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Legacy 450/500 Praetor 500 > New Recurrent 135 Study Guide > Flashcards

New Recurrent 135 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

After ditching in water, passengers and crewmembers should wait to inflate their life vests until they have exited the aircraft.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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2
Q

An Acceleration Height or Obstacle Clearance Altitude is a part of every APG Special Departure Procedure.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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3
Q

You must determine if increases in runway length requirements are specified for the aircraft, if you are planning to turn on the engine anti-ice protection system prior to take off.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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4
Q

The takeoff weight must be limited so as not to exceed any brake energy limitation for the flight.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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5
Q

One acceptable method for determining aircraft performance and obstacle clearance data is…
a. Aircraft certification requirements.
b. SID climb requirements.
c. APG data.
Source: FOM

A

c. APG data.

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6
Q

If contaminated runway data exists (approved or non-approved) for the aircraft, it will be used to determine required runway for departure and landing on contaminated runways.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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7
Q

Crews are authorized to accept and fly RNAV Q Routes.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM and Ops Specs

A

a. True

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8
Q

Prior to using GPS based navigation systems crews must verify that RAIM is available.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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9
Q

When cleared for an RNAV departure, crews must ensure that the following is correctly loaded in the navigation system…
a. The entire RNAV DP segment is retrieved from the area navigation database by procedure name, the correct departure runway must be loaded, and the correct transition must be loaded.
b. The current version of the cleared RNAV procedure and the first fix.
c. The version of the cleared RNAV procedure available from your FMS, the departure runway from the ATIS and the assigned transition.
d. The first fix, and the first altitude.
Source: FOM

A

a. The entire RNAV DP segment is retrieved from the area navigation database by procedure name, the correct departure runway must be loaded, and the correct transition must be loaded.

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10
Q

Pilot crewmembers will receive an updated weather briefing within 30 minutes prior to landing at the destination.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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11
Q

When flying RNAV departure manually selecting bank limiting (half bank) may reduce ability to satisfy ATC path expectations.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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12
Q

Government charts (NACO) are only authorized for training purposes. Jeppesen charts that are provided on the EFBs must be used for all passenger carrying operations.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

b. False Source: FOM

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13
Q

When are you prohibited from accepting a “line up and wait” clearance?
a. At night with visibility less than 1 mile and the departure runway is being used only for departures.
b. A line up and wait clearance is not authorized
c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, unless the crew can be assured that the departure runway is not being used for arrivals.
d. At TEB when departing runway 24.
Source: FOM

A

c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, unless the crew can be assured that the departure runway is not being used for arrivals.

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14
Q

Visual approaches at night are only authorized at airports that are served by…

a. A VASI/PAPI or a precision approach.
b. Weather reporting.
c. An Instrument approach with Category D circling minimums unless the airport is listed in the Special Use Airport listing in Appendix 3, and that listing authorizes night visual approaches.
d. A control tower.

A

c. An Instrument approach with Category D circling minimums unless the airport is listed in the Special Use Airport listing in Appendix 3, and that listing authorizes night visual approaches.

FOM 4.14.14.3 Visual Approach Procedures / Revision: 2022-02 Page 4-122

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15
Q

When the autopilot is engaged the PF will make and verbalize changes on the flight director panel.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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16
Q

Restrictions for airports listed in Appendix 3 High Altitude/Special Use Airports are…
a. restricted to Day Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
b. dry Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
c. VMC Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
d. specifically stated for each listed airport under the Night Operations, Weather Minimums for IAP and Other Restrictions columns.
Source: FOM

A

d. specifically stated for each listed airport under the Night Operations, Weather Minimums for IAP and Other Restrictions columns.
Source: FOM

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17
Q

While conducting a visual approach to a runway that is served by a precision Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP), it is required that the crew will have that approach tuned and displayed on the navigation unit and shall use the navigation information to correctly identify the intended airport and runway.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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18
Q

Pilots are authorized to conduct contact approaches.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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19
Q

Which document(s) contain information regarding operations during ground icing conditions?

a. FOM Section 7
b. Op Spec A041
c. CFM
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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20
Q

As part of the post de-icing inspection, the crew must verify that which of the following items are free of frozen contaminants?
a. Aircraft critical surfaces, engine inlets and inlet protection devices.
b. All pitot/static ports, main and nose gear wells.
c. Cabin/baggage doors, and verify flight control unrestricted full range of movement.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

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21
Q

A Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check will be conducted when…
a. operations are conducted with visibility less than 2 SM.
b. ground icing conditions exist, and hold over time has been exceeded.
c. ground icing conditions exist, and you have used a Type IV anti-ice fluid.
d. ground icing conditions exist. 14 CFR 135.227, Ops Spec A041, FOM section 7
Source: FOM, Ops Specs, FAR Part 135

A

d. ground icing conditions exist. 14 CFR 135.227, Ops Spec A041, FOM section 7

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22
Q

A tactile pre-takeoff contamination check will be conducted…
a. during preflight when ground icing conditions exist.
b. after deicing and/or anti-icing.
c. before takeoff with freezing drizzle or light freezing rain.
d. before takeoff when the crew is unable to determine that aircraft surfaces are free from contamination using a visual check.
e. All the above.
Source: FOM

A

e. All the above.

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23
Q

When conducting operations in ground icing conditions, holdover timetables are only required to be referenced if using a Type IV anti-ice solution.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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24
Q

You have determined that a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check must be conducted. When must the check be completed?
a. Any time before takeoff.
b. Within 10 minutes prior to takeoff.
c. Prior to taxi.
d. Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.
Source: FOM, FAR Part 135

A

d. Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

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25
Q

Winter operations information is found in which source document(s)?

a. FOM section 8
b. FOM section 9
c. FOM section 4
d. FOM section 7

A

d. FOM section 7

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26
Q

The preferred fluids for anti-icing are…
a. Type I and IV
b. Type II and IV
c. Type I, II, and IV
d. Type I, II, III and IV
Source: FOM

A

b. Type II and IV

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27
Q

What can be said about de-ice/anti-ice fluids?
a. De-icing fluids are used to remove frozen contaminants from aircraft critical surfaces.
b. Anti-icing fluids should be applied in a uniform layer and in sufficient quantity until it starts to flow off the aircraft surfaces.
c. The preferred fluids for anti-icing are Type II and IV.
d. All the above statements are true.

Source: FOM

A

d. All the above statements are true.

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28
Q

We are prohibited from departing during ground icing conditions, if our holdover time (HOT) has been exceeded.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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29
Q

When does holdover time begin?
a. At the end of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
b. At the beginning of the first application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
c. At the beginning of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
d. None of the above.
Source: FOM

A

c. At the beginning of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.

