New Ones Flashcards
1
Q
Three barriers to evaluate the effectiveness of a risk assessment review?
A
Physical
Administrative
Management
2
Q
Biosafety Levels
A
Personnel work with…
BSL1 - Low risk microbes
BSL2 - agents associated with human deseases (moderate hazard)
BSL3 - indigenous or exotic microbes
BSL4 - highly dangerous and exotic microbes
3
Q
PID are used for…
A
Detection of VOCs and some inorganic gases
4
Q
Standing surfaces for precision work should be at which height?
A
95 to 120 cms
5
Q
Time that needs a tick to transmit a bacteria.
A
36 to 48 hours
6
Q
Malaria is caused by parasites?
A
True
7
Q
The bacteria Borreria Burgdorfeli causes ____, through the bite of ticks
A
Lyme Desease
8
Q
Types of biological agents
A
- Bacterias
- Parasites
- Virus
- Fungi
- Bites and stings
- Allergens and toxins
9
Q
People can get the disease when they are in contact with infected animals or animal products contaminated with the bacteria. Animals that are most commonly infected include sheep, cattle, goats, pigs, and dogs, among others.
A
Brucellosis
10
Q
Characteristics associated with suspicious packages and letters
A
Excessive posting, protruded wires, no return address, excessive tape
11
Q
Single-celled parasitic organism that can cause occupational illness
A
Protozoa
12
Q
Strong epidemiological evidence that associate whole-body vibration and … disorders.
A
Back disorders
13
Q
Desease that means “inflammation of the liver”. What types exist and how they are transmitted?
A
Hepatitis (virus).
- Hepatitis A: fecal oral route, contaminated water or food
- Hepatitis B: sexual contact, contaminated needles, body fluids
- Hepatitis C: blood-to-blood transmission
14
Q
____ are a family of viruses spread mainly by rodents and can cause varied disease syndromes in people worldwide.
How people can get this virus?
A
Hantavirus.
People can contract the hantavirus infection through inhalation of respirable droplets of saliva or urine, or through the dust of feces from infected wild rodents
15
Q
___ is an infection with a parasite called ___. People often get the infection from eating undercooked meat. You can also get it from contact with cat feces. The parasite can pass to a baby during pregnancy.
A
Toxoplasmosis
Toxoplasma gondii
16
Q
___ is an infection caused by breathing in spores of a fungus often found in bird and bat droppings. People usually get it from breathing in these spores when they become airborne during demolition or cleanup projects.
Soil contaminated by bird or bat droppings also can spread histoplasmosis.
A
Histoplasmosis (fungi)
17
Q
Risk used when there is not enough information to estimate the likelihood of an attack or the consequences are unacceptable
A
Conditional risk
18
Q
Any substance that cause or increase the risk of abnormal fetal development
A
Teratogen
19
Q
Most significant factor of a workplace violence perpetrator
A
A previous history of violence
20
Q
Who is responsible of entrant level confined space training?
A
Manager/Supervisor
21
Q
Order of conductivity of metals (lowest to highest): gold, silver, copper, aluminium
A
(H)
Silver
Copper
Gold
Aluminium
(L)
22
Q
Methyl Mercury, Manganese and organic phosphorus insecticides are examples of ____
A
Neurotoxins
23
Q
Discovered the “operant condition” which is defined as “the means to reinforce what you want an individual to do again”
A
Skinner
24
Q
Classification that indicates possible limited health risks if a substance is inhaled, ingested or penetrates through the skin.
A
Harmful
25
In LOTO which training affected employee must receive?
- LOTO policy and procedure
- Prohibition to attempt to restart machine
26
Haddon Matrix Theory
Incident investigation theory that supports a method to graphically correlate human, equipment and environment factors with pre-injury, injury and post-injury factors.
27
High risk behaviors according ANSI Z-15.1
- Speeding
- Tailgating
- Failure to signal lane change
- Obscene gesture
- Excessive horn use
28
What organization lead the process to set an safety management system internationally?
International Labour Organization
ILO
29
Formula to calculate safety distance in machine guarding
D = K (T)
K: 63 inches/second = hand speed constant; and
T = stopping time of the press measured at approximately 90°
position of crankshaft rotation (seconds).
30
According to ANSI fall protection code, how much time has the employer to contact and rescue a fallen employee?
Six (06) minutes
31
What is the minimum recommendation when a fork truck is follow by another fork truck?
