Nucleotides And Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Nucleotides with pyrimidine bases

A

CUT the Pie
Cytosine
Uracil
Thymine

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2
Q

Nucleotides with Purine bases

A

Pure as gold
Adenine
Guanine

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3
Q

In nucleotides, the phosphoryl group is attached to which carbon in the pentose?

A

C5

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4
Q

Most nucleosides are linked to a purine or pyrimidine through what bond

A

B-N glycosidic bond

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5
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of purine synthesis

A

PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase

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6
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 2

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7
Q

Donors of atoms in purine synthesis

A

Gold Tarnished puRING

Glycine
Tetrahydrofolate

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8
Q

Donors of atoms in pyrimidine synthesis

A

Cut the pie and put it in a CAGe

Glutamine
Aspartate
CO2

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9
Q

Parent molecule in purine synthesis

A

Inosine monophosphate

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10
Q

Parent molecule in pyrimidine synthesis

A

Orotidine monophosphate

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11
Q

Enzymes in pyrimidine synthesis

A

Ricbonucleotide reductase

Thymidylate synthase

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12
Q

What enzyme converts ribose 5 phosphate to PRPP?

A

PRPP synthetase

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13
Q

Enzymes inhibited by 5FU

A

Thymidylate synthase

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14
Q

Purine rings cannot be cleaved in human cells so it is converted into

A

Uric acid

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15
Q

Disease associated with accumulation of purines

A

Gout

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16
Q

Pyrimidines can be converted into these products for degradation

A

B-alanine: precursor of acetyl CoA

B- aminoisobutyrate: precursor of succinyl CoA

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17
Q

What is the source of ribose 5 phosphate

A

PRPP

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18
Q

Irreversible enzymes of purine salvage pathway

A

APRT

HGPRT

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19
Q

Highly repetitive sequences at the end of chromosomes

A

Telomeres

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20
Q

Form of DNA with 11 base pairs and right handed helix

A

A DNA

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21
Q

Form of DNA with 10 base pairs per turn

Right handed helix

A

B DNA

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22
Q

Form of DNA with left handed helix and 12 base pairs

A

Z DNA

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23
Q

Chargaff’s rule applies to RNA or DNA?

A

DNA

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24
Q

Most common form of DNA

A

B DNA

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25
Q

RNA that serves as the template for protein synthesis

A

Messenger RNA

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26
Q

In eukaryotes, the methylguanosine cap of RNA is in the

A

5’ end

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27
Q

The poly A tail of RNA is in what end?

A

3’ end

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28
Q

RNA that is the Site for protein synthesis

A

Ribosomal RNA

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29
Q

RNA that translates nucleotide sequence of mRNA into specific amino acids

A

Transfer RNA

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30
Q

This RNA has 74-95 nucleotides and 20 different species

Contains the antocodon and cloverleaf appearance in 2D

A

Transfer RNA

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31
Q

RNA involved in splicing, removal of introns

A

Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

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32
Q

RNA that inhibit gene expression

A

Micro RNA

Silencing RNA

33
Q

DNA replication occurs in this phase of the cell cycle

A

S phase

34
Q

The origin of replication is recognized by

A

Origin recognition complex

35
Q

Unwinds the double helix in a process that is driven by ATP

A

Helicase

36
Q

This maintains the separation of parent strands in DNA replication

A

Scotch tape

DNA binding proteins

37
Q

This relieves the torsional strain from helicase induced unwinding

A

Gupit the buhol

Topoisomerase I

38
Q

This synthesizes short segmentd of complementary RNA primers

A

Primase

39
Q

Elongates the DNA strand by adding new deoxyribonuscleotides

A

DNA polymerase III

40
Q

Okazaki fragments is found in which strand

A

Lagging strand

41
Q

Mismatched nucleotides are removed using DNA polymerase III enzyme’s

Proofreading

A

3-5’ exonuclease

42
Q

When another primer is reached this enzyme removes the ribonucleotides using 5-3’ exonuclease and fills the gap

A

DNA polymerase 1

43
Q

Seals the nick by catalyzing the formation of the last phosphodiester bond, requiring hydrolysis of ATP

A

DNA ligase

44
Q

RNA primers are removed by these enzymes in eukaryotes

A

RNase H and FEN 1

45
Q

This process involves the synthesis of RNA using DNA as template

A

Transcription

46
Q

In the initiation step of RNA synthesis, RNA polymerase binds to DNA promoter sequences.

