Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ASP > 15. Electrical Safety - 20. Fire Protection and Prevention > Flashcards

15. Electrical Safety - 20. Fire Protection and Prevention Flashcards

1
Q

Electrons that do not flow in one direction in a circuit. Instead, the flow of electrons changes its direction, or polarity, constantly. The rate of changing polarity is called the frequency of ___. The major advantage of ___ over direct current is that voltage can be changed through the use of a transformer.

A

Alternating Current (AC)
Alternating Current (AC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A specific measure of potential energy that is always relative between two points. The force pushing electrons to “flow” in a circuit.

A

Voltage (Volts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ampere (definition)

A

The number of electrons or charge passing a certain point in the circuit in one second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ohm’s Law

A

A law that shows the fundamental relationship of electrical circuits, that is: the amount of electric current through a metal conductor in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage impressed across it, for any given temperature. V = I * R, where V is the potential difference in volts, I is the current in amps, and R is the resistance in ohms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Electrical Power

A

A function of both voltage and current, where power or P, is equal to current, I, multiplied by voltage, V.
P = I x V
P: watts
I: Amp
V: Volt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Formula of Total Resistance (Rt) in a series and parallel circuit? (R1, R2, R3)

A

Series:
Rt = R1 + R2 + R3

Parallel:
1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A high power discharge of electricity between two or more conductors. This discharge translates into heat, which can break down the wire’s insulation and possibly trigger an electrical fire.

A

Arc fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A supersonic shockwave produced when the uncontrolled arc vaporizes the metal conductors.

A

Arc blast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This effect happens when an electric current passes through your body. This can burn both internal and external tissue and cause organ damage.

A

Electrical shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An imbalance of electric charges within or on the surface of a material. The charge remains until it is able to move away by means of an electric current or electrical discharge.

A

Static electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The minimum distance from the energized item where unqualified personnel may safely stand. No untrained personnel may approach any closer to the energized item than this boundary. A qualified person must use the appropriate PPE and be trained to perform the required work to cross the limited approach boundary and enter the limited space.

A

Limited Approach Boundary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Arc Blast / Arc Fault / Arc Flash

A

When an arc fault occurs, there’s a massive electrical explosion. Both arc flash and arc blast are separate byproducts of that electrical explosion. The arc flash is the light and heat from the explosion, while the arc blast is a pressure wave that follows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Current effect on human body:
- faint tingle
- slight shock felt
- painful shock, loss of muscular control
- extreme pain, respiratory arrest, possible death
- Rhythmic pumping of heart ceases, muscular contraction and nerve damage, likely death
- Severe burn, cardiac arrest, death probable

A

1 mA - faint tingle
5 mA- slight shock felt
6 - 25 mA - painful shock, loss of muscular control
50 mA- extreme pain, respiratory arrest, possible death
1,000 mA- Rhythmic pumping of heart ceases, muscular contraction and nerve damage, likely death
10,000 mA- Severe burn, cardiac arrest, death probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Temperature of arc flash

A

Over 35,000 ºF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NFPA 70E

A

Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Electrically safe work condition according to NFPA

A
  1. Identify power sources and label them
  2. Interrupting the load and disconnecting the power
  3. Visualize the open circuit
  4. LOTO
  5. Testing for Voltage
  6. Grounding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of Electric Flash

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Arc Flash Boundaries and definition

A
  1. Power source
  2. Restricted approach boundary (only qualified personnel with appropriate EPP)
  3. Limited approach boundary (only qualified personnel can ingress)
  4. Arc Flash boundary (where second degree burns could occur)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Arc flash causes

A

Contact with tools
Accidental touching
Condensation
Dust
Corrosion
Material failure
Faulty installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The act of joining two electrical conductors together that are not supposed to be carrying current during normal operations to bring them to the same electrical potential.

A

Bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____; a fast acting circuit breaker designed to shut off electric power in the event of a ground-fault within as little as one fortieth of a second. It works by comparing the amount of current going to and returning from equipment along the circuit conductors.

A

Ground-Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Installing one set of grounds at the work location between the conductors, the system neutral, if one exists, and the ground, which may be a tower or pole ground, to create a bonded work zone that will remain at a near identical state of electrical potential, hence the term “equipotential zone.”

