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Q400 > Normal Procedures & FOM > Flashcards

Normal Procedures & FOM Flashcards

1
Q

When receiving an aircraft directly from another crew, an originating checklist must still be completed?

A

Yes, It is a new aircraft for the captain

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2
Q

When is a crew required to accomplish the Preflight Checklist?

(3)

A

Initial flight of the day

New aircraft for captain

Maintenance has been performed

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3
Q

When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to be visually checked?

A

Whenever the aircraft has been left unattended for any period of time

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4
Q

What is required to be checked during a review of the MTX Log?

(10)

A

Verify its the correct AML,

Verify a minimum of 5 pages (Pink),

General review,

Determine last daily systems check,

Review log entry,

Corrective action,

Signature,

MEL/CDL maintenaince status,

Review placards,

Review MEL’s

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5
Q

When must a Terminating Checklist be accomplished?

4

A

Flight crew is leaving the aircraft,

On a RON -

Unattended for more than 1 hour,

Anytime the captain deems appropriate

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6
Q

The aircraft must be configured for landing prior to what point?

(2)

A

FAF for instrument approaches W/O vertical guidance,

1,000’ AFE for all other approaches

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7
Q

The aircraft must be stabilized at final approach airspeed prior to what point?

A

500’ AFE

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8
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When weather is below landing minimums or any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude return

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9
Q

True or False: First Officers with fewer than 100 hours in type in Company aircraft are prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports when not flying with a Check Airman.

A

True

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10
Q

Which of the following regular airports are designated as special?

(10)

A 
Burbank (BUR), Hayden (HDN) (CO), Mammoth (MMH), Missoula (MSO), ONT, 
PSP, 
RNO, 
SAN, 
SFO, 
SUN
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11
Q

If special airports not known, where can a list of them be found?

A

Airport information charts, FOM 2.6.5

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12
Q

What does the term lockdown mean in association with the Threat Levels listed in the Flight Ops Manual?

A

Closure of the flight deck door and suspension of all entry and exit of the flight deck

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13
Q

If a FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?

A

1,000’ AFE

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14
Q

Under what weather conditions are Complex-Special turn procedures mandatory in the case of an engine failure on takeoff?

A

All

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15
Q

What is the Horizon Air use of alcohol policy?

A

No alcohol 10 Hours prior to duty,

Do not enter a bar in uniform,

No alcohol while traveling with jump authority,

No alcohol same calendar day,

No alcohol on duty,

No alcohol within 8 hours of an accident

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16
Q

What should you do if fellow crew member is too fatigued to fly but does not remove himself/herself from the trip?

A

Contact duty officer

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17
Q

What do you do if you lose your Airman Certificate or Medical while on a trip?

A

CNTCT Crew Scheduling

FOM 2.1.6, Use exemption 11152 and get a copy from scheduling (Only available in the contiguous 48 states), Cell 405-954-4821 and have it faxed to you

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18
Q

What is our policy regarding scuba diving before trip?

A

Not within 24 hours of duty

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19
Q

What is our policy regarding Blood donation?

A

Not within 72 hours of duty unless emergency

Must have hemoglobin and blood count prior to duty within 72 hours

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20
Q

True or False: It is OK to read publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight on the flightdeck.

A

False

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21
Q

What is the appropriate response to a TCAS TA?

A

Try to obtain visual of target, if visual is established maneuver to maintain a safe distance, If no further need no action will be performed

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22
Q

What, if any, communication is required when changing nav sources?

A

None

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23
Q

What is the definition of the critical phase of flight as it pertains to takeoff?

A

Beginning with brake release and ending when the aircraft is brought to a complete stop during a rejected takeoff or when the aircraft is at acceleration height,

Clearance of obstacle assured,

Landing gear and flaps up,

Airspeed at least VSE

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24
Q

What is the maximum difference between the two primary altimeters crossing the FAF on an approach?

A

100’

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25
Q

What is required if the difference between the two primary altimeters exceeds 100 feet crossing the FAF?

A

Missed Approach

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26
Q

Who is the PM on the ground?

