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Last Semester Board Prep > Nichole's Board Exam Review - Mixed Bag 1 > Flashcards

Nichole's Board Exam Review - Mixed Bag 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The absorbed dose at a given depth expressed as a % of the absorbed dose at a reference depth (i.e. d-max) on the CAX of the field

A

PDD %DD

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2
Q

PDD is dependent on these 5 variables

A
  1. Energy
  2. Field Size
  3. SSD
  4. Depth
  5. Composition of the irradiated medium
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3
Q

Does PDD increase or decrease with …

  1. Increasing SSD?
  2. Increasing Field Size?
  3. Increasing Depth?
A
  1. Increasing SSD = Increasing PDD
  2. Increasing Field Size = Increasing PDD
  3. Increasing Depth = DECREASING PDD
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4
Q
  • Dose in tissue / dose at d-max in a phantom
A

TMR

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5
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary

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6
Q

What 3 factors is TMR dependent on?

A
  1. Depth
  2. Energy
  3. Field Size
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7
Q

Talking about a patient’s treatment in an elevator that is filled with outside visitors is considered what kind of violation?

A

invasion of privacy

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8
Q

Define hyperfractionation

A

Multiple fractions increasing the daily dose; increasing the total dose while keeping the treatment time the same

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9
Q

Define accelerated fractionation

A

Multiple daily fractions that lead to a reduction in the overall treatment time (e.g. days).

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10
Q

What is the most curable type of leukemia?

A

ALL (Acute lymphocytic leukemia) starts in the bone marrow (the soft inner part of certain bones, where new blood cells are made)

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11
Q

List 5 signs & symptoms of AML (Acute myelogenous leukemia a cancer of the blood and bone marrow — the spongy tissue inside bones where blood cells are made.)

A
  1. weakness
  2. fatigue
  3. anemia
  4. bruising
  5. neutropenia (An abnormally low count of a type of white blood cell (neutrophils).
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12
Q

List 5 signs & symptoms of CML (Chronic myelogenous leukemia)

A
  1. fatigue
  2. fever
  3. night sweats
  4. weight loss
  5. enlarged spleen
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13
Q

List 6 signs & symptoms of ALL (Acute lymphocytic leukemia)

A
  1. non-specific viral symptoms
  2. low grade fever
  3. malaise (general feeling of discomfort, illness, or lack of well-being)
  4. anorexia
  5. lethargy (A condition marked by drowsiness and an unusual lack of energy and mental alertness
  6. abdominal discomfort
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14
Q

List 5 signs & symptoms of CLL (Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia)

A
  1. fatigue
  2. malaise
  3. weight loss
  4. excessive sweating
  5. enlarged lymph nodes
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15
Q

List 2 reasons a bite block is used

A
  • to help maintain the patient’s chin position
  • moves the patient’s tongue out of the treatment area

(also to can be used when you want to displace the hard palate, mandible, or tongue away from the treatment volume)

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16
Q

What is used to calculate changes in PDD?

A

Mayneord’s factor

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17
Q

Where is the ampulla of vater?

A

where the common bile duct enters the duodenum

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18
Q

The ampulla of vater drains the ____ and ____ via the ____.

A

The ampulla of vater drains the liver and pancreas via the common bile duct.

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19
Q

medulloblastoma

A
  • A childhood malignancy (ages 0-4
  • 20-30% hereditary
  • increased risk with Von Recklinghausen’s disease, Von Hipple-Lindau disease, Cowden’s disease, or Turcot’s syndrome.
  • seeds to CSF
  • craniospinal XRT
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20
Q

List the following cell types by order of decreasing sensitivity:

  • crypt cells
  • endothelial cells
  • erythroblasts
  • fibrocytes
  • lymphocytes
A
  • lymphocytes
  • erythroblasts
  • crypt cells
  • endothelial cells
  • fibrocytes
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21
Q

The stomach is located in which quadrant of the body?

A

upper left quadrant

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22
Q

Sterile techniques must be applied to ALL of the following EXCEPT?

  • lumbar puncture
  • blood culture
  • lesion biopsy
  • thoracentesis
  • sputum culture
  • sigmoidoscopy
  • urine culture
A
  • sputum culture
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23
Q

What are the 3 most radiosensitive organs in the body?

A
  1. gonads (testes & ovaries)
  2. bone marrow
  3. lens of the eye
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24
Q

What are the 3 most radioresistant organs in the body?

A
  1. ureters (7,000 cGy)
  2. urethra (7,000 cGy)
  3. vagina (9,000 cGy)
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25
Q

What 2 sets of lymph nodes are involved in the lymphatic drainage of the vulva?

A
  • inguinal

- femoral

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26
Q

The parotid gland is located ____ and ____ to the EAM

A
  • anterior

- inferior

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27
Q

Which of the following does a pancoast tumor NOT present with?

a. rib destruction
b. arm or shoulder pain
c. pulmonary artery invasion
d. brachial plexus involvement

A

c. pulmonary artery invasion

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28
Q

What is NOT a late effect of Mantle treatment?

a. pneumonitis
b. hypothyroidism
c. radiation carditis
d. low sperm count

A

d. low sperm count

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29
Q

What are the 2 most commonly treated sets of nodes for prostate cancer XRT?