A

Single point grounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of GFCI

A

Circuit breaker GFCI
Receptacle GFCI
Portable GFCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

GFCI turn off the power when detects a difference of ____ mA. The time for the shut off is ____ seconds.

A

5 mA
1/40 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which devices open the circuit when too much current flows trough them

A

Circuit breaker
Fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The point between the fire growth phase and full development, when temperatures can reach 1000ºF.

A

Flashover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Explosion vs Deflagration

A

Explosion: A sudden, rapid release of energy that produces potentially damaging pressures that can travel at the speed of sound; which is 1,088 feet per second, or 332 meters per second.

Deflagration: A reaction with a speed of propagation less than the speed of sound in the unreacted medium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Liquids or solids that readily give off oxygen or other oxidizing substances, such as bromine, chlorine, or fluorine. They also include materials that react chemically to oxidize combustible or burnable materials.

A

Oxydising material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rollover / Flashover / Backdraft

A

A rollover is the circumstance in a structure fire when incompletely burned fuels or ignited fire gases spread out horizontally after rising to the ceiling. After this, the smoke suddenly appears to start burning. This special circumstance can lead to a flashover.

A flashover is the circumstance in a structure fire when everything in the room suddenly and simultaneously ignites. In full protective gear, a firefighter is even unlikely to survive this event, though they are trained to recognize when a flashover is about to occur. It happens due to several factors. A rollover occurs, with hot gases rising to the ceiling and spreading out across to the walls. The heat intensifies to the point where every combustible item reaches ignition temperatures. This causes them to burst into flames. In a few seconds, temperatures shoot up to as much as 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit or 538 degrees Celsius.

A backdraft is when there’s an explosion due to oxygen being let into a room full of hot gases. When a fire is burning in an enclosed area, eventually, it burns up all of the oxygen (it’s oxidizer). This causes hot, flammable gases to fill the room. This leads to temperatures rising and pressure building, causing the building to appear like it’s pulsing or throbbing. If all of a sudden, a door is opened to let in a burst of new oxygen, all of the flammable gases burst into flames, due to the fire being oxidized again, i.e. hot, flammable gases plus fire equals one big explosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

BLEVE

A

Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dust of less than ___ are considered hazardous because of the dust explosion

A

420 microns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NFPA 654

A

Standard for the Prevention of Fire and Dust Explosions from the Manufacturing,. Processing, and Handling of Combustible Particulate Solids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Types of Fire Chemical Hazards

A
  1. Oxidizer
  2. Reactive, unstable or pyrophoric material
  3. Corrosives
  4. Radioactives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Difference between Flash Point and Fire Point

A

The flash point of a liquid hydrocarbon is the temperature to which it must be heated to emit sufficient flammable vapor to flash when brought into contact with a flame.
The fire point of a hydrocarbon liquid is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited at least 5 seconds after removing the flame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

NFPA 321

A

Basic Classification of Flammable and Combustible Liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

NFPA 30

A

Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A storage distance of at least 20 feet or roughly 6 meters and isolating incompatible materials by a non-combustible partition extending at least 18 inches, which is 46 centimeters above and to the sides.

A

Separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gasoline is expanded ____% in volume in a change of ___ ºF

A

0.07 %
10 ºG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Flame Arrester

A

A Flame Arrester also spelled arrestor is a device which allows gas to pass through it but stops a flame in order to prevent a larger fire or explosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

For inside storage of flammable liquids there are storage cabinets of not more than ____ gal of class ___ of a liquids

A

120 gln
Class 1, 2 and 3 A liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flammable Liquids - Classes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For inside storage of chemicals, the door must have a ___ point latch.

A

Three point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The equipment that is used to transport the flammable or potentially hazardous liquids in a safer manner. Generally, the maximum capacity of safety cans is 5 gallons.

A

Safety can.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The preferred method of dispensing flammable and combustible liquids from a drum.

A

Hand-operated pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

To storage flammable gas cylinders from oxygen cylinders…

A

Separate by 20 feet, or
Use a wall of 5 feet height and 30 minutes of fire-resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A device that transmits a signal to the fire alarm control unit indicating that the device has undergone a change of state.

