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Last Semester Board Prep > Black and Yellow > Flashcards

Black and Yellow Flashcards

1
Q

Linear accelerators have which of the following type of target?

A. Hooded anode
B. Waveguide
C. Transmission
D. Rotating cathode

A

C. Transmission

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2
Q 
Klystrons and magnetrons are:
A. Radiation monitors
B. Microwave sources
C. Monitors used for mechanical motions
D. Beam shaping devices
A

B. Microwave sources

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3
Q 
Which of the following is the most common metastatic site for prostate cancer?
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Bone
D. Brain
A

C. Bone

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4
Q

Regarding linear accelerators, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Maximum photon energy is equal to the energy of the electron striking the target
B. The bending magnet is rotated out of the beam in the electron mode
C. The beam current is higher in the electron mode than in the photon mode
D. The scattering foil is the primary component for photon production

A

A. Maximum photon energy is equal to the energy of the electron striking the target

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5
Q 
1 mSv is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ rem.
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1.0
D. 10
A

B. 0.1

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6
Q

If the total body is exposed to a dose of 4500 cGy in a single exposure, the most likely cause of death would be:
A. Infection and low blood counts
B. Severe damage to the intestines
C. Cerebral edema
D. Death would not be likely with this dose

A

C. Cerebral edema

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7
Q 
By what factor does the intensity decrease when someone moves from 10 meters to 20 meters away from a radioactive source?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 20
A

B. 4

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8
Q

What is the allowable cumulative exposure for a radiation worker?
A. One rem times the worker’s age in years
B. Five rem times the worker’s age in decades
C. 100 rem times the worker’s age in years
D. Five rem times the worker’s age in decades

A

A. One rem times the worker’s age in years

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9
Q 
Which of the following are interactions between an incident photon and an atomic nucleus?
A. Photoelectric
B. Compton
C. Coherent
D. Pair production
A

D. Pair production

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10
Q 
A barrier that attenuated the useful portion of the beam to the required degree is known as?
A. Secondary barrier
B. Incident Shielding
C. Tenth Value Layer
D. Primary Barrier
A

D. Primary Barrier

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11
Q

A “star” shot on a linear accelerator is performed to test the rotational axis of the:

  1. Collimator
  2. Couch
  3. Gantry

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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12
Q 
Direct exposure to lasers that are used for patient alignment purposes can be a hazard for the:
A. Pituitary
B. Retina
C. Commissure
D. Inner ear
A

B. Retina

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13
Q 
The average photon beam energy produced by a 6 MV linear accelerator is approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ MV:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
A

A. 2

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14
Q

Which of the following tissues arise from mesenchymal stem cells (MSC)?

  1. Blood
  2. Cartilage
  3. bone

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

A

D. 1,2 and 3

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15
Q

In bremsstrahlung radiation, the incoming electron:
A. Interacts with an orbiting electron
B. Is deflected by the nucleus of the atom
C. Creates a positive and negative ion
D. Cascades to a lower energy state

A

B. Is deflected by the nucleus of the atom

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16
Q

Exposure is:
A. Measure of ionization in air
B. Known as a biological dose equivalent
C. the absorbed dose multiplied by the quality factor
D. The possibility of a random interaction

A

A. Measure of ionization in air

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17
Q 
Which of the following does not ionize directly?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Alpha particle
D. Electron
A

B. Neutron

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18
Q 
The half-life of cobalt-60 is:
A. 2.5 yrs
B. 3.2 yrs
C. 5.3 yrs
D. 8.2 yrs
A

C. 5.3 yrs

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19
Q 
The last part of the colon that leads into the rectum is known as the:
A. Ascending colon
B. hepatic colon
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
A

C. Descending colon

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20
Q

Why do high energy photon accelerators require flattening filters?
A. To increase the penetrating ability of the beam
B. To reduce dose rates to a safe level
C. To filter out low energy photons
D. To decrease the intensity along the central axis

A

D. To decrease the intensity along the central axis

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21
Q 
Lead alone could be used in room shielding when the following interactions predominate:
A. Photoelectric 
B. Bragg Peak 
C. Pair production 
D. Compton scattering
A

A. Photoelectric

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22
Q

What does ALARA mean?
A. Acting responsibly as soon as required
B. Advocating as little radiation as reasonably achievable
C. Reporting all accidents as soon as discovered
D. Always leaving an area right away

A

B. Advocating as little radiation as reasonably achievable

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23
Q 
The most common thermoluminescence material used in radiation dosimetry is:
A. CaSO4
B. LiF
C. CaF2
D. Li2B2
A

B. LiF

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24
Q 
The angle of the mandible is generally located at which cervical vertebra level?
A. C1
B. C3
C. C5
D. C7
A

B. C3

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25
Q 
The trachea is a hollow tube about 10cm in length that extends from the larynx to a bifurcation called the:
A. Bronchus
B. Saphanous
C. Tributary
D. Carina
A