Stay three to five fork truck lengths behind.
32
The driving fatigue factors are correlated with?
Driver age
Alcohol usage
33
___ is an infection caused by a type of mold (fungus). The illnesses resulting usually affect the respiratory system, but their signs and severity vary greatly.
The mold that triggers the illnesses is everywhere — indoors and outdoors. Most strains of this mold are harmless, but a few can cause serious illnesses when people with weakened immune systems, underlying lung disease or asthma inhale their fungal spores.
Aspergillosis
34
___ means: (1) The following human body fluids: semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, peritoneal fluid, amniotic fluid, saliva in dental procedures, any body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood, and all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids;
Other Potentially Infectious Materials
35
____ is a bacterial disease spread through the bite of an infected tick. Most people who get sick with it will have a fever, headache, and rash. ___ can be deadly if not treated early with the right antibiotic.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)
36
____ written procedures that specify the methods used to reduce exposures to bloodborne pathogens and treat individuals who may have been exposed to bloodborne pathogens.
Exposure Control Plan (ECP)
37
Biological safety cabinets
Class I provides protection for the user and surrounding environment, but no protection for the sample being manipulated.
Class II provides protection for the user, environment and sample, and is divided into four types: A1, A2, B1 and B2. The main differences are their minimum inflow velocities and exhaust systems.
Class III, also known as glove boxes, provides maximum protection; the enclosure is gas-tight, and all materials enter and leave through a dunk tank or double-door autoclave
38
universal precautions
Universal precautions are a standard set of guidelines to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). This activity reviews universal precautions and highlights the role of the interprofessional team in their application.
39
Which is the minimum opening for a safety net used in fall protection systems?
6 inches side
36 squared inches opening
40
Best protection to workers operating a power press?
Fixed-guard
41
Distance for means of egress when working in excavations deeper than 4 feet
25 ft
42
How far should the ladder rise above the landing place?
minimum 3.3 feet (1 m)
43
Types of violence
Type I - Criminal
Type II - Customer/Client
Type III - Worker-on-worker
Type IV - Personal relationship
44
How surge arrestors provide protection to circuits?
By reducing stress and unnecessary failures.
45
According to emergency response guide a large spill is?
55 glns (208 liters) for liquid or 300 kg for solids
46
Factors to include in a pre-employment screening to identify potential for workplace violence.
- Substance abuse
- Financial issues
- Criminal behavior
47
Which factor is important to design deflagration vents for a vessel?
Maximum rate of pressure rise.
48
Environmental legal theory related to that parties share the loss incurred based on their respective responsibility and for the costs or losses in a particular case.
Contribution theory.
49
____ is an act or omission that gives rise to injury or harm to another and amounts to a civil wrong for which courts impose liability.
A tort
50
If a company has a unprotected pond to collect drain water and a child drowns there. What legal doctrine applies?
A tort
51
In criminal and civil law, ____ is a standard of liability under which a person is legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity even in the absence of fault or criminal intent on the part of the defendant
strict liability
52
Needs Analysis
A needs analysis defines deficiencies or problems and identifies causes and solutions. It can be thought of as the process of identifying gaps between what should be happening and what is happening, and accounting for the causes of these gaps. In this way, it is a systematic search for identifying deficiencies between actual and desired job performance and the factors that prevent desired job performance
53
Color of sprinkler head used to extra high temperatures (325 - 275 F ; 163 - 191 C)
Red
54
Process in which produced water is partially demineralized by being forced through a semi-permeable membrane at a pressure greater than the osmotic pressure caused by the dissolved salts in the produced water.
Reverse osmosis
55
Why is waste segregation so important to recycling efforts?
Because it ensure the recycled materials are of the highest quality and purity.
56
Important considerations in groundwater waste treatment
Biodegradability
Quantity
Solubility of the contaminant
57
Maximum square footage and maximum travel distance to 2A20B:C fire extinguisher
3,000 ft3 per unit of A
20 ft2 per unite B/C
50 feet
58
According to NFPA, dry pipe systems cannot be installed unless the range of ambient temperatures reaches below...