A

Initiating device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Devices that respond to detection of smoke density and may detect smoldering fires. These detectors are either ionization or photoelectric.

A

Smoke detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Devices that change in some way when the temperature at the detector reaches a particular level, or a set point.

A

Heat detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A signal that indicates a fault in a monitored circuit or component of the fire alarm system or the disarrangement of the primary or secondary power supply.

A

Trouble signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A signal indicates that action is needed in connection with the operation of other fire protection systems that are being monitored by the fire alarm system, such as an automatic sprinkler system.

A

Supervisory signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fire extinguishers that are appropriate for Class A, B and/or C fires. _____ (chemical components) extinguishers are also known as multipurpose because they are applicable for A, B and C fires.

A

Monoammonium phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

____ (chemical components), extinguishers can extinguish class B & C fires.

A

Sodium bicarbonate, or baking soda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Types of extinguishers for class D fires

A

Dry Powder Extinguisher, it forms a crust which excludes air and dissipates heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Types of K fires extinguishers

A

Potassium acetate, potassium citrate and potassium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How works K-fire extinguishers?

A

They form a foam blanket that smother the fire. The disadvantage is they are conductive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

P.A.S.S. technique

A

Extinguishers:
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

First step when realized the monthly extinguisher inspection

A

Confirm location is visible, unobstructed and designated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Fire extinguishing systems and materials that are electrically non-conductive, leave no residue, and are safe to use in occupied spaces. Types of ___ include carbon dioxide, halon and inert gas. These total flooding gaseous systems work quickly by interrupting the chemical chain reaction and are very effective, while keeping equipment and personnel safer.

A

Clean agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

These systems use the same chemicals as portable extinguishers. You will typically find these systems near dip tanks, Paint spray booths, exhaust dust systems and commercial cooking equipment. These systems are for local application and they minimize splashing.

A

Wet / Dry chemical systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

These systems are used where there are few personnel and are used in engine rooms, generator rooms, power stations, flammable liquid storage rooms, and around large industrial machines.

A

Carbon Dioxide systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fire extinguishing systems that are comprised a solution of water and class B foam mixed with compressed air to create an adhesive foam blanket, which can be used to reduce temperature, displace oxygen, extinguish flames, and protect unburned materials from radiated heat.

A

Compressed air foam system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

____has very high ozone depletion properties and its production was banned in US in 1994 under the ___

A

Halon
Clean Air Act (1994)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which agent is known to be highly efficient fire suppression agent?

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A sprinkler system that, when a fire occurs and produces a sufficient amount of heat to activate one or more sprinklers, water immediately discharges from the open sprinkler head. ____ should be the first choice of designers and installers because they are more reliable and less expensive to maintain.

A

Wet Pipe Sprinkler System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A sprinkler system that contains no water prior to system activation, but rather is charged with air or nitrogen under pressure. A valve holds back the water supply and serves as the water/air interface. When a sprinkler head activates, air pressure is released and causes water pressure to open the valve and start the flow of water.

A

Dry Pipe Sprinkler System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A thermosensitive device that is designed to discharge a certain amount of water in a certain pattern, is only activated when a fire generates a sufficient quantity of heat, and will control or suppress the fire once it has activated.

A

Pre-Action System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which temperature is recommended for dry pipe sprinkler system?

A

Below 40 ºF (4ºC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Deluge system is also called a _____ system. It is used to protect against rapidly growing and spreading fire.

A

Open Sprinkler System (spray)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

____a valve device that is frequently installed outside of the structure that has a viewing window with a sliding metal plate. As the valve is operated with the special wrench, the stem, which is connected to the gate device on the end of the stem.

A

Post-indicator valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A man-made cut, cavity or depression in the earth surface that is deeper than its wide, with a depth of no more than 15 feet.

A

Trench

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tension crack

A

At horizontal distance of half to 3/4 the depth of the trench.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Result of the tension cracks

A

Sliding or sluffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Toppling (excavation)

A

It occurs when the trenches vertical face sheers along the tension crack line and topples into the excavation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Subsiding / Bulging (excavation)

A

It is created by unbalanced stress in the soil. It is a common failure that can create an entrapment for the workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Heaving/squeezing (excavation)

A

It is created by the downward pressure created by the weight of adjoining soil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Boiling (excavation)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Instability below the base of excavation that is affected by soil type and strength, depth of cut, side slope and/or berm geometry, groundwater conditions, and construction procedures.

