NURS 264 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Obesogenic Environment

A

Encourages large portions of high-fat, energy-dense
foods & fails to encourage healthy behaviors such as
physical activity

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2
Q

What is important about nutrition for Infants and children?

A
  • Birth to 4 months of age is most rapid period of growth in life
    cycle, double their birth weight.
    ➢ Breast feeding recommended.
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3
Q

2 Facts about obesity

A
  • 1 in 5 adults worldwide to have
    obesity by the year 2025
    -Genetics contribution 40 to 70% to obesity
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4
Q

What are 5 ways to make a nutrition screening

A

➢ 24-hour recall
➢ Food frequency questionnaire
➢ Food diaries or records—3 days typically used
➢ Direct observation of feeding with documentation
➢ Mobile apps

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5
Q

Additional subjective data considerations for Adolescents (5 Things)

A

➢ present weight.
➢ use of anabolic steroids or other agents to increase muscle
size and physical performance.
➢ overweight and obesity risk factors.
➢ age first started menstruating.

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6
Q

Additional subjective data considerations for pregnant women (2 Things)

A

➢ number of pregnancies and pregnancy history.
➢ food preferences when pregnant.

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7
Q

Additional subjective data considerations for aging adults (3 Things)

A

➢ prior dietary history in ages 40’s and 50’s.
➢ factors affecting present dietary intake.
➢ vitamin D and calcium intake.

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8
Q

Derived weight measure (What is it and how is it classified?

A

Percent usual body weight—formula calculation
* Current weight/usual weight X 100
* 85-95% mild malnutrition
* 75-84% moderate malnutrition
* Less than 75% severe nutrition

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9
Q

Marasmus what is it?

A

Marasmus (protein-calorie malnutrition)
➢ starved appearance

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10
Q

Kwashiorkor (What is it)

A

 Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)
➢ well nourished appearance, edematous

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11
Q

Metabolic syndrome (What 5 things are used to diagnose it?

A

Diagnosed in the presence of 3 out of 5 biomarkers
➢ Waist circumference
* Gender-based measurements
➢ Glucose level
* Above 100 mg/dL or being treated for hyperglycemia
➢ High-density lipoprotein (HDL-C)
* Gender-based measurements or being treated for
hyperlipidemia
➢ Triglyceride (TG) level
* Above 150 mg/dL or being treated for elevated TG
➢ Hypertension (HTN)
* Systolic and diastolic parameters or being treated for HTN

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12
Q

Pellagra What is it?

A

Pellagra
➢ Niacin deficiency

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13
Q

Scorbutic gums What is it?

A

Scorbutic gums
➢ Vitamin C deficiency

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14
Q

Follicular hyperkeratosis What is it?

A

Follicular hyperkeratosis
➢ Vitamin A and/or linoleic acid deficiency

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15
Q

Bitot’s spots (What are they caused by)

A

Bitot’s spots
➢ Vitamin A deficiency

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16
Q

Rickets What is it caused by?

A

Rickets
➢ Vitamin D and calcium deficiency

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17
Q

How much area does the skin cover on the body?

A

Body’s largest organ system.
➢ Covers 20 square feet of surface area in adults

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18
Q

What 3 things are skin colour derived from?

A

➢ Melanin—brown pigment
➢ Carotene—yellow-orange pigment
➢ Red purple tones in the underlying vascular bed

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19
Q

Sebaceous glands (What are they)

A

Sebaceous glands
➢ Sebum—secreted lipid substance through hair follicles
➢ Lubricate skin and form emulsion

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20
Q

Sweat glands (What glands make them up)

A

Sweat glands
➢ Eccrine produce sweat.
➢ Apocrine produce milky secretion and open into hair follicles.

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21
Q

What 3 things occur in pregnant women in terms of the skin?

A

Increase in metabolism leads to increase secretion of
sweat and sebaceous glands to dissipate heat.
 Expected skin color changes due to increased
hormone levels.
 Fat deposits are laid down as maternal reserves for
nursing baby.

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22
Q

What sin colour is most at risk for skin cancers?

A

Increased likelihood of skin cancer in whites than in black and
Hispanic populations

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23
Q

What equipment is needed for a skin assessment?

A

Strong direct lighting, gloves, penlight, and small
centimeter ruler

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24
Q

What features should be assessed during a skin assessment? 8 things

A
  1. color
  2. temperature
  3. moisture
  4. texture
  5. thickness
  6. Edema
  7. mobility and turgor
  8. Vascularity or bruising
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25
Q

What should be noted about lesions 6 things?

A

➢ Color
➢ Elevation → flat or raised
➢ Pattern or shape
➢ Size (cm)
➢ Location and distribution on body
➢ Any exudate: note color and odor

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26
Q

What degree should nail beds be?

A

Profile sign: view index finger at its profile and note angle of
nail base; it should be about 160 degrees

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27
Q

What is the ABCDEF skin assessment?