D. Carina

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26
Q 
Monitoring of dose rate and field symmetry is best accomplished by using a (an):
A.Pocket dosimeter 
B.Ion chamber 
C.TLD 
D.GM counter
A

B.Ion chamber

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27
Q 
In the pancreas, where do most tumors originate?
A. Head
B. Tail
C. Body
D. Hilum
A

A. Head

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28
Q 
Effects for which the severity of the effect in the individual varies with the radiation dose, and a threshold usually exists is called:
A. Stochastic 
B. Deterministic
C. Acute
D. Protracted
A

B. Deterministic

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29
Q

Which of the following devices are used for area surveys:

  1. Ionization chambers
  2. Parallel-plate chambers
  3. Geiger-Mueller detectors

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

B. 1 and 3 only

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30
Q 
According to NRC regulations, what is the MPD for those who are NOT trained radiation workers?
A. 0.1 rem/year
B. 1.0 rem/year
C. 1.25 rem/year
D. 5.0 rem/ year
A

A. 0.1 rem/year

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31
Q

The categories of visitors who are excluded from visiting a radioactive iodine patient are:
A. Females who have reproductive potential and children of any age
B. Elderly females and children under 13 years of age
C. No categories are excluded because radiation safety precautions are in effect
D. Pregnant women and children under 18 years of age

A

D. Pregnant women and children under 18 years of age

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32
Q 
The section of the bladder between the ureters and the urethra is known as the:
A. Trigone
B. Urogenital diaphragm 
C. Calyces
D. Muscular is propria
A

A. Trigone

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33
Q 
Which is the largest paranasal sinus cavity?
A. Nasopharynx
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
A

C. Maxillary

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34
Q

Bolus can be used to:

  1. Flatten out surface irregularities
  2. Reduce beam penetration
  3. Increase surface dose

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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35
Q 
According to the AAPM TG-40, gantry / collimator angle indicators on the linear accelerator must agree within \_\_\_\_\_ degree(s):
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 5
A

A. 1

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36
Q

Lung cancer frequently spreads to:

  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. bone

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

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37
Q 
What is the purpose of the scattering foil in a linear accelerator?
A. Increase the intensity of the beam
B. Provide uniform electron fluence
C. Absorb radiation
D. Flatten out photon beam
A

B. Provide uniform electron fluence

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38
Q 
What is the approximate Dmax of a 10mV linear accelerator?
A. 1.0 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2.0
D. 2.5 cm
A

D. 2.5 cm

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39
Q 
Photoelectric interactions of a 60 keV beam are greatest in:
A. Water
B. Fat
C. Muscle
D. Bone
A

D. Bone

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40
Q 
Which of the following is most radiosensitive (susceptible to long term damage at the lowest dose)?
A. Spinal cord
B. Heart
C. Lung
D. Liver
A

C. Lung

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41
Q 
The stomach is located in the:
A. Right upper quadrant
B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Left lower quadrant
A

C. Left upper quadrant

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42
Q

What symptoms are most often associated with carcinoma of the cervix?

  1. vaginal discharge
  2. vaginal bleeding
  3. bloating and weight gain

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 and 2 only

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43
Q

What does the oropharynx region include?

  1. Base of tongue
  2. Tonsil
  3. Soft Palate

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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44
Q

From what type of tissue do most sarcomas arise?

A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Nerve
D. Skin

A

D. Skin

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45
Q

Referring to the MRI scan to the right, the outlined organ is/are the:

A. Seminal vesicles
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen

A

C. Pancreas

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46
Q 
Where is a sarcoma most likely to metastasize?
A. Bone
B. Lung
C. Blood
D. Brain
A

B. Lung

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47
Q

When a patient presents with a bloody nasal discharge and a neck mass the most likely diagnosis is:

A. Larynx cancer
B. Hypopahryngeal cancer
C. Nasopharyngeal cancer
D. Brain metastases

A

C. Nasopharyngeal cancer

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48
Q

Which of the following is the most common primary brain tumor in adults?

A. Glioma
B. Meningioma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Metastasis

A

A. Glioma

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49
Q

With breast cancer which of the following patterns of lymph node drainage occurs most often?

A. Internal mammary
B. Axillary
C. Supraclavicular
D. Mediastinal

A

B. Axillary

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50
Q

The most common site for metastatic spread of carcinoma of the penis is the:

A. Inguinal nodes
B. Periaortic nodes
C. Lungs
D. Liver

A

A. Inguinal nodes

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51
Q

Hypofractionation is:

  1. Treatment given in fewer fractions than standard
  2. Use of very low dose rates
  3. Treatment given two or more times per day

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

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52
Q

The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that folds back to cover the entrance of the:

A. Hypopharynx
B. Esophagus
C. Trachea
D. Larynx

A

D. Larynx

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53
Q

The most common histopatholgy of endometrial cancer is:

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell
C. Clear cell
D. Mixed cellularity

A

A. Adenocarcinoma

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54
Q

The largest lymphoid tissue is the:

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Jugulodigastric node

A

B. Spleen

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55
Q

In the normal adult male the prostate is located __________ to the bladder.