A

Bottom heaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The gradual caving in or sinking of an area of land.

A

Subsidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

This class of soil is the least stable. These soils are comprised of gravel, sand and loamy sand. Submerged soil and submerged unstable rock also fit in this category.

A

Type C soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A simple, lightweight, handheld device made for instant estimates of unconfined compressive strength of cohesive soils.

A

Pocket penetrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A field test is performed using an undisturbed sample - or clump of soil - about the size of a small plate from the excavation spoil pile. When using the thumb or fingers to apply light to moderate pressure to the sample, if the sample easily crumbles with moderate pressure, the soil is usually considered granular. If the soil is dry and breaks into smaller clumps only with great difficulty, it may contain enough clay in combination with other grain sizes to be considered cohesive.

A

Dry Strength Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A field test that consists of taking a palm sized sample of moist soil and attempting to roll it into threads about one-eighth of an inch in diameter. If the soil contains cohesive properties, it can be rolled into threads without crumbling. If at least a two-inch length of one-eighth of an inch thread can be held on one end without tearing, the soil is likely cohesive and therefore may be Type A soil

A

Plasticity Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The amount of pressure that will cause the soil to collapse. This value is usually reported in ‘tons per square foot’ and is determined through geotechnical laboratory tests or can be estimated in the field using rudimentary field instrumentation.

A

Unconfined Compressive Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Weigh of cubic foot and yard of soil

A

1 ft3 = 100 lbs
1 yd3 = 2,700 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Particles of ___ in or ___ cms are gravel, below that is ___, ____ and ____

A

Gravel
Sand
Silt
Clay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Type A of soil

A

It is cohesive and contain a good amount of clay.
It can not be type A if there are cracks or source of vibration near-by.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Type B of soil

A

It is cohesionless, the soil does not contain enough fine particles and clay so that the soil will stick together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The thumb penetration test is used to quickly estimate the compressive strength of a cohesive soil sample. To perform the thumb penetration test, simply press the end of your thumb into a fresh clump of soil. If the soil sample is Type A, your thumb will only make an indentation in the soil with great effort, as you can see demonstrated here. If the soil sample is Type B, your thumb will sink into the soil up to the end of your thumbnail, just like this. If the soil sample is Type C, your thumb will sink all the way into the soil clump, as you can see here. Your results for this test will probably be somewhere in between these results.

A

Thumb Penetration Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Prevents excavation and trench cave-ins by excavating soils at an angle away from the base of the excavation.

A

Sloping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The process of bracing the walls of an excavation or trench to prevent excavation sidewall collapse and cave-ins.

A

Shoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Systems are designed to be moved as the trench is being excavated and successive sections of pipe are laid

A

Shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Excavating soils to eave steps on the sides of the excavation.

A

Benching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Excavation protection system that is held in place by other parts of the shoring system. This protective system is installed to the design depth along the perimeter of the excavation or along trench sidewalls using vibratory hammers

A

Sheeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Difference between shoring and shielding

A

Trench shoring materials are used to brace the walls of a trench to prevent collapse. Trench shoring can be attained using hydraulic cylinders and FinnForm—special shoring plywood—to protect the workers from getting covered in loose dry dirt. The hydraulic cylinders are pumped until the plates press against the walls of the trench, securing them in place. Sometimes, steel I-beams are inserted into the ground, and then steel plates are slid in alongside them. Depending on the type and length of the job, some methods are preferred over others.

Trench shields (also sometimes called trench boxes) protect workers while they’re working inside a trench. They adjust to fit the size of the trench, and are typically constructed out of steel or aluminum. Unlike trench shoring materials, they are not designed to hold up the walls of a trench; they’re just there to shelter workers from a potentially dangerous collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Angles of sloping according to types of soil

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is a trench box?

A

It is the shielding method of protection against collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Hydraulic and pneumatic shoring systems must be inspect ____ (frequency) to look after leaks or defects

A

once every shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Trench box should extend ___ in the surrounded area

A

18 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ladders used for egress should be spaced no further than ___ feet apart and extend at least ___ feet minimum above the top of the sheeting, shoring or trench box.