40ºF
59
Sprinkler head color codes (NFPA):
100ºF
150ºF
225ºF
300ºF
375ºF
425ºF
475ºF
100ºF - Uncolored
150ºF - White
225ºF - Blue
300ºF - Red
375ºF - Green
425ºF - Orange
475ºF - Orange
60
Fire hydrant color coded:
500 gpm
500 - 1000 gpm
100 - 1500 gpm
>1500
500 gpm: Red
500 - 1000 gpm: Orange
100 - 1500 gpm: Green
>1500: Blue
61
Classification of flammable and combustible liquids according NFPA
IA - fp < 73ºF; boiling point <100ºF
IB - fp < 73ºF; boiling point > 100ºF
IC - fp 73 - 100ºF
II - fp 100 - 140 ºF
IIIA - fp 140 - 200 ºF
IIIB - fp > 200 ºF
62
Maximum quantity of corrosive liquid at exterior?
2000 lbs / 200 gallons
63
Major design aspect in a flammable/combustible storage room.
Appropriate electrical wiring and equipment
64
BCSP Code of Ethics
1) HOLD (paramount of safety)
2) BE (honest, professional)
3) ISSUE (public statements)
4) UNDERTAKE (qualification)
5) AVOID (falsification)
6) CONDUCT (relations)
7) ACT (free of bias)
8) SEEK (civic affairs)
65
BCSP Code of Ethics
1) HOLD (paramount of safety)
2) BE (honest, professional)
3) ISSUE (public statements)
4) UNDERTAKE (qualification)
5) AVOID (falsification)
6) CONDUCT (relations)
7) ACT (free of bias)
8) SEEK (civic affairs)
66
What is rollover, flameover, flashover, backdraft
Rollover and flameover is the same: when flames in a fire go through the ceiling
Flashover: after rollover, every object in the room ignites (1000ºF)
backdraft: in a fire in a closed room, opening of the door adds oxygen and occurs and flame/explosion through that opening
67
NFPA 654
Standard for the. Prevention of Fire and Dust Explosions
68
What is NEPA? EA? EIS? Differences.
NEPA: National Environment Policy Act
EA: Environment Assessment
EIS: Environmental Impact Statement
EIS is more detailed than EA
69
When a waste is considered ignitable?
Flash point below 140ºF
70
Conversion of US gallons to ft3
1 US gallon = 0.133 ft3
71
What is RCRA?
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
72
What covers Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act—commonly known as Superfund?
Hazardous and solid waste on Abandoned and historical sites (past)
73
Hazardous waste characteristic?
Ignitability, Toxicity, Corrosivity, Reactivity
74
RCRA regulatory requirements: (4)
Solid waste and hazardous waste
Used oil
Universal waste
UST (underground storage tank)
75
Which part of RCRA establishes a cradle-to-grave management system for hazardous waste to ensure proper TSD in a manner protective of human health and the environment?
Subpart C of RCRA
*TSD: treatment, storage and disposal
76
How much time a generator can accumulate hazardous waste without a TSD permit?
Up to 90 days.
77
RCRA land disposal units
waste pile, landfill, land treatment unit, surface impoundment
78
____are excluded from EPA’s definition of used oil
Animal and vegetable oils
79
Bona Fide Intent
Bona fide means "in good faith" in Latin. When applied to business deals and the like, it stresses the absence of fraud or deception.
80
TSCA
Toxic Substances Control Act
81
FIFRA
Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act
82
The Clean Air Act of 1990 was designed to curb three major threats to the nation’s environment, including___
acid rain,
urban air pollution,
and toxic air emissions.
83
NAAQS?
National Ambient Air Quality Standards
84
____ are defined as a stationary source or group of stationary sources that emit or have the potential to emit 10 tons/ year or more of a hazardous air pollutant or 25 tons/year or more of a combi- nation of hazardous air pollutants.
“Major sources”
85
Three more perjudicial air pollutants to humans (3)
Ozone
Nitrogen oxides
Particulate matter
86
Half-Life formula
N(t) = N0 * (1/2)^(t/th)
th: time half-life
t: time elapsed
N(t): remaining substance
N0: Original substance
87
LFL mix
1 / (X1% / LFL1 + X2% / LFL2 + ...)
88
Best choice of sprinkler system to a facility with highly flammable chemicals
Foam water sprinkler system
89
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
1. Self-actualization
2. Esteem
3. Love and belonging
4. Safety
5. Physiological
90
Which management theory created McGregor?
Theory X and Y
Theory X, McGregor believed that the main source of most
employee motivation is monetary, with security as a strong second.