A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Posterior
D. Anterior

A

B. Inferior

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56
Q

Breast cancer metastasizes to:

  1. Bone
  2. Lung
  3. Brain

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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57
Q

The lower constricted portion of the uterus is called the:

A. Endometrium
B. Myometria
C. Cervix
D. Peritonial

A

C. Cervix

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58
Q

The vocal cords are found within a structure formed by cartilage called the:

A. Pharynx
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Vallecula

A

C. Larynx

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59
Q

What type of lung cancer may need prophylactic brain irradiation?

A. Small cell
B. Large cell
C. Squamous cell
D. Adenocarcinoma

A

A. Small cell

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60
Q

What cancer is “peau de orange” associated with?

A. Basal cell
B. Melanoma
C. Breast
D. Prostate

A

C. Breast

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61
Q

The inguinal lymph nodes are generally included in which of the following treatment sites?

A. Cervix
B. Vulva
C. Prostate
D. Rectum

A

B. Vulva

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62
Q

Nasopharyngeal tumors drain through what lymph node group first?

A. Posterior cervical
B. Submental
C. Submaxillary
D. Supraclavicular

A

A. Posterior cervical

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63
Q

The most common type of breast cancer is:

A. Tubular
B. Lobular
C. Infiltrating ductal
D. Adenoidcystic

A

C. Infiltrating ductal

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64
Q

Referring to the CT scan to the right, the arrow is pointing to the:

A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Gallbladder
D. Spleen

A

C. Gallbladder

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65
Q

If a pathology report indicates a stage of T1N0M3, what can be said about the lymph node involvement of the nodes sampled?

A. Positive nodes are found close to the primary tumor
B. The nodes were unable to be sampled
C. No positive nodes were present
D. Positive nodes are found at distant sites

A

C. No positive nodes were present

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66
Q

Which of the following is the most common site for a spinal cord compression?

A. Cervical spine
B. Thoracic spine
C. Lumbar spine
D. Sacrum

A

B. Thoracic spine

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67
Q

The tolerance dose (TD 5/5) of the whole liver using standard fractionation (180-200 cGy/day) is:

A. 1500-2000 cGy
B. 2500-3000cGy
C. 3500-4000cGy
D. 4500-5000cGy

A

B. 2500-3000cGy

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68
Q

The degree of cellular differentiation and rate of tumor growth is the:

A. Stage
B. Grade
C. Etiology
D. Epidemiology

A

B. GradeThe common iliac nodes are generally found around the level of:

A.C-2
B.T-10
C.L-2
D.L-5

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69
Q

When treating the entire CNS axis, the bottom of the spine port generally extends to the level of ___________ when encompassing the cauda equina.

A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S2

A

D. S2

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70
Q

A multiple field technique (3 or more fields) is generally utilized when treating pituitary cancers, opposed to 2 lateral fields, to avoid an excessive dose to which of the following structures?

A.Eyes
B.Optic chiasm
C.Temporal lobes
D.Sella turcica

A

C.Temporal lobes

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71
Q

The common iliac nodes are generally found around the level of:

A.C-2
B.T-10
C.L-2
D.L-5

A

D.L-5

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72
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A. Left upper quadrant (LUQ)
B. Left lower quadrant (LLQ)
C. Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
D. Right lower quadrant (RLQ)

A

A. Left upper quadrant (LUQ)

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73
Q

What external landmark can be used to localize the top of the larynx?

A. Thyroid prominence
B. Hyoid bone
C. Cervical vertebrae
D. Waldyer’s ring

A

A. Thyroid prominence

Prominence the fact or condition of standing out from something by physically projecting or being particularly noticeable.

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74
Q

The collapse of a part or all of the lung, which often results from bronchial obstruction is termed:

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pneumontitis
D. Pleurisy

A

B. Atelectasis

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75
Q

When treating the maxillary antrum, which neighboring structures is most sensitive?

A. Eye
B. Pituitary
C. Spinal cord
D. Brain

A

A. Eye

76
Q

The pituitary is located:

A. 2 cm posterior and 2 cm inferior to the EAM
B. 2 cm anterior and 2 cm superior to the EAM
C. 1 cm posterior and 2 cm superior to EAM
D. 2 cm anterior and 2 cm inferior to the EAM

A

B. 2 cm anterior and 2 cm superior to the EAM

77
Q

The trachea bifurcates at the level of:

A. C4-C5
B. T12-L1
C. T4-T5
D. L4-L5

A

C. T4-T5

78
Q

When treating a breast patient, the slope of the sternal notch to the xiphoid could be corrected by:

A. Aquaplast
B. Slant board
C. Arm board
D. Vaclock system

A

B. Slant board

79
Q

When treating a patient with cancer of the tongue, what is the purpose of putting a bit block (tongue gag) in the patient’s mouth?