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30
Q

It is acceptable to polish frost smooth using something such as a rag or paper prior to departure.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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31
Q

When conducting a night arrival into KEGE, crews may only use runway 25, and must use the LDA/DME RWY 25 approach. The glideslope and PAPI must be operational.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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32
Q

A high minimums PIC may not use lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized in Op Spec C079.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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33
Q

Text/Table DPs/ODPs (Takeoff and Obstacle Departure Procedures) are considered the standard IFR departure procedure. If ATC does not specify any other particular departure procedure prior to takeoff, a crewmember must comply with the departure procedure established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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34
Q

When a filed flight plan has been amended within 30 minutes of scheduled departure time by either Flight Planning or the flight crew, it is the flight crew’s responsibility to advise ATC/FSS of the possibility of two flight plans on file. When a change has occurred within 30 minutes of scheduled departure, the flight crew must request a full route clearance from ATC/FSS.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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35
Q

If ATC issues an instruction that is contrary to a TCAS RA, you must comply with ATC’s instructions.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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36
Q

When conducting a visual approach, the multi-function display (MFD), if available, should be continuously adjusted to the lowest scale which allows the destination airport to remain visible.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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37
Q

A runway that is grooved or has porous friction overlay is considered to be dry, even when it is well soaked and there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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38
Q

What is the minimum length of available runway necessary for land and hold short operations (LAHSO)?
a. 5500 feet.
b. The minimum runway length required in the aircraft CFM.
c. When the hold short point is near the end of a very long runway.
d. The Company is not authorized to conduct land and hold short operations.
Source: FOM

A

d. The Company is not authorized to conduct land and hold short operations.

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39
Q

A runway that has significant areas of standing water on more than 25% of the required length and width being used is considered to be…
a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Contaminated
d. Unusable
Source: FOM

A

c. Contaminated

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40
Q

DAAP restrictions include… the runway must have an approved and operational visual guidance system or serviced by an operational glide slope (i.e., ILS, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, FMS Visual with VGP) unless a DAAP exception has been granted.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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41
Q

Which of the following conditions precludes the use of DAAP?
a. Light turbulence is reported on final approach.
b. Anti-skid is inoperative.
c. The runway has loose snow.
d. The runway is wet.
Source: FOM

A

b. Anti-skid is inoperative.

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42
Q

Company pilots may file to and depart for an airport that has no weather reporting. What are the limitations?
a. The weather at the intended destination must be at least 1000/3.
b. The airport must have an operational control tower.
c. An alternate airport is filed that does have approved weather reporting.
d. You must first contact the FODM on duty.
Source: FOM

A

c. An alternate airport is filed that does have approved weather reporting.

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43
Q

The PM typically enters data which should be confirmed with the PF before activation. The Confirm, Activate, Monitor and Intervene (CAMI) procedure shall be used to assure desired outcomes whenever interfacing with automation systems.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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44
Q

Which is false with regard to crossing a runway, either active or non-active?
a. The anti-collision light must be turned on.
b. Both pilots must hear and understand the taxi clearance and verbally agree before crossing any hold short line.
c. Pilots must program a departure runway change into the FMS.
d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway crossing.
Source: FOM

A

d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway crossing.

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45
Q

When using a marshaler/wing walker, what is the minimum distance we must maintain from an obstacle/aircraft?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 15 feet.
d. Just use caution when being marshaled in by the line personnel.
Source: FOM

A

a. 5 feet.

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46
Q

When NOT using a marshaler/wing walker, what is the minimum distance we must maintain from an obstacle/aircraft?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 15 feet.
d. 20 feet.
Source: FOM

A

b. 10 feet.

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47
Q

When conducting Eligible On Demand operations, an SIC with less than 100 hours in type may make the landing when…

a. Visibility is less than ¾ of a mile.
b. Braking action is less than good.
c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots.
d. Wind shear is reported at the airport.

Source: FOM

A

c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots.

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48
Q

Hazardous materials may not be accepted for transport on company aircraft, but there are certain exceptions.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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49
Q

Oxygen for medical use by passengers is allowed under specific conditions. Which statement regarding the carriage of oxygen is TRUE?”
a. Compressed gas medical oxygen required for the duration of the flight, may be transported in the cabin of the aircraft.
b. Because it is considered “for medical purposes”, liquid oxygen may be carried on Company aircraft.
c. Recreational or flavored oxygen may be carried in containers of less than 20 ounces.
d. Compressed gas medical oxygen may never be carried onboard company aircraft. Only approved portable oxygen concentrators (POCs) may be carried.
Source: FOM

A

d. Compressed gas medical oxygen may never be carried onboard company aircraft. Only approved portable oxygen concentrators (POCs) may be carried.
Source: FOM

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50
Q

Flights under Part 91 will be conducted to the same standards as Part 135 operations except where noted in the FOM. Exceptions include…
a. Passenger ID checks are not required.
b. Part 91 oxygen requirements apply.
c. Direct communication with an air/ground communication facility per Ops Spec C077 is not required.
d. Part 91K runway landing limitations (60%, and 80% rules) do not apply.
e. All of the above.
Source: FOM

A

e. All of the above.

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51
Q

EODO (Eligible On Demand Operation) authority allows crews to…
a. utilize 80% of the destination airport runway for performance planning.
b. utilize 80% of the alternate airport runway for performance planning.
c. file to and begin an approach to an airport that does not have weather reporting.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

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52
Q

Section 4 of the FOM addresses policies and procedures regarding operational control.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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53
Q

Winter operations guidance is located in FOM Section 7.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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54
Q

Operations Specifications authorize crews to conduct certain operations, while the Flight Operations Manual provides SOP, which allows Company personnel to carry out their duties and responsibilities in accordance with company policies, FAA regulations, Ops Specs, and M Specs.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM, and Ops Specs

A

a. True

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55
Q

Trips may be conducted under FAR Part 91 for the purposes of…
a. Company administrative flights.
b. Maintenance.
c. Repositioning.
d. All of the above.
Source: FOM

A

d. All of the above.

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56
Q

Crews are required to turn their aircraft’s anti-collision lights on while taxiing across a runway.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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57
Q

An AWARE brief is required prior to engine start.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

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58
Q

The pre-departure brief acronym AWARE stands for…
a. Aircraft, weather, airport, route and extras.
b. Aircraft, weather, arrival, runway and extras.
c. Airport, weather, arrival, route and extras.
d. Airport, weather, aircraft, runway and emergency exits.
Source: FOM

A

a. Aircraft, weather, airport, route and extras.

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59
Q

A category “C” MEL must be repaired within 10 days from the date the discrepancy is recorded.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM, and MEL Front Matter

A

a. True

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60
Q

The following restrictions apply anytime crews are using the DAAP relief for preflight planning…

a. Lift dump devices, if installed, must be operational.
b. Thrust reversers, if installed, must be operational for operations on wet runways.
c. Anti-skid, if installed, must be operational.
d. The runway must have an approved and operational visual guidance system or serviced by an operational glide slope (i.e., ILS, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, FMS Visual with VGP) unless a DAAP exception has been granted.
e. All the above.

A

e. All the above.

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61
Q

*extra flashcard* The following restrictions apply anytime crews are using the DAAP relief for preflight planning…
a. Lift dump devices, if installed, must be operational.
b. Thrust reversers, if installed, must be operational for operations on wet runways.
c. Anti-skid, if installed, must be operational.
d. The runway must have an approved and operational visual guidance system or serviced by an operational glide slope (i.e., ILS, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, FMS Visual with VGP) unless a DAAP exception has been granted.
e. All the above.
Source: FOM

A

e. All the above.