What are the promoter sequences in prokaryotes?

A

-35 sequence

Pribnow box

47
Q

In the initiation step of RNA synthesis, RNA polymerase binds to DNA promoter sequences.

What are the promoter sequences in eukaryotes?

A

TATA or hogness box
CAAT box

Hog and cat in eukaryotes

48
Q

In RNA initiation step, unwinding of DNA occurs to form a

A

Transcription bubble

49
Q

Elongation of RNA is continuous until a termintation signal is reached like

A

Hairpin loop

50
Q

Removal of introns and splicing of exons, and RNA changes are all part of

A

Post transcriptional modifications

51
Q

RNA post transcriptional modification involves addition of

A

Poly A or CCA tail

Addition of 7 methylguanosine cap

52
Q

Part of bacterial chromosome thag controls the synthesis of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism

A

Lactose operon

53
Q

A codon consists of how many bases?

A

3 bases

54
Q

How many codons are present in total?

A

64 codons

55
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAG
UAA
UGA

56
Q

Start codon for methionine

A

AUG

57
Q

What are the characteristics of the genetic code?

DUNU

A
I DUNU
Degenerate
Unambiguous 
Nonoverlapping
Universal
58
Q

Characteristic of the genetic code that says that multiple codons can code for the same amino acid

A

Degenerate

59
Q

Genetic code characteristic that says that a specific codon always codes for the same amino acid

A

Unambiguous

60
Q

Characteristic of the genetic code that reads the codon in a continuing sequence until a stop codon is reached

A

Nonoverlapping

61
Q

Characteristic of the genetic code that has been conserved from the very early stages of evolution

A

Universal

62
Q

Contains the first codon in initiation step of Protein synthesis

A

Aminoacyl tRNA

63
Q

Charging of amino acids by synthetases requires

A

2 ATP

64
Q

Binding site for incoming tRNA

A

A site

65
Q

Site occupied by peptidyl tRNA in initiation

A

P site

66
Q

Site occupied by empty tRNA

A

E site

67
Q

A cyclic process on the ribosome where one amino acid at a time is added to the peptide chain

A

Elongation

68
Q

Peptide bond formation is elongation is catalyzed by

A

Peptidyltransferase

69
Q

Allows a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon

Accurate base pairing required only on the 1st two nucleotide positions of mRNA codon

A

tRNA wobble

70
Q

Energy required for protein synthesis

A

4 high energy bonds
2 from tRNA aminoacylation
1 from loading tRNA to ribosome
1 from translocation

71
Q

Proteins that are defective are marked for destruction by

A

Ubiquitin

72
Q

Defectives proteins are degraded by

A

Proteasomes

73
Q

Type of mutation where new codons code for the same amino acid
No effect on protein

A

Silent mutation

74
Q

Type of mutation where new codons codes for a different amino acid with variable effect on protein

A

Missense mutation

75
Q

Type of mutation where the new codon is a stop codon

A

Nonsense mutation

76
Q

Type of point mutation where there is purine-purine or pyrimidine- pyrimidine exchange

A

Transition

77
Q

Point mutation where there is pyrimidine-purine or purine-pyrimidine exchange

A

Transversion

78
Q

Type of mutation where there is deletion or addition of bases that results to shorter than normal, non functional protein

A

Frame shift mutation

79
Q

Expansions in coding regions that cause the protein product to be longer than normal or unstable

Show anticipation in pedigree

A

Triple repeat expansion