A. Flatten tongue
B. Protect teeth
C. Localize madible
D. Alter dose distrubution

A

A. Flatten tongue

80
Q

What external landmark can be used to locate the carina?

A. Thyroid prominence
B. Axilla
C. Angle of Louis
D. Clavicle

A

C. Angle of Louis

81
Q

The xiphoid process is located at the level of:

A. T4-T5
B. T7-T8
C. T9-T10
D. T11-T12

A

C. T9-T10

82
Q

The vallecula is located at the level of which of the following structures?

A. Pyriform sinus
B. Thyroid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. Cricoid cartilage

A

C. Hyoid bone

83
Q

The inferior border of a larynx port for a vocal cord carcinoma should anatomically correspond to:

A. Bottom of the thyroid cartilage
B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. First tracheal ring

A

B. Cricoid cartilage

84
Q

If you are using a gonad shield when treating a patient with seminoma on a 6 MV linear accelerator, why can’t all of the scatter to the testicles be eliminated?

A. Internal scatter from the patient cannot be eliminated
B. The shield would have to be too thick
C. Part of the testicle must be exposed to properly treat the patient
D. A 6 MV machine creates more scatter to the testicles when a testicular shield is used

A

A. Internal scatter from the patient cannot be eliminated

85
Q

What is the TD 5/5 tolerance dose using standard fractionation, for the lens of the eye?

A. 450 cGy
B. 1000 cGy
C. 2000 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

A

B. 1000 cGy

86
Q

If a patient has a reaction to contrast media, you would expect to see all of the following except:

A. Hypotension
B. Choking
C. Incontinence
D. Pruritis

A

C. Incontinence

incontinence: lack of voluntary control over urination or defecation.

87
Q

The patient’s chin is tilted down when treating a pituitary gland to avoid the:

A. Eyes
B. Surrounding brain tissue
C. Spine
D. Base of the skull

A

A. Eyes

88
Q

What is the technique in which a skin cancer is removed and examined one layer at a time?

A. Curettage
B. Cryosurgery
C. Moh’s Surgery
D. Dermobrasion

A

C. Moh’s Surgery

89
Q

What type of lung cancer has the highest incidence of metastasis at presentation?

A. Small cell
B. Large cell
C. Squamous cell
D. Adenocarcinoma

A

A. Small cell

90
Q

Which of the following areas are generally encompassed in a “German helmet” radiation port when treating acute lymphocytic leukemia?

  1. Cribiform plate
  2. Meninges
  3. Posterior retina

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

91
Q

A strontium-90 applicator may be useful in the treatment of which of the following diseases of the eye?

A. Retinoblastoma
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Pterygium
D. Metastasis

A

C. Pterygium

92
Q

The tolerance dose (TD 5/5) for the whole brain using standard fractionation is approximately:

A. 3500 cGy
B. 4500 cGy
C. 5500 cGy
D. 6500 cGy

A

B. 4500 cGy

93
Q

A non-osseous tumor of the bone marrow is:

A. Fibrosarcoma
B. Chonrosarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Multiple Myeloma

A

D. Multiple Myeloma

94
Q

Which of the following is the MOST radiosensitive structure?

A. Liver
B. Spine
C. Brain stem
D. Optic chiasm

A

A. Liver

95
Q

The false vocal cords are located ______________ to the glottis.

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Lateral

A

C. Superior

96
Q

What is the primary reason to angle the gantry posteriorly when treating Grave’s disease (Graves’ disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism)) with two lateral fields?

A. To avoid divergence into the lens
B. To assure coverage of the posterior orbit
C. To increase the dose to the orbital tissue
D. To assure coverage of the protruding eye

A

A. To avoid divergence into the lens

97
Q

What fraction would you multiply an electron energy by to estimate the 90% isodose range?

A. 2/3
B. 1/2
C. 3/8
D. 1/4

A

D. 1/4

98
Q

A patient is usually treated at 100cm. The patient must be treated on a stretcher at 125 SSD. For the rumor dose and size treatment area to remain the same as originally planned, which of the following statements is true?

a. The collimator setting will decrease
2. The monitor unit setting will increase
3. the exit dose will slightly increase

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

99
Q

The depth of maximum dose is most dependent on:

A. SSD
B. Field size
C. Beam energy
D. Thickness of tissue

A

C. Beam energy

100
Q

Why is a tumor of the parotid gland frequently treated with a ipsilateral arrangement?