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62
Q

Company pilots may NOT consider DAAP in their pre-flight planning when the destination runway is contaminated.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

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63
Q

Which of the following is required just prior to boarding the aircraft?
a. Final walk-around the aircraft
b. Verify fuel additive was delivered
c. Pre taxi brief
d. Approach brief
Source: FOM

A

a. Final walk-around the aircraft

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64
Q

PICs are required to contact maintenance control to confirm the status of the aircraft prior to the first flight of the rotation, and following any maintenance preformed during the rotation.

a. True
b. False Source: FOM

A

a. True

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65
Q

The PIC is the final authority in determining safe fuel loads. As safety allows he/she will follow the Fuel Guide recommendation as published on the flight plan located in the total fuel field (TOTL). If the PIC determines more or less fuel is required (greater than +/- ___ pounds), he/she must inform the Flight Planning Department of the changed fuel load with the applicable reason by either responding via email to the flight plan or by phone.

a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400 Source: FOM

A

b. 200

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66
Q

What is the maximum allowable gust factor for all flight operations according to the FOM?

a. 15 kts.
b. 20 kts.
c. 25 kts.
d. 30 kts. Source: FOM

A

b. 20 kts.

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67
Q

When using standard average weights to calculate weight and balance, the PIC will use…
a. 199 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for females if pax load is a one to one ratio of each.
b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to one ratio of each.
c. 189 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for adult females and no more than 30 lbs per pax bag.
d. The weight of a child up to three years of age is factored in the standard average adult weight.
Source: FOM

A

b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to one ratio of each.

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68
Q

You receive a 10-in-24 warning letting you know that your schedule for today is forecast to put you at 9.6 hours of flying. During your first leg of the day, due to circumstances outside of your control, it becomes apparent that you will exceed 10 hours of flying. According to our FOM are you are legal to complete your flights?
a. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was realistically planned, and the extended flight time is beyond the control of the company or crew. The crew will be provided rest as required by 14 CFR, or otherwise required prior to the next Duty Period.
b. A flight crew may never exceed a 10-in-24 warning under any circumstance.
c. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was unrealistically planned to be completed within 10 hours.
d. Flight crews can exceed 10 hours of flight time in 24 hours but never 14 hours of duty within a 24 hour period.
Source: FOM

A

a. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was realistically planned, and the extended flight time is beyond the control of the company or crew. The crew will be provided rest as required by 14 CFR, or otherwise required prior to the next Duty Period.

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69
Q

The passengers arrive for their Part 135 trip and one of them has an expired driver’s license and no other form of ID. May you operate the flight?
a. Passenger ID checks are required for each person who appears to be 18 years of age or older. Suitable forms of identification include a valid (unexpired) government-issued photo ID, or two other forms of ID, one of which must be issued by government authority.
b. The scheduler can waive this requirement.
c. You can call the Safety department and in very rare instances get a waiver for the passenger.
d. As long as the ID has not been expired for more than 90 days it is still acceptable.
Source: FOM

A

a. Passenger ID checks are required for each person who appears to be 18 years of age or older. Suitable forms of identification include a valid (unexpired) government issued photo ID, or two other forms of ID, one of which must be issued by government authority.

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70
Q

While preparing for a flight, a maintenance discrepancy is found. Maintenance is notified and the item is deferred under the MEL but TAILWINDS still shows a Maintenance Alert. Which statement below is most accurate?
a. You may depart as long as scheduling tells you it is ok.
b. You may depart as long as the Maintenance Duty Manager sends you the required release via Tailwinds, email, or FAX stating that you are cleared to depart.
c. You cannot depart.
d. You can depart as long as the FODM sends you an email saying all items have been cleared.
Source: FOM

A

b. You may depart as long as the Maintenance Duty Manager sends you the required release via Tailwinds, email, or FAX stating that you are cleared to depart.

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71
Q

Who has operational control on a Flexjet Part 91K flight?
a. The air carrier and share owner are jointly and individually responsible.
b. All tasks associated with exercising operational control on a program flight are delegated by the owner to the air carrier.
c. The passenger on board the aircraft.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. Both A and B are correct.

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72
Q

The circadian low period is defined by the hours of ___to ___ based on the local time zone where a crewmember’s duty day begins.
a. 1200 to 0400
b. 0100 to 0300
c. 0130 to 0400
d. 0200 to 0430
Source: FOM

A

c. 0130 to 0400

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73
Q

The Company defines levels of automation with which of the following terms?
a. Manual, Shared, and Auto-flight
b. Level I, II, III, and IV
c. CAMI
d. Autopilot on, Autopilot off
Source: FOM

A

a. Manual, Shared, and Auto-flight

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74
Q

Crewmembers will not accept a flight assignment within ___ hours of donating blood.

a. 24
b. 36
c. 72
d. 144 Source: FOM

A

c. 72

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75
Q

For preflight planning calculations a runway may be considered effectively dry if…
a. the runway is grooved or treated with a porous pavement and the weather at the planned time of arrival indicates less than moderate rain.
b. the runway is well soaked but without significant areas of standing water.
c. more than 25 percent of the runway surface area is covered by standing water.
d. there is no forecast for rain.
Source: FOM

A

a. the runway is grooved or treated with a porous pavement and the weather at the planned time of arrival indicates less than moderate rain.

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76
Q

Engine starts and the before taxi checklists may be completed by a single pilot (during a passenger briefing)
a. False
b. at the discretion of the PIC.
c. at the discretion of either crew member.
d. if the line personnel says it is OK.
Source: FOM

A

b. at the discretion of the PIC.

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77
Q

For all taxi operations, which following statement is true…
a. The pilots will have the airport diagram out and available during the taxi.
b. The taxi route should be well understood prior to taxi, all hold short points identified, and any hot spots located.
c. Both pilots must be task free when crossing runways.
d. All the above are true.
Source: FOM

A

d. All the above are true.

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78
Q

The standard TERPS IFR climb gradient is…
a. 200 feet per nautical mile or 3.3%
b. 2.1% net
c. 1.6% net
d. 152 feet per nautical mile or 2.4%
Source: FOM

A

a. 200 feet per nautical mile or 3.3%

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79
Q

Non-essential communication is prohibited during the following defined critical phases of flight.
a. All ground operation involving taxi, takeoff or landing, and any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL except normal cruise flight, and within 1,000 feet of level-off altitude during climb or descent.
b. Any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL, and within 1,000 feet of level-off altitude during climb or descent.
c. All ground operations.
d. All operations below 25,000 feet.
Source: FOM

A

a. All ground operation involving taxi, takeoff or landing, and any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL except normal cruise flight, and within 1,000 feet of level-off altitude during climb or descent.

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80
Q

Prior to takeoff, the flight crew will confirm that the altitude selector is set to the assigned…
a. altitude received in the ATC clearance.
b. final level off on the departure assigned. Any intermediate level off must be briefed prior to departure.
c. If an intermediate level-off altitude exists as a part of a departure or climb clearance, then the first intermediate altitude shall be selected.
d. Both A and C are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. Both A and C are correct.