A

First Officer

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27
Q

How does proper transfer of aircraft control take place?

A

“My airplane”

“Your airplane”

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28
Q

When must shoulder harnesses be worn?

A

Takeoff / Landing

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29
Q

What is the suggested operation of Pilot Controlled lighting?

A

Turn on as bright as possible initially, Then adjust dial

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30
Q

With regard to pilot controlled lighting, how many minutes of lighting is available from last keying event?

A

15 minutes

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31
Q

What is the Runway Verification Procedure for takeoff?

A

Verify the aircraft is cleared onto the runway,

Verify the runway is correct with signs and markings,

Verify the runway is clear

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32
Q

What is the Runway Verification Procedure for landing?

A

Pilot flying restates landing clearance and runway, Both pilots verify correct runway alignment VIA HSI, VOR, GPS etc and clear of traffic

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33
Q

The three levels of automation are _____.

A
  1. Raw data (Hand flying),
  2. Basic FD commands,
  3. FMS coupled
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34
Q

When should Terrain display be visible to at least one pilot?

A

During Terminal Operations

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35
Q

To maintain FMS approach currency, how often should pilots fly an FMS approach?

A

Each Month

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36
Q

What is the minimum clearance from objects while taxiing?

A

10’ Without wing walker,

5’ With wing walker

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37
Q

How does a pilot meet the Special Airport Qualification?

A

Accompanied by an FO who has made the required landing, Review the special airport procedure, Takeoff and landing within the limits of the airport,

Make takeoff and landing if the airport is at least 1,000’ above the lowest MEA/MOCA/and visibility is at least 3 miles

38
Q

What are the iPad preflight requirements?

A

Sync mymobile365,

Check FD Pro is current,

Determine its operating, Minimum charge of 75% (start of day),

30% start of leg.

39
Q

When flying into an uncontrolled airport, what position reports should be made on CTAF?

Inbound

Outbound

A

Inbound - 10 miles out, 5 miles, Entering downwind, bases, and final, off runway

Outbound - Engine start, before taxi, Before taxing onto the runway, Departing the pattern Instrument Approach - Missed approach, Approach completed / Terminated

40
Q

When must FO update departure status to operations when flight departure is delayed?

A

If the departure time is 15 minutes or more from out time, update every 15 mins

41
Q

What are the Crew Pairing requirements?

A

FO or Captain must have at least 75 hours in type with the company

42
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

100’,

60’ inn Alaska

43
Q

How much fuel reserve is required if no alternate is listed on release?

A

Fly to destinations + 45 minutes at normal fuel consumptions

44
Q

Terrain Clearance” provides what clearance from terrain?

A

Can provide climb gradient of 1,000’ above terrain with 1 engine inoperative

45
Q

“Mountain Drift down” provides what terrain clearance?

A

Clear terrain by 2,000’ with 1 engine inoperative enroute to destination

46
Q

When does a dispatch release expire?

A

Air turnback,

More than 1 hour at intermediate airport

47
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When weather is below landing minimums or any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude return

48
Q

How do you know if a pilot has fewer than 75 hours in aircraft type?

A

J - Junior pilot is on the release

49
Q

What is the minimum crew onboard for boarding?

A

2 Flight Attendants as specified in 14 CFR Part 121.391 will be on board.

Captain or First Officer may not substitute.

50
Q

When must pilots be at the aircraft?

A

Departure-:30 or STAR Departure-:40

51
Q

When must pilots be on the flightdeck?

A

D-:20

52
Q

What is the “block out” definition in regards to an on time departure?

A

When the aircraft moves for purposes of departure, Pushback counts

53
Q

When may a flight depart more than 10 minutes before scheduled departure time?

A

Concurrence with dispatcher or Captain feels necessary,

54
Q

True or False: The Flight Director shall be used on an RNAV-1 SID.

A

True

55
Q

What is the max rate of descent from 2000’ AGL to 1000’ AGL?

A

2,000 FPM

56
Q

What is max bank angle below 500’ on approach?