A. To avoid the spine
B. To avoid the eyes
C. To avoid the other parotid
D. For ease of setup

A

C. To avoid the other parotid

101
Q

Backscatter factors are independent of:

A. Field size
B. Radiation quality
C. SSD
D. TAR at dmax

A

C. SSD

102
Q

Areas outside the target that receives a higher dose than the specified target dose are called:

A. Max target area
B. Irradiated volume
C. Hot spots
D. Treated volume

A

C. Hot spots

103
Q

what precautions should be taken when treating the chest of a patient with a pacemaker?

  1. cover the region of the pacemaker with lead
  2. Keep the pacemaker out of the direct beam, if possible
  3. Contact the manufacturer regarding radiation tolerance

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

104
Q

The largest salivary gland in the head and neck is the:

A. submaxillary
B. Sublingual
C. Parotid
D. Mastoid

A

C. Parotid

105
Q

When performing a CT on a patient for IMRT treatment of a prostate, what size slices are used through the pelvis?

A. 5.0 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 1.0 mm
D. 10 mm

A

B. 3.0 mm

106
Q

The practical range for 18 MeV electrons is:

A. 6cm
B. 8 cm
C. 9 cm
D. unable to determine

A

C. 9 cm

107
Q

When treating with orthovoltage x-rays, the percentage depth dose will increase with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Increasing the field size
B. Increasing the kV
C. Increasing the mA
D. Increasing the distance

A

C. Increasing the mA

108
Q

The most common presentation of superior vena cava syndrome is:

A. Distended veins in the head and neck
B. Bloody nasal discharge
C. Headaches
D. Incontinence

A

A. Distended veins in the head and neck

distended: swollen due to pressure from inside; bloated.

109
Q

For patients with bladder cancer, the bladder should be _________ during treatment, when the entire bladder is the target volume.

A. Empty
B. Partially full
C. Full
D. Localized with contrast media

A

A. Empty

110
Q

The rapid fall off of dose around a cesium-137 source in a 5cm radius of tissue is due primarily to:

  1. The inverse square law
  2. The low energy of the radiation
  3. Alpha and beta emission

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

111
Q

When manipulating a CT image, increasing the width of the window:

  1. Decreases contrast
  2. Increases latitude
  3. Increases speed

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

A. 1 and 3 only

112
Q

What would be the TD 5/5 tolerance dose for both whole lungs given in fraction of 180cGy/day?

A. 1500-2500cGy
B. 2500-3500cGy
C. 3500-4500cGy
D. 4500-5000cGy

A

A. 1500-2500cGy

113
Q

The amount of energy transferred to a material per unit length of travel is termed:

A. RBE
B. LET
C. QE
D. OER

A

B. LET

114
Q

What is the TD 5/5 tolerance dose for the whole kidney given in fractions of 180cGy/day

A. 1500-2000 cGy
B. 2000-2500cGy
C. 2500-3000cGy
D. 3000-3500cGy

A

B. 2000-2500cGy

115
Q

What is the dose at which you generally reduce the field “off cord” when treating a head and neck cancer?

A. 3000-3500cGy
B. 4500-5000cGy
C. 5500-6000cGy
D. 6000-6500cGy

A

B. 4500-5000cGy

116
Q

RBE is dependent on which of the following:
[1] Radiation quality
[2] Radiation dose per fraction
[3] Tissue irradiated

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

117
Q

When dealing with OER and anoxic tissue, which would be the most effective?

A. 6mV photons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Electrons

A

B. Protons

anoxia: is a condition in which there is an absence of oxygen supply to an organ’s tissues although there is adequate blood flow to the tissue.

118
Q

What normal organ would be at most risk when treating a maxillary sinus tumor?

A. Oral cavity
B. Pituitary gland
C. Eye
D. Ear

A

C. Eye

119
Q

A patient is setup on a wing board with both arms up. What areas are commonly treated using this position?

  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Pancreas

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

120
Q

What is the most potent chemical modifier of radiosensitivity to X and gamma rays?

A. 5Fu
B. Oxygen
C. Misonidazole
D. Adriamycin

A

B. Oxygen

121
Q

When a patient has been treated with a cesium insertion for cervical cancer, why would she be treated with external beam radiation following the cesium?

A. To decrease the size of the tumor
B. To deliver a higher dose to the cervix
C. To avoid infertility
D. To treat the pelvic lymph nodes

A

D. To treat the pelvic lymph nodes

122
Q

Which of the following is required for fabricating custom cut blocks?

  1. Source axis distance
  2. Source image distance
  3. Source to block tray distance

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

A

B. 2 and 3 only

123
Q

When treating a lesion on the outside of the nose with electrons, what is the major reason that you place a wax coated lead strip in the nose?

A. To increase the dose to the outside of the nose
B. To decrease dose to the inside of the nose
C. For patient comfort
D. A lead strip should never be placed within the nose

A

B. To decrease dose to the inside of the nose

124
Q

Two wedges are used to treat a maxillary antrum tumor through an anterior and a lateral port. What part of the wedges should be adjacent?