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81
Q

Acceptance of any IFR departure clearance requires compliance with the minimum TERPS (Terminal Instrument Procedures) climb gradient requirements with…
a. One-engine inoperative to the MEA, MOCA, or other minimum IFR altitude.
b. All engines operating.
c. All engines operating with gear down.
d. One-engine inoperative with takeoff flap setting.
Source: FOM

A

b. All engines operating.

82
Q

For IFR departures, if ATC does not specify a departure procedure in the clearance prior to takeoff, a flight crew must comply with the departure procedure (DP or ODP) established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used.
a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance, and they are considered the standard IFR departure procedure.
b. False, the see and avoid option is available.
c. False, no specification of a departure procedure in the clearance implies that the crew is cleared direct to the first filed waypoint.
d. True, the Op Specs authorize this technique in C055.
Source: FOM

A

a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance, and they are considered the standard IFR departure procedure.

83
Q

In the approach chart you note that the missed approach point is a circled waypoint symbol. This icon indicates that the MAP is a…
a. fly-over waypoint.
b. fly-by waypoint.
c. visual point on the approach.
d. VOR.
Source: FOM

A

a. fly-over waypoint.

84
Q

What does the acronym CAMI stand for?

a. Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene
b. Catch, Activate, Manage, Interact
c. Confirm, Accept, Manage, Intervene d. Capture, Accept, Monitor, Interact Source: FOM

A

a. Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene

85
Q

How long does a crew have to file an electronic Incident or ASAP report?
a. 24 hours from the end of the duty day in which the event occurred.
b. 36 hours from the time of the event.
c. 72 hours from the time of the event.
d. There is no time limitation.
Source: FOM

A

a. 24 hours from the end of the duty day in which the event occurred.

86
Q

When are you required to do a manual obstacle analysis?
a. When departing VMC and see and avoid operations are planned.
b. When an obstacle on the departure path cannot be avoided laterally.
c. When an obstacle may impede the emergency briefing plan.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

87
Q

If a mechanical anomaly occurs prior to takeoff, the crew should…
a. Comply with section 5 of the FOM and facilitate the “Discrepancies Discovered Before Takeoff” procedures.
b. Return to the ramp.
c. Continue the flight, and write up the discrepancy after landing.
d. Ignore the item and hope it goes away.
Source: FOM

A

a. Comply with section 5 of the FOM and facilitate the “Discrepancies Discovered Before Takeoff” procedures.

88
Q

When preparing the aircraft for a live leg, which of the following statements regarding the crewmembers proper actions is FALSE…
a. Sit in the lead passenger’s seat and view the cabin from the passenger’s perspective.
b. Ensure all stock is full and located per the stocking guide.
c. View all areas between the seats and side wall, recline the seats to look for trash, ensure all lights and tables are working properly, check the lavatory, and check other storage areas to ensure they are clean.
d. Review the cockpit to ensure it is clean. Leave the rest for the ground crew.
Source: FOM

A

d. Review the cockpit to ensure it is clean. Leave the rest for the ground crew.

89
Q

The Maintenance Resolution process can be initiated by…
a. The PIC.
b. Maintenance Duty Manager.
c. Flight Department Manager.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

90
Q

Which of the following may the crew NOT connect to the onboard Wi-Fi and use during a flight?
a. Company issued iPad
b. Personal electronic device(s)
c. Company issued iPhone
d. Answers A and C
Source: FOM

A

b. Personal electronic device(s)

91
Q

An approach that becomes unstabilized inside the 500 foot window requires an immediate go- around unless…
a. The PIC has more than 100 hours in type.
b. The deviations are small and momentary in airspeed, sink rate, glide path and course and only require minor corrections.
c. The pilot flying feels that the outcome is never in doubt.
d. The only acceptable outcome of an approach that is unstabilized at or inside the 500’ window is a go-around.
Source: FOM

A

d. The only acceptable outcome of an approach that is unstabilized at or inside the 500’ window is a go-around.

92
Q

One of the SIC’s duties is to assume control of the aircraft as necessary to avoid a dangerous situation.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

93
Q

The emergency briefing acronym TEST stands for…
a. Train for success, Execute your plan, Survive, Time before rescue
b. Type of emergency, Evacuation Plan, Signals, Time before touchdown
c. Tell ATC, Estimate landing site, Send for help, Try to communicate
d. Tell Passengers, Estimate time till landing, Speed to minimum, Touchdown smoothly
Source: FOM

A

b. Type of emergency, Evacuation Plan, Signals, Time before touchdown

94
Q

Scheduling shall be advised if owners/passengers are more than ___ minutes late.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 45
Source: FOM

A

b. 15

95
Q

The Company authorizes an aircraft to be taxied with only one crew member in their seat with seat belts fastened while the other crew member is dealing with passengers.
a. This is acceptable if one or all passengers require additional time during the brief.
b. This is acceptable because one crew member may be assisting passenger with drinks and/or catering.
c. This is not acceptable. Both pilots should be seated with belts fastened. One crew member then can begin to taxi while the other programs the FMS.
d. This is never acceptable. The aircraft will not be taxied until both crewmembers are in their seats with seat belts fastened, and the appropriate checklists have been complete.
Source: FOM

A

d. This is never acceptable. The aircraft will not be taxied until both crewmembers are in their seats with seat belts fastened, and the appropriate checklists have been complete.

96
Q

During the course of a tour one crew member becomes ill and requires a visit to an Emergency Room and/or hospitalization. Should this occur the other crewmember will…
a. remain at the hotel or FBO and await further duty instructions.
b. accompany that crewmember to the hospital.
c. take this opportunity to clean the aircraft and make sure it’s stocked for the next live leg.
d. use this time to complete any required online training.
Source: FOM

A

b. accompany that crewmember to the hospital.

97
Q

No individual shall consume alcohol while on duty or within ____ hours prior to the end
of a “required rest” period or “extended rest” period.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 10
d. 24 Source: FOM

A

a. 8

98
Q

Section ___ of the FOM provides information on Flight Operations.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 8 Source: FOM

A

c. 4

99
Q

Rest Period is a period of time free of all responsibility for work or duty, and during which the pilot or flight attendant cannot be required to receive contact from the company.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

100
Q

With regard to fatigue…
a. a crewmember needs to use countermeasures overcome his/her fatigue such as conversation, caffeine, etc…
b. a crewmember has a duty to decline any assigned flight when they cannot safely operate a flight due to fatigue.
c. a crewmember should only take one more flight assignment when feeling tired.
d. a crewmember should manage assigned rest periods to not become fatigued.
Source: FOM

A

b. a crewmember has a duty to decline any assigned flight when they cannot safely operate a flight due to fatigue.

101
Q

Trip times in Tailwinds may differ from actual flight plan times because passenger trips are scheduled in the Tailwinds based on Boeing 85% probability annual wind aloft data while flight plans calculate times based on short term forecast conditions.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

102
Q

After landing, checklists shall not be started until…
a. the aircraft has slowed on the landing roll to below 65 KIAS.
b. the thrust reversers have been stowed by the pilot flying.
c. the aircraft has cleared the active runway.
d. the aircraft is stopped on the runway.
Source: FOM

A

c. the aircraft has cleared the active runway.