A

20 ft
3 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

____: Excavated materials consisting of topsoil or subsoils that have been removed and temporarily stored during the construction activity. Excavated material should be stored at least___ feet from the edge of the excavation or trench.

A

spoil piles
2 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Shoring, shielding, sloping, sheeting, benching are methods used only to ____ feet of depth, for deeper excavations….

A

20 feet
Competent engineer must design the protection system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Do not excavate more than ___ below the trench box

A

2 feet

103
Q

Also known as aerial lifts. Personal fall protection equipment is not required when using this equipment because it is essentially a platform with fall prevention guard rails. However, personnel should attach to restraint points in this equipment.

A

Mobile Elevated Work Platform

104
Q

Systems that secure a harnessed worker to a secured point with a lanyard or similar device

A

Personal Fall Arrest System

105
Q

Fall protection system consisting of an anchorage, body support, connecting means, and rescue.

A

Active Fall Protection System

106
Q

ANSI/ASSP Z359.2

A

Fall Protection and Fall Restraint Standard.

107
Q

Fall protection systems do not require personal fall protection equipment or active participation from the worker to prevent falls. These systems include guardrails, parapets, and floor and wall covers.

A

Passive Fall Protection System

108
Q

Roof openings and screen must support ___

A

two times the load

109
Q

Screen or covers must be able to withstand a load of at least ____

A

200 pounds applied perpendicularly

110
Q

Factors that are considered when identifying and selecting fall hazard abatement options are…

A

Effectiveness, defeatability, initial and recurring costs

111
Q

___ fall protection device that immediately stops a fall and is typically attached to the D-ring of a worker’s safety harness. This device is designed to be placed above the workers head and - In the event of a fall - an inertial breaking mechanism locks into place and prevents the user from falling more than a few inches.

A

Self-retracting lifeline or lanyard SRL

112
Q

_____: The physical structure that supports the attachment point of a fall protection system. This point must be able to withstand at least ____ per employee attached.

A

Anchorage
5,000 lbs. per employee attached

113
Q

Hook-shaped metal bodies with a self-closing gate. They are opened to receive an object, and when released, automatically close to retain the object.

A

Snaphooks

114
Q

Active fall protection system or ___

A

Personal Fall arrest system

115
Q

Beam straps and beam clamps are for ____

A

only user

116
Q

Most body harness are designed to support ____ including tools and clothing

A

310 lbs

117
Q

ANSI/ASSP Z359.11

A

Requirements for Full Body Harness

118
Q

A, B, C & R categories in fall protection system

A

Anchorage
Body support
Connecting means
Rescue

119
Q

Three words to simplify the vast considerations for safety use of fall protection systems

A

Use
Limitations
Restrictions

120
Q

Four steps to ensure a proper fit of a harness

A

Inspect
Don
Position & secure
Evaluate

121
Q

Snaphook size change in 2007 when ANSI started to required a ____ gate strength

A

3,600 lbs

122
Q

Carabiners are ring of ___

A

Oval or trapezoidal shape

123
Q

Common Air Pollutants (6)

A

Particulate matter
Nitrogen oxide
Sulfure dioxide
Ground Level Ozone
Lead
Carbon Monoxide

124
Q

The three air pollutants that affects human health more significantly

A

Particulate matter
Nitrogen oxide
Ground level ozone

125
Q

____ (HAPs) are suspected to cause ____, ____, ____ or _____ cancer

A

Hazardous Air Pollutants
lung, kidney, bone or stomach cancer

126
Q

Common indoor toxics HAP

A

Benzene (gasoline)
Perchloroethylene (dry cleaning)
Formaldehyde (building materials and adhesives)
Methylene chloride (solvent and paint strippers)

127
Q

IN ____, US began regulating ir emissions from ____ and ____ sources through the ________

A

1970
stationary and mobile sources
Clean Air Act

128
Q

Clean Air Act was amended in ____ to include: ___, ____ and ____, and to establish a ____ and ____

A

1989
acid rain, urban air pollution and toxic air pollutants
permit and enforcement program to ensure compliance with the Clean Air Act

129
Q

Which are stakeholder groups working in a committed way to protect climate and improve air quality

A

The United Nations
The World Health Organization
Climate & Clean Air Coalition

130
Q

Sensitivity to low levels of a broad range of chemicals at levels common in today’s home and working environments.