A
  • periprostatic

- obturator

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30
Q

What is the most common symList 3 primary risk factors for esophageal cancer?

A

hematuria

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31
Q

List 3 primary risk factors for esophageal cancer?

A
  1. smoking
  2. alcohol
  3. Barrett’s Esophagus
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32
Q

Dose in Tissue / Dose in Air

A

TAR

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33
Q

TAR depends on ____ and ____, but is independent of ____.

A

TAR depends on depth and field size, but is independent of SSD.

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34
Q

Define RBE

A
  • Relative Biological Effect

- Dose in Gy from 250 kev x-ray / Dose in Gy from another radiation source that produces the same biologic response

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35
Q

Define LET

A
  • Linear Energy Transfer

- Rate at which energy is deposited as a charged particle travels through matter by a particular type of radiation

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36
Q

List 5 symptoms associated with XRT of oral cavity

A
  1. xerostomia (dry mouth)
  2. loss of taste
  3. weight loss
  4. dental carries
  5. osteoradionecrosis ((ORN) of the mandible is a severe iatrogenic disease of devitalized bone caused by radiation therapy of oral and oropharyngeal cancers.
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37
Q

What is a 3-D field arrangement for esophageal cancer XRT?

A

AP/PA, then boost with 2 posterior obliques to spare the spinal cord

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38
Q

BSF

A
  • Ratio of dose on the CAX at d-max to dose at the same point in air
  • dose at d-max / dose in air
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39
Q

BSF is dependent on ____ and ____, but independent of _____.

A

BSF is dependent on energy and field size, but independent of SSD.

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40
Q

BSF and ___ at Dmax are the same.

A

TAR

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41
Q

Encircles the nasopharynx and oropharynx

A

Waldeyer’s ring

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42
Q

Put the following list in order according to which depletes first, second, etc.

Platelets 150 - 424 thousand/mm
Neutrophils 42% to 72%
Erythrocytes 3.9 - 5.90 million mm/3
Lymphocytes 17% to 45%

A

Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Platelets (150 - 424 thousand/mm^3)
Erythrocytes (3.9 - 5.90 million/ mm^3

WBC ( 5, - 10.80 thousand/ mm^3)

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43
Q

Small, purplish hemorrhagic spots on the skin that appear in patient’s with thrombocytopenia are referred to as ____.

A

petechiae

44
Q

If you notice that a patient has petechiae, what would do you?

a. Send the patient for blood work
b. Tell the patient to take iron supplements
c. Advise the patient about skin care
d. Notify the oncologist

A

a. Send the patient for blood work

45
Q

List 4 symptoms of pancreatic cancer

A
  1. abdominal pain
  2. anorexia
  3. weight loss
  4. jaundice
46
Q

List 6 symptoms of prostate cancer

A
  1. Weak or interrupted flow of urine
  2. Difficulty starting or stopping the stream of urine
  3. Increased frequency
  4. Hematuria
  5. Painful urination
  6. Pain in the lower back, pelvis, or upper thighs
47
Q

Describe a 3D treatment technique for nasopharynx

A

Lateral neck fields with an anterior neck field that includes the S/C and lower cervical nodes

48
Q

Describe the nodal drainage for the nasopharynx

A
  • Retropharyngeal nodes (Node of Rouviere)
  • Deep cervical nodes
  • Jugulodigastric node
49
Q

List 5 critical structures in the treatment of maxillary sinus

A
  1. Parotid
  2. Temporomandibular joint
  3. Lacrimal gland
  4. Spinal cord
  5. Lens
50
Q

What are the routes of spread for testicular cancer?

A
  • Para aortic nodes to pelvic nodes (iliac nodes)

- In later stages, can go from para aortic to the mediastinal and then the left S/C nodes by way of the thoracic duct

51
Q

True or false? Retinoblastoma is hereditary.

A

true

Retinoblastoma (an eye cancer that begins in the back of the eye (retina) most commonly in children, in 1 or both eyes

52
Q

List a common example of hyperfractionation

A

BID

53
Q

hyperplasia`

A

increase in the NUMBER of cells

54
Q

List 5 histologies of thyroid cancer

A
  1. medullary
  2. papillary
  3. squamous cell
  4. follicular
  5. anaplastic
55
Q

Using an orthovoltage machine, what is the most common interaction with bone?

A

Compton scattering

56
Q

inflammatory redness of the skin that resembles a sunburn; usually happens after about 2 weeks of XRT

A

erythema

57
Q

shedding of the epidermis

A

dry desquamation

58
Q

most of the cells of the basal layer are destroyed; the dermis then becomes exposed and begins producing a serous oozing from its surface

A

moist desquamation

59
Q

Dry and moist desquamation may occur at around ____ to ____ cGy.

A

4500 - 6000 cGy

60
Q

When would you use half beam blocking?