103
Q

Should the PM (Pilot Monitoring) call out a flight deviation or condition to the PF (Pilot Flying) and there is no response after the ___ challenge, the PM shall verbally announce that he/she is assuming control of the aircraft and take the necessary action to correct the deviation to ensure the safety of the aircraft.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
Source: FOM

A

b. second

104
Q

Required briefings among crewmembers include…
a. Safety, Taxi, Takeoff, Arrival
b. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Takeoff, Approach
c. Coffee, Breakfast, Lunch, Dinner
d. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Pre-arrival, Landing
Source: FOM

A

b. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Takeoff, Approach

105
Q

The responsibility for command and control of aircraft is _____ delegated to
a. never
b. always
c. sometimes
d. required to be
Source: FOM

A

a. never

106
Q

The practice of loading the flight plan route prior to picking up the ATC clearance is…
a. discouraged.
b. encouraged because it helps the crew get ahead.
c. encouraged but should never be placed in the primary FMS.
d. encouraged because you can review fixes along the route.
Source: FOM

A

a. discouraged.

107
Q

VFR charts (electronic or paper) are required onboard an aircraft…
a. always.
b. only when VFR operations are conducted.
c. never because we have IFR charts.
d. never because we do not operate VFR.
Source: FOM

A

b. only when VFR operations are conducted.

108
Q

For aircraft without operative outlets installed in the cockpit, minimum dispatch battery power available (at block out) as indicated on the iPad is___. If below ___ on either EFB, paper approach charts must be printed before flight.
a.25 25
b.30 25
c.30 30
d.50 25
Source: FOM

A

c.30 30

109
Q

Display of Own-Ship position on approved portable and installed EFB units while on the ground or inflight is permitted for reference purposes only to aid situational awareness.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

110
Q

Crewmembers shall discontinue the use of own-ship during ground operations whenever any discrepancies (no more than 30 meters) are observed between the actual aircraft position and the own-ship position display.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

111
Q

A runway is contaminated when more than ____% of the runway surface area (whether insolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used is covered by standing water, snow (dry or wet), loose snow, compacted snow, slush or ice (including wet ice). Refer to aircraft AFM for qualifying depths of contaminate types.

a. 50
b. 25
c. 10
d. 35 Source: FOM

A

b. 25

112
Q

Runway Condition definitions in the FOM are not intended to, and will not be used to, supersede any applicable aircraft AFM information or limitation.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

113
Q

Any items secured to the seat cannot exceed the floor loading limitations and it cannot obstruct the emergency exit or aisle.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

a. True

114
Q

Flexjet LLC has been designated an “Eligible On-Demand Operator.” This means that during FAR 135 operations the operator…
a. may file to, and begin an instrument approach procedure to, an airport that does not have a weather reporting facility but must file an alternate airport that has a weather reporting facility.
b. may utilize the 80 percent rule for landing when a destination airport analysis has been completed and approved for that destination.
c. may select an airport as an alternate if the aircraft can be brought to a full stop within 80 percent of the effective runway.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

115
Q

With regard to DAAP operations, a first officer who has logged fewer than 100 hours in their assigned aircraft type shall not conduct any takeoffs or landings under the following conditions…
a. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
b. When braking action is reported to be less than “Good” for the runway.
c. When the runway has contamination which may adversely affect aircraft performance.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

116
Q

A Duty Period may be extended, with crew concurrence, when….
a. a delay occurs due to circumstances beyond the control of the company or the flight crew.
b. all the scheduled flight assignments for the Duty Period were realistically planned within regulatory limits.
c. the FODM approves an extension.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

117
Q

The FODM may only approve extensions to the duty period up to a maximum of…

a. 15 hours for a 2 pilot crew
b. 19 hours for a 3 pilot crew
c. 21 hours for a 4 pilot crew
d. All are correct.

A

d. All are correct.

118
Q

Should a crewmember need to be removed from duty due to fatigue, that crewmember shall …
a. Advise the OCC as soon as possible.
b. Contact the Chief Pilot within 24 hours to discuss the circumstances of the fatigue related schedule adjustment.
c. Submit an “Incident” or “ASAP” report within 24 hours.
d. All of the Above
Source: FOM

A

a. Advise the OCC as soon as possible.

119
Q

If an aircraft discrepancy has been entered onto the Form 501 by the flight crew and the crew determines that the entry requires modification…
a. The crewmember my draw a single line through the entire text affected. Initial and date next to the stricken text. Rewrite the entry as required.
b. The PIC, Maintenance Control, and Company management must all agree to the correction before it may be modified.
c. The entire 501 form must be voided out.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

a. The crewmember my draw a single line through the entire text affected. Initial and date next to the stricken text. Rewrite the entry as required.

120
Q

At least one crewmember, at the controls, must wear, secured and sealed, an O2 mask above what pressure altitude under FAR 135?
a. Flight Level 410.
b. Flight Level 350.
c. Flight Level 250, any time one crewmember has left a duty station.
d. Both B and C are correct FOM section 4, FAR 135.89
Source: FOM, and FAR Part 135

A

d. Both B and C are correct FOM section 4, FAR 135.89

121
Q

A rejected takeoff is any action by the pilot that prevents a normal takeoff once the aircraft has been cleared into position for takeoff. If this occurs…
a. The PIC must submit an incident report to the Company within 24 hours.
b. The event will be immediately reported to a Flight Department manager by calling OCC.
c. No action is required.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. Both A and B are correct.

122
Q

A Passenger Safety Briefing shall be given to the passengers on an FAR 91K or FAR 135
a. for passengers who indicate that they are unfamiliar with the safety briefing.
b. on the first flight of each day.
c. Prior to each takeoff
d. for any passenger who has not flown within the preceding 90 days.
Source: FOM

A

c. Prior to each takeoff

123
Q

What announcements must be made to passengers using the PA system on an FAR 135
trip?
a. “Prepare for takeoff” – when takeoff is imminent.
b. “Prepare the cabin for landing” – approximately 10 minutes from landing.
c. “Prepare for landing” – approximately 2 to 3 minutes from landing.
d. None are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. None are correct.

124
Q

To reduce the possibility of an inadvertent runway incursion…
a. Conduct a pre-taxi briefing to include location, cleared taxi route, active runway, hold
short points, airport “hot spots,” crossing runways.
b. Both pilots must be task free.
c. Pilots shall maintain a “heads up” lookout during taxi.
d. All are correct.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

125
Q

The flight crew shall maintain ___________ for all flight operations conducted
__________.
a. A quiet environment / with passengers aboard
b. Sterile cockpit / below 10,000’ (AGL)
c. Sterile cockpit / only during takeoff and landing
d. Absolute silence / below 10,000’ (AGL)
Source: FOM

A

b. Sterile cockpit / below 10,000’ (AGL)

126
Q

A “Land and Hold Short” clearance can only be accepted if the flight crew can assure
ATC that the aircraft can be stopped well short of the point specified.
a. True
b. False
Source: FOM

A

b. False

127
Q

IVSI should not exceed ________ fpm to be considered a “stabilized approach.”
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 1500
d. 2000
Source: FOM

A

b. 1000

128
Q

During ground operations conducive to the formation of ice on the aircraft, which of the following statements is true?
a. The aircraft must be free of all frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces before takeoff.
b. Always increase rotation speeds to account for the increase in stall speed with ice on the wings.
c. Always make sure that there is approximately the same amount of ice on each wing.
d. Make sure to move the controls forcefully during taxi to break loose any ice that might be binding them.
Source: FOM

A

a. The aircraft must be free of all frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces before takeoff.