A
  • A: asymmetry
  • B: border irregularity
  • C: color variations
  • D: diameter greater than 6 mm
  • E: elevation or evolution
  • F: funny looking—“ugly duckling” —different from others
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28
Q

Annular or circular and confluent lesions (What do they look like?)

A

 Annular or circular
➢ Begins in center and spreads to periphery
 Confluent
➢ Lesions run together

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29
Q

Discrete and grouped lesions (What are they?)

A

 Discrete
➢ Distinct and separate
 Grouped
➢ Cluster of lesions

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30
Q

Gyrate (What are they?)

A

 Gyrate
➢ Twisted, coiled, or snakelike

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31
Q

Target or iris and linear lesions (What are they?)

A

Target or iris
➢ Resembles iris of eyes, concentric rings
 Linear
➢ Scratch, streak, line, or stripe

32
Q

Zosteriform and Polycyclic lesions (What are they?)

A

 Polycyclic
➢ Annular lesions grow together.
 Zosteriform
➢ Linear arrangement following a unilateral nerve
route

33
Q

Macules and Papules (What are they?)

A

 Macules
➢ Solely a color change, flat and circumscribed, less than 1 cm
 Papules
➢ Felt and caused by superficial thickening of the epidermis

34
Q

Patches and plaques (What are they?)

A

 Patches
➢ Macules that are larger than 1 cm
 Plaques
➢ Papules coalescing to form surface elevation wider than 1 cm

35
Q

Nodules and wheals (What are they?)

A

 Nodules
➢ Solid, elevated, hard or soft, greater than 1 cm that may extend deeper
into dermis than papule
 Wheals
➢ Superficial, raised, transient and erythematous, irregular in shape due to
edema

36
Q

Tumors and Hives (What are they?)

A

 Tumors
➢ Larger in diameter, firm or soft, deeper into dermis, may be benign or
malignant,
 Urticaria (hives)
➢ Wheals coalesce to form extensive pruritic reaction.

37
Q

Vesicles and cysts (What are they?)

A

 Vesicles
➢ Elevated cavity containing fluid up to 1 cm (blister)
 Cysts
➢ Encapsulated fluid filled cavity

38
Q

Bullas and Pustules (What are they?)

A

 Bullas
➢ Larger than 1 cm diameter, usually single chamber, superficial in dermis
and ruptures easily
 Pustules
➢ Pus in cavity that is circumscribed and elevated.

39
Q

Excoriations and scars (What are they?)

A

➢ Excoriations—Self-inflicted abrasion that is superficial
➢ Scars—Permanent fibrotic change after healing

40
Q

Atrophic scars and Keloids (What are they?)

A

➢ Atrophic scars—Resulting skin level is depressed with
loss of tissue and thinning
➢ Keloids—Benign excess of scar tissue beyond
original injury

41
Q

Lichenifications (What is it?)

A

Lichenifications—Prolonged intense scratching leads
to thickened skin producing tightly packed set of
papules

42
Q

Stages of pressure injuries (What are they?)

A

➢ Stage I: Non-blanchable erythema
➢ Stage II: Partial-thickness skin loss
➢ Stage III: Full-thickness skin loss
➢ Stage IV: Full-thickness skin/tissue loss

43
Q

Basal cell carcinoma (What is it?)

A

 Basal cell carcinoma
➢ Most common skin cancer
➢ Occurs on sun-exposed areas

44
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma (What is it?)

A

 Squamous cell carcinoma
➢ Less common than basal cell but grows rapidly
➢ Occurs mostly on hands or head

45
Q

Koilonychia (What is it?)

A

Koilonychia (spoon nails)

46
Q

What 4 things should be noted about the older adult population in the US

A

➢ By 2040, older adults will compose over 20% of the
population
➢ Adults 65+, account for more hospital stays & clinic
visits
➢ Older adults are heterogeneous, and differences exist
among biologic, physical, and emotional rates of
aging
➢ Economic costs of aging associated with personal
care continue to increase

47
Q

What is the goal of a geriatric assessment?

A

Goal: Identify strengths and limitations so appropriate interventions can
prevent functional decline

48
Q

Functional ability definition?)

A

Functional ability
➢ Refers to one’s ability to perform activities necessary to live in modern
society

49
Q

What does a functional assessment include?)

A
  • Physical Exam
  • Activities of daily living (ADLs) / Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
  • Physical Mobility
50
Q

What are the 6 ADL’s?

A

➢ Eating/feeding
➢ Bathing
➢ Grooming (washing, combing hair, shaving, cleaning teeth,
dressing)
➢ Toileting
➢ Walking, including propelling a wheelchair, using stairs
➢ Transferring, such as bed to chair

51
Q

Instrumental activities of daily living (What are they?)

A

 Instrumental activities of daily living
➢ Refer to functional abilities for independent community living
➢ Shopping, telephone use, meal prep, housekeeping, laundry,
managing finances, taking medications, using transportation.