A

field abutment (match lines)

common in left breast pt

61
Q

If XRT is the only treatment being used for Hodgkin’s disease, what is the normal dose prescribed for microscopic disease? Gross disease?

A

microscopic disease: 3000 - 3600 cGy

gross disease: 3600 - 4400 cGy

62
Q

In what age group do you find the peak incidence of larynx cancer?

A

50 - 60 year olds

63
Q

How many division of the larynx are there? What are they?

A

3 … supraglottic, glottic, & subglottic

64
Q

Where do 65 - 75% of glottic lesions appear, in regards to the vocal cords?

A

on the anterior 2/3s of 1 vocal cord

65
Q

single agent chemo used to treat breast cancer

A

tamoxifen

66
Q

Which of the following is more radiosensitive?

a. esophagus
b. germinomas
c. teratomas
d. osteosarcomas

A

b. germinomas (relating to or having the nature of germ cells)

67
Q

What is the vertebral level for the bifuration of the abdominal aorta?

A

L4

68
Q

Why do you use a belly board when treating rectal cancer?

A

to allow the small bowel to fall anteriorly out of the treatment field

69
Q

What is the dmax for 10MV?

A

2.5 cm

70
Q

What is the dmax for 4MV?

A

1.0 cm

71
Q

What is the dmax for 6MV?

A

1.5 cm

72
Q

What is the dmax for 18MV?

A

3.5 cm

73
Q

The practice that helps reduce the spread of microorganisms is referred to as ____.

A

asepsis

74
Q

During treatment, the patient has complete cardiac failure. Their chart says DNR. What do you do?

A

call the doctor and wait with the pt

75
Q

Why would Mantle & Inverted Y and ovarian cancer XRT impact the hemopoietic system the most?

A

These treatment fields include the largest amount of red bone marrow.

76
Q

If your iso needs to move 0.5 cm anterior, how do you move the patient?

A

0.5 cm posterior

77
Q

define thrombocytopenia

A

an abnormal decrease in the amount of platelets

caused by autoimmune disease such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis

78
Q

define thrombocytosis

A

having too many platelets

abnormal cells in the bone marrow can cause increase in platelets

79
Q

hypertrophy

A

an increase in the size of cells

80
Q

List 5 places where adult red bone marrow is found

A
  1. ribs
  2. ends of long bones
  3. vertebrae
  4. sternum
  5. skull bones
81
Q

Which type of lung cancer follows a different treatment regimen?

A

small cell carcinoma

82
Q

What is the formula for HVL?

A

.693 / M

83
Q

Why do we include the lung when treating breast cancer?

A

to treat the chest wall and avoid a recurrence of disease

84
Q

Where does the trachea start & end?

A

starts at C6 & ends at the carina

85
Q

If the patient is prone and the doctor orders a 1.5 cm anterior shift, what direction would you move the table? In what direction would this move the CAX?

A

move the table upward, which would then move the CAX anteriorly

86
Q

If the focal spot is out of alignment, what is the most plausible reason?

A

The mirror in the gantry head was accidentally knocked out of place

87
Q

Most larynx cancers occur in which region?

A

Glottic (65%)

FYI: Supraglottic = 34% & Sublottic = 1%

88
Q

Is cancer of the larynx more common in men or women?

A

men (5:1)

89
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor encountered in the head & neck region?

A

larynx cancer

90
Q

What is the most sensitive trimester in pregnancy with regard to radiation damage?

A

first trimester

91
Q

What is the largest blood supply organ?

A

spleen

92
Q

Name two organs that an urethrogram would be used for?

A
  1. bladder

2. kidneys

93
Q

In what organ is a pancoast tumor found?

A

lung (at the very top of either lung)

94
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and end?

A

foramen magnum to L2

95
Q

Reverse isolation protects ____ (whom?).

A

the patient

96
Q

Where is the circumvallate papillae located?

A

base of tongue

97
Q

What kind of surface should you perform CPR on?

A

flat surface

98
Q

If a breast patient has skin folds, what’s something you can do (in treatment planning) to decrease their skin reaction?

A

add a wedge

99
Q

What is the most sensitive part of the cell cycle?

A

M

100
Q

What is the most resistant part of the cell cycle?

A

S

101
Q

Describe the theory of Bergonie & Tribondeau

A

Ionizing radiation is more effective against cells that are actively dividing, are undifferentiated, and have a long dividing future

102
Q

What is the most common neoplasm for children?

A

leukemia

103
Q

What is the most common neoplasm for adults?

A

lung cancer

104
Q

critical site is damaged by reactive species produced by ionization elsewhere in the cell, which in turn damages the target

A

indirect action

105
Q

Put these parts of the machine in order: primary collimator, ion chamber, target, flattening filter

A
  1. Target
  2. Primary collimator
  3. Flattening filter
  4. Ion chamber
106
Q

Put these structures in order from most radiosensitive to most radioresistant: brain, breast, lens, testes

A
  1. lens
  2. testes
  3. brain
  4. breast

Last Semester Board Prep (21 decks)

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