129
Q

Regardless of the “Holdover Times,” a pre-takeoff contamination check must be
accomplished within _________ before takeoff in ground-icing conditions.
a. 10 minutes
b. Just before
c. 5 minutes
d. 2 minutes
Source: FOM

A

c. 5 minutes

130
Q

You are given a braking action report of “NIL” from a G-IV that landed just prior to starting your approach. Upon receiving that report you must…
a. Not takeoff or land on a runway that is reporting “nil” breaking action from a reliable and timely breaking action report.
b. Exercise extreme caution upon touchdown.
c. Avoid using the brakes, as they will be ineffective.
d. Ensure that you’re using the longest available runway.
Source: FOM

A

a. Not takeoff or land on a runway that is reporting “nil” breaking action from a reliable and timely breaking action report.

131
Q

Which of the following is true regarding anti-icing holdover time (HOT)?
a. Holdover times are revised every year and are located on EFBs and/or the Aircrew Portal.
b. Crew members may reference the Holdover Calculator application by Kilo Lima Management via their Company iPhone.
c. HOT’s are advisory only. A pre-takeoff contamination check must be accomplished within 5 minutes of takeoff whenever operating in ground icing conditions.
d. All are true.
Source: FOM

A

d. All are true.

132
Q

After an accident, is it permissible to move or damage an aircraft’s parts or records?
a. No.
b. Not unless you are one of the crewmembers.
c. Yes, but only if it is necessary to assist persons injured or trapped.
d. Only at the direction of the Chief Pilot.
Source: FOM

A

c. Yes, but only if it is necessary to assist persons injured or trapped.

133
Q

In the event of an aircraft accident/incident…

a. Do not give any statement to anyone, including the FAA, until cleared to do so by company management.
b. Do not speak to the media or make any statements regarding the accident/incident to anyone.
c. Do not, under any circumstances, speculate as to the cause of the accident/incident.
d. All are correct.

Source: FOM

A

d. All are correct.

134
Q

For international operations, a check of passports and other appropriate documents for the international travel is required.
a. True, except that minors do not need proof of citizenship.
b. True.
c. False.
Source: FOM

A

b. True.

135
Q

When calculating aircraft weight and balance, the crew may utilize…
a. Approved average passenger weights.
b. Actual passenger weights.
c. The crew’s own estimates based upon previous weight guessing experience.
d. Both A and B.
Source: FOM

A

d. Both A and B.

136
Q

Pilot crewmembers will receive an updated weather briefing within ____ minutes prior to landing at the destination.

a. 10
b. 30
c. 45
d. There is no requirement to update weather info. in flight.

Source: FOM

A

b. 30

137
Q

The appropriate Takeoff and Landing (TOLD) information card is to be completed prior to each takeoff and landing. The takeoff section shall be completed prior to departure. The landing section shall be completed during the enroute phase of flight during the landing assessment check. The only exception to this is a very short leg.

a. True
b. False

Source: FOM

A

a. True

138
Q

During Takeoff and Landing, pilots will be alert for windshear warnings or indications and perform the aircraft specific windshear escape maneuver when applicable.

a. True
b. False

Source: FOM

A

a. True

139
Q

Which of the following is true about thunderstorms?

a. If thunderstorm activity is forecast along the route of flight, the thunderstorm detection equipment must be operational.

b. The aircraft should never be flown closer than 5 miles to any visible storm cloud with overhanging areas because of the possibility of encountering hail.
c. While enroute, crewmembers will avoid suspected “severe” storm cells by at least 20 miles, and it is recommended that all thunderstorms will be avoided by a minimum of 10 miles.
d. All are true.

Source: FOM

A

d. All are true

140
Q

Advanced Passenger Information System (APIS) reports must be submitted for each flight…

a. At least 60 minutes prior to departure for all inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States.
b. At least 72 hours prior to departure for inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States.
c. Only for flights designated as “threat locations” by the Department of Homeland Security.
d. None of the above.

Source: IOM

A

a. At least 60 minutes prior to departure for all inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States.

141
Q

When operating a trip into Canada, a minimum of 2 hours (no more than 48 hour) notice is required to inform Canadian Border Services Agency (CBSA) of your ETA using the 1-888-CANPASS number.

a. True
b. False

Source: IOM

A

a. True

142
Q

On flights along routes utilizing Long Range Navigation Systems as the primary source of navigation, how many “Master Documents” will be kept by the crew?

a. Each crewmember is responsible for their own Master Document so that they may be compared to each other.
b. The Master Document is kept by Dispatch.
c. Three. One for each crewmember plus one to be turned into the company.
d. Only one Master Document shall be used on the flight deck.

Source: IOM

A

d. Only one Master Document shall be used on the flight deck.

143
Q

For oceanic operations, each pilot will check clearances against the Master Document, track messages, and plotting charts.

a. True
b. False

Source: IOM

A

a. True

144
Q

You are flying eastbound from Wilmington, DE to Bermuda at FL390, not in radar contact. You request a weather deviation north of course for a thunderstorm. If an amended clearance cannot be obtained from ATC, you should…

a. Deviate around the weather without advising ATC.
b. Advise ATC, and deviate to the north. When 5 from original track, descend to FL387.
c. Advise ATC, and deviate to the north. When 5 from original track, descend to FL380.
d. None of the above.

Source: IOM

A

b. Advise ATC, and deviate to the north. When 5 from original track, descend to FL387.

145
Q

IOM Altimetry Procedures require the crew to monitor the altitude control system and not allow the aircraft to overshoot or undershoot a cleared flight level by more than…

a. 150’
b. 50’
c. 100’
d. None of the above

Source: IOM

A

a. 150’

146
Q

The Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP) is intended to mitigate wake vortex encounters, and can be applied in U.S. Domestic Airspace without advising ATC.

a. True
b. False

Source: IOM

A

b. False

147
Q

Which document may be referenced for international operations?

a. International Operations Manual
b. Jeppesen Manuals
c. Oceanic Flight Folder
d. All of the Above

A

d. All of the Above

148
Q

Standard Average Baggage Weights in pounds are as follows: Plane Side Loaded Bags ____, Checked Bags ____, Heavy Bags ____.

a. 10, 20, 100
b. 20, 30, 60
c. 30, 40, 80
d. 20, 40, 60

Source: Ops Specs

A

b. 20, 30, 60

149
Q

In which document(s) will you find our requirements for Alternate Airport IFR weather minimums?

a. On the Instrument Approach Procedure
b. Op Spec C079
c. Ground Deicing Program Manual
d. Op Spec C055

A

d. Op Spec C055

150
Q

Pilots are authorized to depart VFR and pick up an IFR clearance en route if…

a. VFR cloud clearances can be maintained.
b. an IFR clearance is obtained within 50nm.
c. it is not otherwise possible to obtain an IFR clearance.
d. All are correct.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. All are correct.