52
Q

What 2 tools can be used to assess cognition in the aging adult?

A

➢ Mini mental status exam (MMSE)
➢ Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)—more sensitive

53
Q

Informal supports vs formal supports (What is the difference between the two?)

A
  • informal supports are family and close friends who help with things like shopping, bathing and feeding
  • formal supports are government plans and caregivers who are paid to be there
54
Q

What are the 6 Environmental assessments for the aging adult?

A

Physical environment
➢ Observations to determine safety and modify potential hazards,
safety and access to services
 Falls
➢ 20% result in serious injury
 Older adult drivers
➢ Account for 18% of all traffic fatalities
 Sleep
➢ Screening tools to measure changes in sleep pattern
 Spiritual assessment
➢ Individualized inquiry
 Special considerations
➢ May require more time to examine

55
Q

Musculoskeletal systems 6 functions.

A

➢ Needed for support and to stand erect
➢ Needed for movement
➢ To encase and protect inner vital organs
➢ To produce RBCs in the bone marrow
➢ Serve as a reservoir for storage of essential minerals

56
Q

How many of each type of vertebra are there and how many are there in total?

A

➢ 7 cervical
➢ 12 thoracic
➢ 5 lumbar
➢ 5 sacral
➢ 3 to 4 coccygeal

33 IN TOTAL

57
Q

What portions of the spine are concave and what are convex?

A

➢ Cervical and lumbar curves are concave (inward or anterior).
➢ Thoracic and sacrococcygeal curves are convex.

58
Q

What are the motions of vertebral column

A

 Motions of vertebral column:
➢ Flexion, extension, abduction, and rotation

59
Q

What 2 things are special about the knee joint?

A

Synovial membrane is largest in body.
Largest joint in body

60
Q

By what age has a fetus formed the “Scale model”

A

By 3 months, fetus has formed “scale model” of the skeleton of
cartilage.
➢ Ossification to true bone continues in utero.

61
Q

At what age does the last episyphesis closure occur?

A

Epiphyses: specialized growth plates at end of long bones
➢ Longitudinal growth continues until closure of epiphyses; last closure
occurs about age 20.

62
Q

At what age does bone decomposition begin to occur?

A

After age 40, resorption occurs more rapidly than deposition.

63
Q

What demographic is at the highest risk for fractures?

A
  • Caucasian women
64
Q

What is the purpose of a musculoskeletal assessment?

A

Purpose of musculoskeletal examination is to assess function for
ADLs and to screen for abnormalities.

65
Q

What are the steps to a musculoskeletal assessment (like palpation and auscultation)

A

Inspection, Palpation, Range of Motion, Muscle Strength,
and Crepitus

66
Q

What three things should be assessed for when assessing circulation in the body (CMS)

A

 C = circulation
 Assess color, temperature, cap. refill, pulses
 M = motor (movement)
 Assess for movement (wiggle toes, move fingers, etc.)
 S = Sensory (sensation)
 Assess for sense of touch

67
Q

What are each of the 5 levels of muscle strength?

A

 5 = Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
 4 = Full ROM against gravity, some resistance (weak)
 3 = Full ROM with gravity (no opposing force)
 2 = Full ROM with gravity eliminated (Passive movt.)
 1 = Slight Contraction, no movement (visible or palpable)
 0 = No Contraction or involuntary movements (paralysis)

68
Q

What is the phalen and tinel sign test

A

➢ Phalen test
—acute flexion of wrist produces numbness and burning if +
➢ Tinel sign test
—percussion of median nerve produces burning and
tingling if +

69
Q

Where should you measure for leg length ?

A
  • anterior iliac spine to medial malleolus (crossing over the leg)
70
Q

What back posture is common for adolescence?

A
  • kyphosis and screening for scoliosis should be done as well.
71
Q

Get up and go test (What is it used for?)

A
  • Used in older adults to assess risk for falls
72
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis (What is it?)

A

➢ Ankylosing spondylitis – chronic inflamed vertebrae
➢ Back pain in lower back and buttocks, improves with movement

73
Q

Osteoporosis (What is it?)

A

➢ Osteoporosis
➢ Decrease in skeletal bone mass, low BMD
➢ Increased risk for fractures

74
Q

Epicondylitis (What is it?)

A

Epicondylitis
—tennis elbow

75
Q

What conditions can be caused by rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Conditions caused by chronic rheumatoid arthritis:
➢ Swan-neck and boutonniere deformities
➢ Ulnar deviation or drift
➢ Acute rheumatoid arthritis

76
Q

What is fibromyalgia and what is needed to diagnose it?

A

 Widespread musculoskeletal pain greater than 3
months
➢ Additional body symptoms → fatigue, sleep
disturbance, psychological stress & functional
symptoms
➢ More prevalent in women than men
➢ Issue with sensory processing → allodynia and/or
hyperalgesia
➢ Revision of diagnostic criteria proposed