine and epinephrine to a client with multiple premature ventricular contractions. The appropriate action by the nurse is to:
A. Offer to monitor the client’s heart rhythm.
B. Notify the supervisor of the error.
C. Do nothing; the drug choice is correct.
D. Prevent the administration and give a plain lidocaine solution.
Correct Answer: D. Prevent the administration and give a plain lidocaine solution.
Solutions of lidocaine containing preservatives or epinephrine are intended for local anesthesia only, and must never be given IV for dysrhythmias.
Phentolamine
Antihypertensive drug
It can prevent and control high blood pressure during surgery.
Name 2 more uses
SE
It can treat and prevent skin injury caused by norepinephrine injection. It is also used to diagnose an adrenal gland tumor (pheochromocytoma).
SE: Acute and prolonged hypotensive episodes, tachycardia, and cardiac arrhythmias
Name 4 stages of anesthesia
Stage 1: Induction. The earliest stage lasts from when you first take the medication until you go to sleep. …
Stage 2: Excitement or delirium. …
Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia. …
Stage 4: Overdose.
The client asks the nurse to explain the action of infiltration anesthesia. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that infiltration anesthesia:
A. Is applied only to mucous membranes to provide local anesthesia.
B. Blocks a specific group of nerves in tissues close to the operative area.
C. Blocks sensation to an entire limb, or a large area of the face.
D. Produces numbing to large, regional areas such as the lower abdomen and legs.
B. Blocks a specific group of nerves in tissues close to the operative area.
Infiltration anesthesia blocks a specific group of nerves close to the operative area by diffusion of a drug into the tissues. It is used to anesthetize small areas. Lower concentrations of local anesthetics are typically used for infiltration anesthesia. Infiltration anesthesia is accomplished with the administration of the local anesthetic solution intradermally (ID), subcutaneously (SC), or submucosally
A.Topical anesthetics are applied to mucous membranes.
C. action potential from forming.
Option C:Nerve blocks provide anesthesia to a large surface area. Regional anesthesia. Injected nerve or bundle. Last longer than local anesthesia.
Option D: Spinal anesthesia affects large, regional areas.