151
Q

What is the lowest minimum visibility that we are authorized to use for takeoff when RVR is not available?

a. 1 nm
b. 1 sm
c. ¼ sm
d. ¼ nm

Source: Ops Specs

A

c. ¼ sm

152
Q

What is the lowest RVR minimum that we are authorized to use for takeoff, when RVR is available?

a. 500 RVR
b. 600 RVR
c. 1600 RVR
d. 1800 RVR

Source: Ops Specs

A

a. 500 RVR

153
Q

Where is the Ops Spec authorization to conduct operations in RVSM airspace found?

a. D085
b. B046
c. A041
d. C055

A

b. B046

154
Q

Which of the following instrument approach procedure is NOT authorized?

a. LDA PRM
b. RNAV (GPS) or RNP
c. RNAV (GPS) PRM
d. RNAV (RNP) or RNP AR

A

d. RNAV (RNP) or RNP AR

155
Q

What is the lowest IFR landing minimums authorized for use?

a. 2400 RVR
b. ½ SM
c. 1800 RVR
d. 4500 RVR

A

c. 1800 RVR

156
Q

When determining the minimum weather to be used for an alternate airport, we may apply the weather minimums that are published on the Instrument approach procedure in the FOR FILING AS AN ALTERNATE section.

a. True
b. False

Source: Ops Specs

A

b. False

157
Q

Which flights do Management Specs apply to?

a. Part 91K
b. Part 91
c. Part 135
d. All flights

Source: Ops Specs/M Specs

A

a. Part 91K

158
Q

Select the statement that is true regarding operations in RVSM airspace…

a. Aircraft must have two independent altitude measurement systems.
b. Aircraft must have an altitude alert system.
c. Aircraft must have an operational autopilot with altitude hold and the aircraft must have an operational SSR altitude reporting transponder
d. All are true.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. All are true.

159
Q

When it is not possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance to depart on an IFR flight plan, VFR departures are authorized, but subject to the provisions of Op Spec…

a. C077
b. C055
c. A041
d. B036

Source: Ops Specs

A

a. C077

160
Q

Crews are authorized to conduct RNAV (GPS) PRM approaches.

a. True
b. False

Source: Ops Specs

A

a. True

161
Q

Pilots may use weather from which of the following approved sources?

a. The National Weather Services for those United States and its territories located outside of the 48 contiguous States.
b. U.S. and North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) military observing and forecasting sources.
c. A meteorological station, or automated observation weather product, authorized by an ICAO member State.
d. All are correct.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. All are correct.

162
Q

Crewmembers are authorized to use MDA as a DH during a non-precision approach as long as certain requirements are satisfied.

a. True
b. False

Source: Ops Specs

A

a. True

163
Q

During an operation conducted under FAR 135, who has operational control?

a. The customer or designated Lead Passenger.
b. The FAA.
c. Flexjet LLC.
d. The Dispatcher.

Source: Ops Specs

A

c. Flexjet LLC.

164
Q

What minimums may be used for approach Procedures Using GPS or GPS Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) aboard company aircraft?

a. LPV minimums if aircraft is approved.
b. LNAV/VNAV minimums if aircraft is approved.
c. LP or LNAV minimums if aircraft is approved.
d. All are correct.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. All are correct.

165
Q

IFR may only be cancelled at an uncontrolled airport…

a. When asked to do so by ATC to expedite another departure from the airport.
b. When the aircraft is within 50 miles of the airport.
c. IFR must be maintained until clear of the landing runway.
d. When visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. When visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained.

166
Q

You’re at an airport with an operable ASOS that is reporting a visibility of ¼ statute miles. The airport has medium intensity runway lights and no visible centerline stripes. At this airport, you may…

a. Not takeoff.
b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control.
c. Only takeoff with the delegated approval of flight control.
d. Takeoff only with a localizer on the runway to be used that will allow the aircraft to maintain runway centerline during the takeoff roll.

Source: Ops Specs

A

b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control.

167
Q

You’re at an airport with an operable ASOS that is reporting a visibility of ¼ statute miles. The airport has medium intensity runway lights and no visible centerline stripes. At this airport, you may…

a. Not takeoff.
b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control.
c. Only takeoff with the delegated approval of flight control.
d. Takeoff only with a localizer on the runway to be used that will allow the aircraft to maintain runway centerline during the takeoff roll.

Source: Ops Specs

A

b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control.

168
Q

Required equipment for operating in RVSM airspace includes…

a. An automatic altitude control system and altitude alert system.
b. Two independent altimeter systems.
c. One altitude reporting transponder.
d. All are correct.

Source: Ops Specs

A

d. All are correct.

169
Q

Company pilots may carry a tire/wheel assembly with a serviceable tire, provided the tire is not over-inflated, and the tire is protected from damage during transport.

a. True
b. False

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

a. True

170
Q

A small medical or clinical mercury thermometer for personal use, when in protective cases may be carried passengers or crew members.

a. True
b. False

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

a. True

171
Q

A maximum of _____ pounds dry ice per person may be carried in the cabin area.

a. 3
b. 4.4
c. 5.5
d. enough to keep perishables fresh

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

c. 5.5

172
Q

Electric wheelchairs may be accepted for transport. What limitation(s) exist if the battery is considered to be spill-able?

a. The battery must be disconnected and terminals must be insulated.
b. If the battery is removed, it must be stored in a strong container.
c. If the battery is removed the packaging must be labeled with a CORROSIVE label, marked to indicate proper orientation, and marked with the words, “Battery, wet, with wheelchair.”
d. All answers are correct.

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

d. All answers are correct.

173
Q

A current copy of the hazmat manual shall be available on board each aircraft in electronic or paper format. Where do crewmembers find this information?

a. In the Aircraft Flight Manual.
b. In Foreflight Documents, Flexjet Documents, Hazardous Materials folder.
c. In the quick reference handbook (QRH).
d. Flight crew members do not have access to the hazmat manual while on the flight deck and should carry a hard copy in their flight bag.

A

b. In Foreflight Documents, Flexjet Documents, Hazardous Materials folder.

174
Q

Small arms ammunition for personal use carried by a crewmember or passenger in his baggage, excluding carry-on baggage, is approved if securely packed in boxes or other packaging specifically designed to carry small amounts of ammunition.

a. True
b. False

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

a. True

175
Q

Curling irons containing a hydrocarbon gas (example… butane) are a HAZMAT exception. No more than one per passenger or crewmember may be carried aboard company aircraft provided that the safety cover is securely fitted over the heating element. Gas refills for such curlers are not permitted in checked or carry-on baggage.

a. False, butane is listed on the most current DOT chart, and therefore, may not be carried.
b. False, butane curling irons are no longer being produced.
c. True
d. False, curling irons are not approved

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

c. True

176
Q

One self-defense spray, not exceeding 4 fluid ounces by volume that incorporates a positive means to prevent accidental discharge, may be carried in checked baggage only.

a. True
b. False

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

a. True

177
Q

Electrically powered heat-producing articles (e.g., battery-operated equipment such as diving lamps and soldering equipment) are only permitted in carry-on baggage as long as the heat-producing component, or the energy source is removed so as to prevent unintentional functioning during transport.

a. True
b. False

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

a. True

178
Q

Which of the following exceptions to the HAZMAT regulations are permitted to be carried aboard Company aircraft as long as they are carried on one’s person?

a. Strike anywhere matches.
b. Lighters containing unabsorbed liquid fuel.
c. Lighter fluid.
d. Safety matches and one lighter for personal use.

