Legacy 500 Autoflight RKA Questions Flashcards
What systems make up the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?
- The Flight Director (FD)
- Autopilot (AP)
- Autothrottles (AT)
(AOM 9-03-01)
Which panel hosts the controls for the AP, AT and FD, plus lateral and vertical reference/mode selection and course selection?
The Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) panel
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does pushing the FD button on the AFCS panel do?
Engages and disengages the Flight Director on BOTH PFDs
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does pushing the AT button on the AFCS panel do?
Engages and Disengages the Autothrottle
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does the outer ring of the SPD knob allow the pilot to select?
Select the source of the speed reference between MAN and FMS (AOM 9-03-30)
What does pushing the HDG button on the AFCS panel do?
• Selects heading mode when pushed once and alternates with roll mode if pushed again
(AOM 9-03-30)
How can the heading bug be synchronized with the current airplane heading?
• By pushing the HDG button on the AFCS panel
(AOM 9-03-30)
Pushing the BANK button on the AFCS will toggle between what bank angles?
• ±15° and ±30° (AOM 9-03-30)
What is the up and down range of the FPA mode?
• 9.9° up and down
(AOM 9-03-30)
How can the flight path angle/reference line be selected?
• By rotating the FPA knob
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does the outer knob on the ALT knob select? The inner knob?
- Outer: Selects the altitude increasing/decreasing 1000 ft (or 100 M)
- Inner: Selects the altitude increasing/decreasing 100 ft
(or 10 M)
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does pushing the SRC button do?
• Alternates between the PFD 1 and PFD 2 FMA modes as the source for the autopilot
(AOM 9-03-30)
When the autopilot is engaged, what does pushing the TCS button on the sidestick do?
It Activates the TCS (AP override) as long as neither the takeoff nor go-around mode is active
(AOM 9-03-30)
Where are the AT/DISC buttons located? The TO/GA buttons?
• On the thrust levers
(AOM 9-03-30)
With the AP engaged, will the AP disengage if force is applied on the sidestick, either in the pitch or roll direction?
• Yes
(AOM 9-03-30)
What are the two FD cues presented?
• The flight director cue (a magenta circle) and the takeoff crossbar (AOM 9-03-30)
What does the green Flight Path Vector cue indicate?
• The current flight path in reference to the horizon line
(AOM 9-03-30)
Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) located, and what does it display?
• On the upper part of both PFDs; annunciations for auto throttle, autopilot, approach status, lateral and vertical modes (AOM 9-03-30)
List the FMA color codes for normal operation:
- Magenta- For FMS active/engaged modes
- Green-Non-FMS active/engaged modes
- White- Armed modes
- Amber- Alert condition
- Red-Abnormal condition
(AOM 9-03-30)
What does an amber LIM on the FMA indicate?
• The auto throttle is in speed mode and the selected speed target cannot be achieved because the auto throttle has limited Nl rating
(AOM 9-03-30)
What are the two precision approach capabilities of the airplane?
• Either APPR 1 or APPR 2
(AOM 9-03-30)
When is the autopilot aural alert triggered?
• When the AP is disengaged by the pilot or due to a system failure
(AOM 9-03-30)
How can the autopilot aural alert be cancelled?
• By pressing the AP/PTY buttons on either sidestick
(AOM 9-03-30)
When will the airplane automatically transition to the half bank mode?
• When the airplane attitude is greater than 25,000 ft during a climb
(AOM 9-03-40)
Prior to selecting the TO/GA button, what must be set in order to display the takeoff crossbar on the PFD?
1. The flap 1 or 2 position must be selected
2. Airplane Weight must be set
3. Takeoff speeds must be sent in the FMS
(AOM 9-03-40)
What computed takeoff speed reference is set in TO mode?
1. V2+15 kts -AEO
2. In the case of OEI below V2 , the speed reference will be set to V2 (AOM 9-03-40)
What altitudes are associated with the ILS approach check points to try to engage the highest system capability available?
• 1,500 ft RA and 800 ft RA (AOM 9-03-40)
What is Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)?
• A function that can automatically bring the airplane to a safe altitude in the ultimate scenario of cabin depressurization and pilot incapacitation
(AOM 9-03-40)
When is EDM enabled?
• When the AP is engaged and the airplane is above 25,000 ft (AOM 9-03-40)
When is EDM activated?
• When EDM is enabled and a depressurization event occurs
(a red CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message is displayed)
(AOM 9-03-40)
If the Autopilot (AP) is engaged, what happens to the autothrottle (AT) when the airspeed is below the top of the LSA white bar?
• The autothrottle will automatically be engaged
(AOM 9-03-40)
What happens to the Autopilot (AP) when the AOA limit function is activated?
• It is disengaged
(AOM 9-03-40)
What phases of flight is the autothrottle system approved to operate in?
• All phases of flight:
- Takeoff,
- Climb,
- Cruise,
- Descent,
- Approach,
- landing
during OEI operations
(AOM 9-03-50)
What is the purpose of the HOLD mode of the autothrottle?
• To ensure that no undesirable thrust reductions are experienced during the takeoff
(AOM 9-03-50)
When will the autothrottle (AT)HOLD mode be activated?
• From the time the airplane exceeds 60 kts during the takeoff roll until 400 ft AGL
(AOM 9-03-50)
What is the minimum autopilot engagement height?
• 400 ft
(AOM 2-56)
What is the minimum autopilot use height with Vertical Path Reference?
• 80 ft (AOM 2-56)
What is the minimum autopilot use height without Vertical Path Reference?
• 180 ft
(AOM 2-56)
When planning to land with the autothrottle engaged, what is the Vref additive and how much is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by?
5 KIAS; 1.1
(AOM 2-56)