A

Multiple Chemical Sensitivity

131
Q

A defined illness with a known causative agent resulting from exposure to the building air. While the causative agent can be chemical, for example formaldehyde, it is often biological.

A

Building-related illness

132
Q

Baghouse filter

A

An air pollution control device and dust collector that removes particulates or gas released from commercial processes out of the air using fabric bags that act as filters. These bags are typically made of cotton, synthetic, or glass-fiber material in either a tube or envelope shape.

133
Q

Processes that destroy air or gas contaminants, such as volatile organic compounds and hydrocarbon fumes in a special incinerator called an afterburner.

A

Combustion

134
Q

A process by which gaseous contaminants are removed from an air or gas stream by transferring them to the surface of a solid adsorbent, such as silica gel, polymers or activated carbon. This method is commonly used for odor and in the control of volatile organic compounds.

A

Adsorption

135
Q

A device that removes suspended dust particles from a gas or exhaust by applying a high-voltage electrostatic charge and collecting the particles on charged plates.

A

Electrostatic precipitators

136
Q

___ is used to remove particulates from an air, gas or liquid stream, without the use of filters, through vortex separation. Rotational effects and gravity are used to separate mixtures of solids and fluids. Also known as a centrifugal collector.

A

Cyclone

137
Q

An air pollution control device for removing particles and/or gases from industrial exhaust stream that operates by introducing the dirty gas stream with a scrubbing liquid – typically water.

A

Wet scrubber

138
Q

They are the most efficient and most cost-effective method to separate dust from air, can achieve 99% of efficiency

A

Baghouse filters

139
Q

Three methods to eliminate VOCs from air

A

Absorption, Adsorption, Combustion (afterburner)

140
Q

The principal source of poor indoor air quality

A

Inadequate ventilation

141
Q

Sick Building Syndrome

A

situations in which building occupants experience acute health and comfort effects that appear to be linked to time spent in a building, but no specific illness or cause can be identified.

142
Q

____ escapes from the ground into the air, where it decays and produces further radioactive particles. As we breathe, these particles are deposited on the cells lining the airways, where they can damage DNA and potentially cause lung cancer.

A

Radon

143
Q

____ is the most common building-related illness and it is a serious type of pneumonia (lung infection) caused by Legionella (LEE-juh-nell-a) bacteria. People can get sick when they breathe in small droplets of water or accidently swallow water containing Legionella into the lungs.

A

Legionnaires’ disease

144
Q

The dirty water from a wet scrubber is clean and recycled back to the scrubber

A

False

145
Q

The primary federal law in the United States governing water pollution by requiring U.S. states to set clean water standards to protect uses such as swimming, fishing, and drinking, and for the regulation of pollution discharges.

A

Clean Water Act

146
Q

Polluted surface water generated from rain and snowmelt events that flow over land or impervious surfaces, such as paved streets, parking lots, and building rooftops, that does not soak into the ground. The water picks up pollutants like trash, chemicals, oils, and dirt or sediment that can harm rivers, streams, lakes, and coastal waters.

A

Stormwater runoff

147
Q

___% of the earth is covered by water, but only ___% is available for human consumption

A

70%
1%

148
Q

The Clean Water Act was passed in ___, after the Ohios’s Cuyahoga River caught in fire.

A

1972

149
Q

The Clean Water Act states that any discharge in US waters is illegal unless there is a permit, and includes the ____ which is a _____ that ____

A

National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
Permit program that establish limits of pollutants discharged by a source

150
Q

Which is reported to be the leading cause of water quality problems?

A

Non-point sources

151
Q

How to reduce the effects of stormwater runoff?

A

Limiting the paved surfaces created during development and preserving natural vegetation

152
Q

Any land which the local authority determines to be in one or more of the following conditions: where significant harm is being caused; where there is a high probability of significant harm being caused; where there is significant pollution of controlled waters; or, where there is a high probability of significant pollution of controlled waters.

A

Contaminated land

153
Q

A category of contaminated land that include property where expansion, redevelopment, or reuse may be complicated by the presence or potential presence of a hazardous substance, pollutant, or contaminant.