A. thin side anterior to thick side laterally
B. thin side anterior to thin side laterally
C. Thick side anterior to thick side laterally
D. thick side anterior to thin side laterally

A

C. Thick side anterior to thick side laterally

125
Q

When treating the breast, if a slant board is used rather than the patient lying flat, which of the following is TRUE?

A. The breast “falls” into the supraclavicular port
B. More lung tissue is included in the supraclavicular port
C. It is more difficult for the patient to raise her arm
D. The chest wall cannot be treated when using the slant board

A

B. More lung tissue is included in the supraclavicular port

126
Q

To verify that the radiation field and the light field are aligned on a 10 MV linear accelerator you could use the following:

A. Tissue equivalent phantom and an ionization chamber
B. Mechanical distance indicator and paper
C. Shielding block and readi-pak x-ray film
D. Readi-pak x-ray film, a pen, and a ruler

A

D. Readi-pak x-ray film, a pen, and a ruler

127
Q

For photon energies between 0.150 MeV and 10.0 MeV, the predominant type of interaction is:

A. Photoelectric
B. Compton
C. Pair production
D. Bremsstrahlung

A

B. Compton

128
Q

Which of the following systems must be functioning in order to treat a patient safely on a high energy machine?

  1. A two-way audio system
  2. A visual system to monitor the patient and machine function
  3. An audible signal to inform the patient when the machine ic on

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 and 2 only

129
Q

To preserve the skin sparing properties of the megavoltage photon beams, the compensator is placed at least _____________ from the skin

A. 1-5 cm
B. 5-10 cm
C. 9-12 cm
D. 15-20 cm

A

D. 15-20 cm

130
Q

What is the main advantage of using cerrobend over lead in custom blocking?

A. It is softer than lead
B. It cannot form air bubbles
C. It has a lower melting point
D. It requires thicker blocks to obtain the same effect

A

C. It has a lower melting point

131
Q

Portal verification is defined as the documentation of:

A. Isodose curves through the use of film or electronic imaging devices
B. The extent of disease using film or electronic imaging devices
C. The actual treatment using film or electronic imaging devices
D. The approval of the treatment port by a qualified physic

A

C. The actual treatment using film or electronic imaging devices

132
Q

According to the ICRU terminology, the area that is defined as the palpable or visible extent of the malignant tumor is called the:

A. Treated volume
B. Gross tumor volume
C. Clinical target volume
D. Planning target volume

A

B. Gross tumor volume

133
Q

What is the tolerance dose of the outlined organ in the MRI to the right?

A. 2500-3000cGy
B. 3000-3500cGy
C. 4500-5000cGy
D. 6000-6500cGy

A

C. 4500-5000cGy

134
Q

You have an extremely large patient and you must treat two lateral pelvic fields. What technique will give you the most even dose distribution throughout the treatment field?

A. Isocentric technique treated to the patient’s midline
B. SSD technique, Moving the treatment table as far away from the source as possible
C. Midline isocentric technique with blocks added
D. Midline isocentric technique with wedges added

A

B. SSD technique, Moving the treatment table as far away from the source as possible

135
Q

When a field size changed during the course of a patient’s treatment, which of the following statements are TRUE?

  1. Treatment depth must change
  2. The physician must include changes in the prescription
  3. The monitor units or time must be recalculated

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

136
Q

All chemicals used in a department require:

A. Listing with the human resource department
B. Material safety data sheets (MSDS)
C. An 800 number for toxic information
D. Labels containing information case of exposure

A

B. Material safety data sheets (MSDS)

137
Q

The standard amount of time that should elapse between two radiation therapy treatments given in the same day to the same site is:

A. 3 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 9 hours
D. 12 hours

A

B. 6 hours

138
Q

If 1.5cm is added to the inferior border of a treatment port, what happens to the original isocenter if you are not using independent (asymmetric) jaws?

A. Shifts 0.75 cm superiorly
B. Shifts 0.75 c inferiorly
C. Shifts 1.5 cm superiorly
D. Isocenter stays the same

A

B. Shifts 0.75 c inferiorly

139
Q

Which of the following statements concerning patient’s rights are TRUE?

  1. A relative has the right to access a patient’s record
  2. The patient has the right to refuse treatment
  3. The patient has the right to be informed of any alternative procedures prior to his treatment

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

B. 2 and 3 only

140
Q

MV portal films taken on a megavoltage machine have less contrast than kV films because the MV image results principally from:

A. Pair production
B. Photoelectric
C. Compton interaction
D. Photodisintegration

A

C. Compton interaction

141
Q

Restraining a patient in an aquaplast mask without consent can be considered:

  1. battery
  2. assault
  3. humane

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

A. 1 and 3 only

142
Q

During radiation therapy to the pelvis if a patient is complaining of the following, which would most likely warrant interruption in the course of treatment:

A. Dysuria
B. Acute radiation enteritis
C. Tenesmus
D. Impotence

A

B. Acute radiation enteritis

Radiation enteritis is inflammation of the intestines that occurs after radiation therapy. Radiation enteritis causes diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and stomach cramps in people receiving radiation aimed at the abdomen, pelvis or rectum

143
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning a patient’s medical record?