Theory Y, McGregor theorizes that employees are motivated primarily
at the esteem and self-actualization levels.
91
Which management theory created Herzberg?
Motivational theory, which states that motivation can be split into: hygiene factors and motivation factors.
Hygiene factors affect the level of dissatisfaction but are rarely noted as creators of job satisfaction. However, if these factors are not present or satisfied, they can demotivate a person.
- Supervision
- Salary
- Personal relationships
- Physical working conditions
Motivation factors include:
- Achievement
- Advancement
- Recognition
- Responsability
92
Who developed the management by objectivs theory?
Peter Drucker
93
_____ theory is a class of behavioral theory that claims that there is no one best way to organize a corporation, lead a company, or make decisions. Instead, the optimal course of action is subject to changes upon the internal and external situation.
Contingency Theory
94
Difference between an autocratic and a permissive leader.
An autocratic leader or manager makes all decisions unilaterally, while
the permissive leader permits subordinates to take part in the decision making and gives them a considerable degree of autonomy in completing routine tasks.
95
Human Factors Theory
Accidents are entirely the result of human error. These errors are categorized broadly as:
* Overload
* The work task is beyond the capability of the worker
96
Petersen’s Model or Petersen’s Theory
Dan Petersen introduced additional elements to the Human Factor Theory, such as ergonomic traps, the decision to err, and system failures.
97
Heinrich’s “Three E’s” to prevent accidents are ___
Engineering, Education, and Enforcement.
98
___ focuses primarily on industrial hygiene and the causal relationship between environmental factors and disease. It is appropriate for studying the causal relation- ships between environmental factors and accidents
The Epidemiological Theory
99
The System Theory
Systems Theory of accident causation is a relationship between man, machine systems, and the surroundings, which function as a unit or a whole
100
In ____, Dr. Haddon portrays accidents in terms of energy and transference. This transfer of energy, in large amounts and at rapid rates, can adversely affect living and nonliving objects, causing injury and damage.
the Energy Release Theory
101
Modern Causation Model
Safety Management Error ->
Safety Program Error ->
Command error ->
System defect ->
Operating error->
Mishap ->
Results.
102
Near Miss Relationship recent studies
1 serious accident
59 minor
600 close-call
103
Multilinear Events Sequencing Method
104
For overhead cranes, how and when inspect limit switch?
With no load on the crane, slowly inch up to the limit switch until it is activated. This is necessary at the start of every shift.
105
Type "_" Gates protect the operator during the downstroke only. The gate starts to open before the crankshaft rotation is complete (generally after 180° crankshaft rotation). The gates must open on the upstroke of the machine cycle before the crankshaft rotation is complete.
Type B gates
106
ANSI/ASSE Z690.3-2011
Risk Assessment Techniques (nationally adopted from IEC/ISO 31010:2009)
107
How often should a facility have a sling inspection?
Every 12 months
108
Type of guard barrier used when it is necessary to access to the hazard area
Movable barrier
109
Most states require employers with ___ employees to maintain workers’ compensation insurance or be self-insured.
five or more
110
The first state to pass a workers’ compensation law was ___, which enacted a law in 1911. Ten additional states passed laws in the same year.
Wisconsin
111
Workers’ compensation premiums are usually expressed in ___.
dollars per $100 of payroll
112
What is experience modification rate (EMR) or experi- ence modification factor (EMF)?
It is a multiplier used to calculate insurance premiums. Calculated in a basis of thee years. It is equal to:
Actual Losses / Expected Losses
113
What is waiver of subrogation?
The insurer will not enforce its right to recover against organizations listed in the endorsement’s schedule when the insured is performing work under contract that requires a waiver.
114
A ____ can be one of the most effec- tive tools in reducing workers’ compensation premiums and EMRs.
return-to-work/light duty program
115
What is an inductor or reactor? What is the unit of measure?
An inductor or a reactor is a passive electrical component that can store
energy in a magnetic field created by the electric current passing through it.
Its unit is Henries.
116
Formulas to calculate inductance in a series and paralel circuits.
L(s) = L1 + L2 + L3 + ... + Ln
L(p) = 1/L1 + 1/L2 + 1/L3 + ... + 1/Ln
117
What is the unit of measure of capacitance? Formulas to calulate it in paralel and series circuit.
Farads (F)
C(s) = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + ... + 1/Cn
C(p) = C1 + C2 + ... + Cn
118
What color has the ground wire? and de energized?