A

15°

57
Q

True or False: Established on the final approach segment, you can continue the flight if you receive a report that the weather is now below landing minimums.

A

True

58
Q

If planning a straight-in visual approach at an uncontrolled airport, by what distance shall the aircraft be established on final?

A

5 NM

59
Q

What is traffic pattern altitude at an uncontrolled airport?

A

1,500 AFE

60
Q

True or False: A visual approach can be accepted 40nm out.

A

False

61
Q

When flying an approach to an unfamiliar airport, what must pilots do?

A

Fly entire approach using all NAVAIDs and radar

62
Q

Can Horizon pilots accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

Prohibited in US. See FOM section 16 for international ops @ CYVR.

63
Q

Can Horizon pilots pick up passengers or bags at an alternate airport?

A

No

64
Q

On preflight, how can a pilot determine if an abnormality (dent) has been previously identified?

A

1/4” yellow dots identify previously repaired damage

65
Q

What is “block out” for maintenance purposes?

A

Movement of the aircraft under its own power for purposes of flight

66
Q

Does the Captain need to talk with maintenance before entering a discrepancy in the logbook?

A

Yes

67
Q

True or False: Pilots may takeoff or land if the braking action is reported as Nil.

A

False

68
Q

True or False: When landing on a slippery runway, pilots should pump the brakes.

A

False

69
Q

What is the one step procedure for deicing?

A

Hot Type 1 De-Ice

70
Q

What is the two step procedure for deicing?

A
  • Hot Type I de-ice

- Cold Type IV anti-ice

71
Q

When does the holdover time start when doing a one-step deicing procedure?

A

Starts at the beginning of de-ice and anti-ice on the first aircraft surface

72
Q

What do you do if the holdover time expires before takeoff?

A

return for additional de-ice / anti-ice as required

73
Q

What does the following PA statement signal to the FAs? “Ladies and Gentlemen, this is the Captain speaking, may I have your attention?”

A

The PA is of Urgent nature

74
Q

What does “land immediately at nearest suitable airport” mean?

A

Land without delay at the nearest airport with sufficient runway length and emergency equipment, If possible notify dispatch

75
Q

What does “land as soon as practical” mean?

A

May continue to destination or most suitable AAG maintenance facility, Considering weather, Services, Operational Impact

76
Q

What does NTSB-Report mean relative to the Emergency Briefing?

A

Nature of emergency,

Time to prepare,

Special instructions,

Brace signal

77
Q

What do you do if your fellow pilot becomes incapacitated?

A

Land as soon as possible,

Stay in VMC if possible,

Aviate,

Use FA to assist or available crew member

78
Q

Where can one find a list of mandatory HA148 reportable items?

A

FOM-TR-17-02

79
Q

When would pilots make a “Min Fuel” declaration?

A

When any undue delay would result in landing with less than 45 minutes of fuel at the nearest suitable airport

80
Q

The Captain shall declare an emergency due to low fuel when the estimated fuel upon landing at the nearest suitable airport is expected to less than ______ minutes?

A

45 minutes

81
Q

In the case of a medical diversion, are pilots required to declare an emergency?

A

Yes

82
Q

If pilots receive a bomb threat, who should they notify?

A

ATC & Dispatcher

83
Q

What steps should be taken if an unexplained substance is found in the cabin during flight?

A

Secure flight deck,

Contact dispatcher,

Cooperate with Emergency services requests

84
Q

What is the Hijacking transponder code?

A

7500

85
Q

How many threat levels are there?

A

4

86
Q

True or False: The Emergency Response Guidebook is only required for dispatch if hazardous materials are on board.

A

True

87
Q

What is the speed limit in Canada within 10 miles of the airport below 3000’?

A

200 knots

88
Q

True or False: Pilots may taxi across illuminated stop bars if they have a clearance.

A

False

89
Q

What should pilots do after taxiing across extinguished stop bars if the lead on lights extinguish?

A

Query ATC

90
Q

What should pilots do if a prohibited item is discovered on the aircraft?

A

Contact the duty officer through dispatch and discuss course of action

Q400 (31 decks)

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