  1. it is a legal public document
  2. Patient’s may review their record upon request
  3. It may be subpoennaed in a court of law

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

A

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

144
Q

The deficiency in the number of circulating white blood cells in the body is called:

A. Anemia
B. Leukopenia
C. Polycythemia
D. Throbocytopenia

A

B. Leukopenia

145
Q

After what time period would fibrosis generally appear following standard external beam therapy?

A. One month
B. One year
C. One week
D. Two weeks

A

B. One year

146
Q

When treating the parotid gland with standard fractionation (180-200 cGy/day), what is the tolerance dose (TD 5/5) that patients will develop xerostomia?

A. 500-1500 cGy
B. 2500-3500 cGy
C. 4500-5500 cGy
D. 6500-7000 cGy

A

B. 2500-3500 cGy

147
Q

The most common long term effect of radiation therapy to the lung is:

A. Pneumonitis
B. Necrosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Esophagitis

A

C. Fibrosis

Pulmonary fibrosis is a lung disease that occurs when lung tissue becomes damaged and scarred.

148
Q

When treating a patient with giloblastoma, he begins to experience nausea, dizziness, and blurred vision. Which is the most likely reason?

A. Tumor necrosis
B. Cerebral edema
C. CNS syndrome
D. Reaction to medication

A

B. Cerebral edema

149
Q

Deodorants should not be used on the skin within a radiation treatment field because the deodorants will:

A. Create scatter radiation
B. Acts as a bolus
C. Enhance the radiation
D. Irritate the skin

A

D. Irritate the skin

150
Q

Written defamation of character is best known as:

A. Slander
B. Libel
C. Cursing
D. Literary fault

A

B. Libel

151
Q

The normal platelet count is approximately:

A. 60,000 cc
B. 80,000 cc
C. 120,000 cc
D. 300,000 cc

A

D. 300,000 cc

152
Q

All of the following medications are antiemetics except:

A. Norazine
B. Compazine
C. Tylenol
D. Torecan

A

C. Tylenol

153
Q

Bone marrow depression is most likely to occur when you are treating which part of the body?

A. Skull
B. Pelvic bones
C. Femur
D. Vertebrae

A

B. Pelvic bones

Marrow depression: A laboratory finding indicating decreased number of hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow. It may result from decreased proliferation of all or part of the hematopoietic series

154
Q

Which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs sensitizes the human heart?

A. Bleomycin
B. Adriamycin
C. Vincristine
D. Cis-platinum

A

B. Adriamycin

155
Q

When treating the whole brain which drug is used to reduce radiation induced edema?

A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Diuretics
D. Antihistamines

A

B. Corticosteroids

156
Q

Patients who are neutropenic frequently present with _________ due to this condition.

A. Headaches
B. Shortness of breath
C. Bleeding
D. Infections

A

D. Infections

157
Q

Which of the following types of medical apparatus should normally remain at a level above the patient at all times?

A. Chest tubes
B. Suction apparatus
C. Intravenous infusion equipment
D. Urinary drainage equipment

A

C. Intravenous infusion equipment

158
Q

Which of the following is not a principle of using proper body mechanics?

A. Roll or slide objects when possible rather than lift
B. Keep the feet close together to provide support
C. Avoid twisting or bending at the waist
D. Lift objects with knees flexed

A

B. Keep the feet close together to provide support

159
Q

Which of the following is methods is used to deliver hyperalimentation?

A. Oral intake
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Subcutaneous injection

A

C. Intravenous injection

160
Q

The purpose or Protective (Reverse) Isolation is:

A. To prevent the transmission of pathogens in the feces
B. To prevent transmission of pathogens transmitted by direct contact with wounds
C. To protect an uninfected patient with lowered resistance
D. To prevent infection of personnel

A

zC. To protect an uninfected patient with lowered resistanc

161
Q

Which of the following is the best method to prevent the spread of infection?

A. wash hands
B. Wear gowns
C. Wear a mask
D. Clean the table

A

A. wash hands

162
Q

To prevent the spread of airborne droplet infection, which of the following must be employed?