White: ground
Red - black: energized
119
The amount of internal current a person can withstand
and still be able to control the muscles of the arm and hand can be less
than ___. Currents greater than ___ cause ventricular fibrillation.
* 10 mA
* 75 mA
120
Heart paralysis occurs at ___, which means the heart does not pump at all. Tissue is burned with currents greater than ___.
*4 A
*5 A.
121
Temperatures as high as ___°F have been reached in arc blasts.
35,000 °F
122
At __ A, cardiac arrest and severe burns occur. Death is probable.
*10 A
123
To control the hazards presented by overhead power lines, a worker can stay at least ___ft away;
*10 ft away
124
GFCIs are set at approximately ___ and are designed to protect workers
from electrocution.
*5 mA
125
Difference between circuit breakers and GFCI.
GFCIs are different from circuit breakers because they detect leakage currents rather than overloads.
126
Differences between a fuse and a circuit breaker
In order to prevent too much current in a circuit, a circuit breaker or fuse is placed in the circuit. If there is too much current in the circuit, the breaker “trips” and opens like a switch. If an overloaded circuit is equipped with a fuse, an internal part of the fuse melts, opening the circuit. Both breakers and fuses do the same thing: Open the circuit to shut off the electrical current.
127
According OSHA, the employer shall use either ___ or an ___ as specified in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section to protect employees on construction sites. These requirements are in addition to any other requirements for equipment grounding conductors.
* ground fault circuit interrupters
* assured equipment grounding conductor program
128
Which are the two test required by AEGCP? How often?
Continuity Test and Terminal Connection Test
* Before first use;
* Before equipment is returned to service following any repairs;
* Before equipment is used after any incident which can be reasonably suspected to have caused damage (for example, when a cord set is run over); and
* At intervals not to exceed 3 months, except that cord sets and receptacles which are fixed and not exposed to damage shall be tested at intervals not exceeding 6 months.
129
All 120-volt, single-phase, 15- and 20-ampere receptacle outlets on construction sites, which are not a part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure and which are in use by employees, shall have approved ___ for personnel protection. Receptacles on a two-wire, single-phase portable or vehicle-mounted generator rated not more than 5kW, where the circuit conductors of the generator are insulated from the generator frame and all other grounded surfaces, need not be protected with ___.
* ground-fault circuit interrupters
* ground-fault circuit interrupters
130
Distance of guardrails above the platform scaffold
0.9 to 1.15 m
131
THERP
Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction
132
Section in a GHS label that describes control measures, emergency response procedures, and storage and disposal requirements?
Precautionary statement
133
Defensive driving according ANSI Z15.1
Driving to save lives, time and money in despite of the environment conditions and the actions of others.
134
Depth of excavation that needs to be oxygen deficiency monitored.
4 ft
135
The ____ works by measuring the length of the crane’s boom, the weight of the load, and the angle of the boom. The sensors send the data to the computer, which then calculates the crane’s ___.
load moment indicator
load moment
136
In ergonomics: Movement away from the midline of the body.
Abduction
137
Two types of anthropometry used in ergonomics
Static and dynamic
138
Most common vibration measurement tool
Accelerometer
139
What lifting device hitch type requires two connection point in a load?
Briddle hitch
140
Max. recommended load for a hard cart
500 lbs
141
Sitting at a typewriter puts ___ pressure on lower back.
the most
142
Heat-related illness: classify by seriousness
Heat rash
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Dehydration
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
143
pale face, clammy skin, headache, nausea are symptoms of ...
Heat Exhaustion
144
Manual handling represents the ___ of occupational injuries
25%
145
Lifting duration classification
Short 1 h
Moderate 1 - 2 h
Heavy 2 - 8 h
146
Lifting frequency: definition
Average number of lifts per minute over a 15-min period.
147
RWL equation and the value of the load constant
Recommended Weight Limit
RWL = LC x HM x VM x DM x FM x AM x CM
LC: 51
148
Significant control is defined as ...
Condition requiring precision placement of the load at the destination of the lift
148
Significant control is defined as ...
Condition requiring precision placement of the load at the destination of the lift
149
On November 15, 2007, OSHA implemented a new rule clarifying ____.
employer responsibilities regarding payment for PPE
150
A thorough ____ is required before issuing PPE.
job hazard assessment
151
There are three classifications of head protection: ____
E (20,000V),
G (2,200V), and
C (conductive helmets not intended for protection from electrical conductors).