Source: Hazardous Materials Will-Not-Carry Manual

A

d. Safety matches and one lighter for personal use.

179
Q

Freezing rain is particularly dangerous and indicates the real potential for severe icing because…

a. The typical raindrop is 100 times larger than a typical cloud droplet.
b. The typical raindrop is the same size of the cloud droplet encountered if experiencing rime ice.
c. Freezing rain is only dangerous if you have the flaps extended as if approaching to land.
d. Hail is likely to be present.

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

a. The typical raindrop is 100 times larger than a typical cloud droplet.

180
Q

This type of fog is commonly found along the western coast of the United States. It requires a light wind for its formation.

a. Radiation fog.
b. Advection fog.
c. Upslope fog.
d. Precipitation fog.

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

b. Advection fog.

181
Q

What type of fog occurs when an air mass passes over an area of gradually increasing elevation?

a. Advection fog
b. Radiation Fog
c. Upslope Fog
d. Precipitation Fog

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

c. Upslope Fog

182
Q

What stage of a thunderstorm would crews most likely encounter hail, heavy rain, frequent lightning, strong winds, and tornadoes?

a. Dissipating stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Mature stage
d. Developing Stage

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

c. Mature stage

183
Q

Shower and thunderstorm cells sometimes produce intense downdrafts called downbursts that create strong, often damaging winds. Downbursts can create hazardous conditions for pilots and have been responsible for many low-level wind shear accidents. Smaller, shorter-lived downbursts are called microbursts.

a. True
b. False

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

a. True

184
Q

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is a higher altitude (~20,000 to 50,000 feet) turbulence phenomenon occurring in cloud-free regions associated with wind shear, particularly between the core of a jet stream and the surrounding air.

a. True
b. False

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

a. True

185
Q

Fronts do not exist only at the surface of the Earth; they have a vertical structure in which the front slopes over the colder (denser) air mass.

a. True
b. False

Source: Aviation Weather FAA Advisory Circular

A

a. True

186
Q

METAR KCLE 311751Z 27011G20KT 1SM SN OVC002 -01/-03 A2992. What is the intensity of the snowfall according to the Holdover Tables?

a. Very Light
b. Light
c. Moderate
d. Heavy

Source: Holdover Time Guidelines

A

b. Light

187
Q

METAR KCLE 311751Z 27011G20KT 1SM SN OVC002 -01/-03 A2992. What is your anticipated holdover time if you use Type I de-ice fluid?

a. 0…18-0…22
b. 0…08-0…14
c. 0…11-0…18
d. 0…06-0…11

Source: Holdover Time Guidelines

A

c. 0…11-0…18

188
Q

To validate the holdover times of a Type I de-ice fluid, what is the minimum required temperature at the nozzle of the fluid during application?

a. 120 degrees F
b. 140 degrees F
c. 180 degrees F
d. 212 degrees F

Source: Holdover Time Guidelines

A

b. 140 degrees F

189
Q

The visual glide path of a VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus__________ of the extended runway centerline and ____ from the runway threshold.

a. 15 degrees/5 NM
b. 10 degrees/4 NM
c. 25 degrees/5 SM
d. VASI provides safe obstruction clearance from anywhere the glide path is discernable.

Source: AIM

A

b. 10 degrees/4 NM

190
Q

While examining the RNAV approach chart during preparation for the approach briefing, you notice a bold font V shown on the approach course profile view. With regard to this notation you should…

a. Ignore it, as we are not authorized to fly to VNAV minimums.
b. The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP.
c. Ignore it, since it stands for Visual Descent Point, and we are not planning a visual approach.
d. Note it, but there is no need to plan for or brief a VDP, it is just recommended technique in some cases.

Source: AIM

A

b. The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP.

191
Q

If you see a “negative C” symbol next to the circling minimums on a Jeppesen approach chart, it means…

a. Circling is not approved.
b. All circling aircraft must land on a specific preferred runway.
c. Expanded circling area for TERPS obstacle protection is applied.
d. Circling approaches are only approved for Category C aircraft.

Source: AIM, and Jeppesen State Rules and Procedures - US

A

c. Expanded circling area for TERPS obstacle protection is applied.

192
Q

With APPR mode selected and on final approach during an RNAV(GNSS) or RNP approach, without an SBAS receiver that uses WAAS, the course indicator will reach full deflection if off course by…

a. 0.5 NM.
b. 0.2 NM.
c. 0.3 NM.
d. 1 NM.

Source: AIM

A

c. 0.3 NM.

193
Q

Crewmembers are required to keep in their possession when acting as a crewmember:

a. Pilot certificate (temporary and permanent)
b. Medical certificate
c. Government issued photo ID.
d. All are correct.

Source: 14 CFR 61/FOM

A

d. All are correct.

194
Q

What is the lowest RVR minimum that we are authorized to use for takeoff Part 91K, when RVR is available?

a. 500
b. 600

Source: 14 CFR Part 91

A

b. 600

195
Q

According to the FAR’s, above what altitude is a pilot required to wear his oxygen mask if the other pilot leaves the duty station on a Part 135 flight?

a. 25,000
b. 35,000
c. 41,000
d. Pilots are not required to wear an oxygen mask in a pressurized aircraft.

Source: 14 CFR 135

A

a. 25,000

196
Q

An inflatable vest is required for each occupant aboard the aircraft. If there are only 6 vests the aircraft is limited to carrying no more than 2 crew and 4 passengers beyond 50 miles from the nearest shore under FAR Part 135.

a. True
b. False

Source: 14 CFR 135

A

a. True

197
Q

If an aircraft is light and Vref will be within a lower approach category, the crew may fly to the minimums of that lower approach category.

a. True
b. False

Source: TERPS, and SAFO 12005

A

b. False

198
Q

What indications are given that the crew is allowed to perform an (M) procedure listed in the MEL?

a. The crew is never allowed to perform (M) procedures.
b. The “Flight Crew Deferral Item” column indicates “YES.”
c. Crewmembers may only perform (M) procedures if approved by Flexjet management in advance.
d. Crewmembers may only perform (M) procedures if approved by the FAA in writing.

Source: MEL Procedures Section

A

b. The “Flight Crew Deferral Item” column indicates “YES.”

199
Q

Unless otherwise stated in the Special Departure Procedure, pilots should make all Special Departure Procedure turns at 15 degrees angle of bank.

a. True
b. False

Source: APG, AC120-91

A

b. False

200
Q

Which statement below is NOT a Company fundamental principle?

a. Paying Fanatical Attention to Detail.
b. Taking a Long Term approach to relationships.
c. Treating Employees as the Foundation of a Service Company.
d. The Company is a Will-Not-Carry HAZMAT operator. Employee Handbook

Source: Employee Handbook

A

d. The Company is a Will-Not-Carry HAZMAT operator. Employee Handbook

Legacy 450/500 Praetor 500 (27 decks)

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