  1. gowns
  2. masks
  3. gloves

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 2 only

163
Q

The term that best describes complete removal of all microorganisms is called:

A. Medical asepsis
B. Disinfection
C. Antisepsis
D. Sterilization

A

A. Medical asepsis

164
Q

A patient with tuberculosis should be placed in:

A. Enteric isolation
B. Protective isolation
C. Respiratory isolation
D. Reverse isolation

A

C. Respiratory isolation

165
Q

Regarding “flatness” of a megavoltage photon beam, which of the following is TRUE?
[1] Beam flatness changes with depth due to scatter and decreased intensity at the field edge
[2] Adequate flatness is defined as +/- 3% over 80% of the field at the measured depth
[3] Flatness profiles may be used to determine symmetry

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

166
Q

During a convulsive seizure, the most important action to be taken by a therapist is:

A. Prevent patient injury
B. Give the patient water
C. Give the patient sugar
D. Hold the patient’s tongue

A

A. Prevent patient injury

167
Q

An iatrogenic infection is one caused by:

A. Hospital employees
B. Synergistic effect with radiation
C. Blood born pathogens
D. Complications from treatment

A

D. Complications from treatment

168
Q

The point of intersection of the collimators and the gantry axis of rotation is the:

A. Midline
B. Isocenter
C. Treatment volume
D. Tumor volume

A

B. Isocenter

169
Q

The two major energies associated with Cobalt-60 beta decay are gamma energies of:

A. 1.02 and 1.11 MeV
B. 1.17 and 1.33 MeV
C. 2.25 and 2.38 MeV
D. 2.51 and 3.02 MeV

A

B. 1.17 and 1.33 MeV

170
Q

The 80% isodose line can be estimated for electrons by dividing the energy (E) by:

A. 2.11
B. 2.33
C. 3.00
D. 4.00

A

C. 3.00

171
Q

According to the definition of the International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements (ICRU), the wedge angle refers to: “the angle through which an isodose curve is titled at the central ray of a beam at a specified depth.” The recommended depth is:

A. 5cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm

A

B. 10 cm

172
Q

If you compare the penumbra of a 6 MV linear accelerator, operating in the photon mode, to the penumbra of a Co60 teletherapy machine using the same SSD, which of the following is TRUE?

A. The 6 MV linear accelerator has a greater penumbra than the Co-60 source
B. The 6 MV linear accelerator has less penumbra than the Co-60 source
C. The 6MV linear accelerator has the same amount of penumbra as the Co-60
D. Neither machine would have measurable penumbra

A

B. The 6 MV linear accelerator has less penumbra than the Co-60 source

173
Q

Percentage depth dose increases with:

  1. Field size
  2. SSD
  3. Energy

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

174
Q

For radiation workers, the occupational dose is usually reported in:

A. Rad
B. Rem
C. Roentgen
D. Gray

A

B. Rem

175
Q

When a patient is treated with more than one beam, misalignment between parallel opposed beams can occur due to displacement of the:

  1. Target
  2. Collimator axis of rotation
  3. Gantry axis of rotation

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

D. 1,2, and 3

176
Q

Which of the following has the LEAST radiosensitivity (most resistant)?

A. Bone marrow
B. Lymphoid tissue
C. Muscle
D. Mature cartilage

A

D. Mature cartilage

177
Q

Where are pancoast tumors located?

A. Apex of lung
B. Periphery of lung
C. Mediastinum
D. Hilum

A

A. Apex of lung

178
Q

The most radiosensitive stage of the cell cycle is:

A. DNA Synthesis
B. G1
C. G2
D. Mitosis

A

D. Mitosis

179
Q

A split beam technique in which half of the field is blocked:

  1. Prevents beam divergence
  2. Allows for fields to match at the central ray
  3. Overlays the penumbra of two fields

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 and 2 only

180
Q

The most common presenting sign of Wilms tumor is:

A. Fever and chills
B. Non-tender mass
C. Bone pain
D. Nausea and vomitting

A

B. Non-tender mass

Wilms tumor (also called Wilms’ tumor or nephroblastoma) is a type of childhood cancer that starts in the kidneys. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in children. About 9 of 10 kidney cancers in children are Wilms tumors

181
Q

In general, when treating with radiation, the proximal and distal margin around a soft tissue sarcoma should be at least __________ cm

A. 2
B. 5
C. 8
D. 12

A

B. 5

182
Q

Where does the spinal cord start and stop in normal adults?

A. Foramen magnum to L5
B. C-7 to L-5
C. Foramen magnum to L2
D. Foramen magnum to T12

A

C. Foramen magnum to L2

183
Q

The practical range of an electron beam:
A. Increases with increasing electron energy
B. About 1 cm for every 2 MEV
C. About one half the electron energy

A & B
A & C
B & C
A, B & C

A

A, B & C

184
Q

Mayneord’s F factor is a correction for which of the following?

A. Depth
B. Field size
C. Beam energy
D. Distance

A

A. Depth

185
Q

In a 120 degree arc rotation technique, the center of the high dose zone would be:

A. Deeper than the isocenter
B. Displaced towards the surface
C. Same shape as a 360 degree rotation
D. At the isocenter

A

B. Displaced towards the surface

186
Q

Regarding electron beams which of the following is TRUE:

  1. Directly ionizing due to their negative charge
  2. Less likely to interact with air than photons
  3. Have a higher LET than photons

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

Last Semester Board Prep (21 decks)

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