152
Mention the General Industry Standards for PPE
29CFR1910.132 PPE Gen. Requirements
29CFR1910.133 Eye and face protection
29CFR1910.134 Respiratory protection
29CFR1910.135 Head protection
29CFR1910.137 Electrical protective eq.
29CFR1910.138 Foot and leg protection
29CFR1910.95 Hearing protection
153
One of the better protective clothing used in protecting workers from high-pressure water blasting is the _____ or _____. This suit protects the chest, legs, and arms from glancing blows of up to 40,000 psi.
Water Armor or “Turtle Suit.”
154
There should be a minimum of ___. clearance between the hard hat and the suspension. This space, known as the safety zone, is extremely important in the absorption of an impact on the hard hat.
1 – 1 1/4in
155
Protective helmets purchased after July 5, 1994, shall comply with ____
American National Standard Institute (ANSI) Z89.1
156
Helmets are date-stamped by the manufacturer and should be replaced no later than ___, for example, __ years.
the date recommended by the manufacturer
5 years
157
Protective eye and face protection devices must comply with any of the following consensus standard ____
ANSI/ISEA Z87.1-2010, Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection Devices
158
Hearing protectors must attenuate employee exposure at least to an 8-h time- weighted average (TWA) of __ dB as required in 29 CFR 1910.95. For employ- ees who have experienced a standard threshold shift, hearing protectors must attenuate employee exposure to an 8-h TWA of __ dB or below.
90 dB
85 dB
159
___ filter means a filter that is at least 99.97% efficient in removing monodisperse particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter. The equivalent NIOSH 42 CFR 84 particulate filters are the N100, R100, and P100 filters.
High efficiency particulate air (HEPA)
160
Water, or wastewater, weighs ___lb/gal
8.34
161
Reynolds number: ____ is laminar, ____ is transitional, and ____ is turbulent.
Reynolds number: <2,000 is laminar, 2,000 < Re < 4,000 is transi- tional, and >4,000 is turbulent.
162
Construction safety regulations are outlined in ____ (OSHA Standard)
29 CFR 1926
163
Employees working on or near construction sites must be protected from cave-in when the excavation is___ in depth
4ft or more
164
A Registered Professional Engineer (RPE) is a ____.
person registered as an engineer in the state where the excavation is being performed
165
benching is not an option in Type ____ soils
C
166
Over ___ft deep—protective system must be designed by an ___ or approved in the manufacturer’s tabulated data.
20 ft
RPE: registered engineer
167
When shields that don’t go all the way to the bottom of the trench are used, the excavation should be no deeper than ___ft from the bottom of the shield.
2 ft
168
Keep excavated soil (spoils) and other materials at least ____ from trench edges.
2 feet (0.6 meters)
169
Electrical current as low as ___ can cause death.
75 mA
170
Scaffolding requirements are addressed in ____
29 CFR 1926.450-454
171
Cranes and derricks must be clear of power lines by at least ___ for voltages up to __ kV or 10 ft plus ___ in. for each kilovolt over ___kV.
Cranes and derricks must be clear of power lines by at least 10 ft for voltages up to 50 kV or 10 ft plus 0.4 in. for each kilovolt over 50 kV.
172
Only compressed air less than___ psi may be used for cleaning operations.
30 psi
173
29 CFR 1926.25
Housekeeping in construction
174
In general, workers on a scaffold who can potentially fall more than ___ft must be protected by guardrails or personal fall arrest systems (PFASs).
10 ft
175
As stated in the introduction to this chapter, ____ account for approximately 40% of all construction-related fatalities.
falls
176
The top edge height of top rails, or equivalent guardrail system members, shall be ____ above the walking/working surface.
42 ± 3in.
177
Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least ____ lb applied within 2 in. of the top edge, in any outward or down- ward direction, at any point along the top edge.
200 lb
178
____ is defined as a body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface
“positioning device system”
179
When warning line systems are used, they shall be erected around all sides of the roof work area. When mechanical equipment is not being used, the warning line shall be erected not less than ___ft from the roof edge.
6
180
Safety net: The drop test shall consist of a ____ lbbag of sand 30 ± 2 in. in diam- eter dropped into the net from the highest walking/working surface at which employees are exposed to fall hazards
400-lb