A

Brownfields

154
Q

Directive 2008/98/EC

A

The European Union directive on waste framework that includes a five-step waste hierarchy: reduction, reuse, recycling, recovery, and disposal.

155
Q

five-step waste hierarchy:

A

Reduction
Reuse
Recycle
Recover
Disposal

156
Q

RCRA Cleanup Sites

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Contaminated land sites that require cleanup due to past or current treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous materials or wastes and historical releases of contamination.

157
Q

Superfund National Priorities List sites, which are seriously contaminated. These include industrial facilities and waste management sites, such as abandoned weapons production plants; and military industrial sites such as those used for aircraft and naval ship maintenance.

A

Priority Sites

158
Q

Steps in a sewage treatment plan

A
  1. Screen
  2. Grit chamber (cinders, sand, small stones settle to the bottom)
  3. Secondary stage: bacteria, 85% of removal organic material
  4. Sedimentation tank, disinfected with chlorine
159
Q

Tricking filters and activated sludge process

A

They types of secondary treatment for sewage

160
Q

Untreated sewage contain ____, ____, _____

A

Salmonella, hepatitis, dysentery

161
Q

RCRA

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

162
Q

What is similar to RCRA?

A

The European Landfill Directive

163
Q

Types of contaminated sited according US regulations

A
  • Priority sites (Superfund National Priority Sites)
  • RCRA Cleanup Sites (underground storage tank, accidental spill sites)
  • Brownfields
164
Q

Five Step Waste Hierarchy from 2008/98/EC

A

Reduce, reuse, recycle, recovery, landfill

165
Q

Methods of on-site land remediation

A

Bioremediation
Chemical treatment
Air sparging
Soil vapor extraction
Dual phase extraction

166
Q

Difference between air sparging and soil pavor extraction

A

SVE extracts vapors from the soil above the water table by applying a vacuum to pull the vapors out. Air sparging, on the other hand, pumps air underground to help extract vapors from groundwater and wet soil found beneath the water table.

167
Q

Difference between air sparging and soil pavor extraction

A

SVE extracts vapors from the soil above the water table by applying a vacuum to pull the vapors out. Air sparging, on the other hand, pumps air underground to help extract vapors from groundwater and wet soil found beneath the water table.

168
Q

Examples of ex-situ or off-site land remediation techniques

A

Contaminated soil excavation
Incineration
Groundwater pump and treat

169
Q

these facilities provide temporary storage and final treatment or disposal for hazardous wastes, and establish generic facility management standards, specific provisions governing hazardous waste management units, and additional precautions designed to protect soil, ground water and air resources.

A

Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facilities (TSDF)

170
Q

Using microorganisms, in the absence of oxygen, to transform organic constituents and nitrogen-containing compounds into oxygen and methane gas.

A

Anaerobic treatment

171
Q

Using oxygen-requiring microorganisms to decompose organic and non-metallic constituents into carbon dioxide, water, nitrates, sulfates, simpler organic products, and cellular biomass.

A

Aerobic treatment

172
Q

A subset of solid waste defined as waste generated by manufacturing or industrial processes that are not a hazardous waste.

A

Industrial Waste

173
Q

Solid Waste includes

A

Garbage, refuse and industrial wastes

174
Q

Municipal Waste

A

Includes durable and non-durable goods, and it is a subset of solid waste

175
Q

Solid waste treatment strategies

A

Physical treatment
Chemical treatment
Combustion
Landfill (last)

176
Q

HAZWOPER

A

Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard

177
Q

A framework that goes beyond traditional measures of profits, returns on investment and shareholder value to include environmental and social dimensions, which is also commonly called the three Ps: people, planet, and profits

A

Triple Bottom Line

178
Q

the most widely used green building rating system in the world. Available for virtually all building, community and home projects, this rating system provides a framework to create healthy, highly efficient, and cost-saving green buildings.

A

LEED: Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design

179
Q

Inflammation or irritation of the thick fibrous cords that attach muscle to bone.

A

Tendonitis

180
Q

A common condition that causes pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. The condition occurs when one of the major nerves to the hand — the median nerve — is squeezed or compressed as it travels through the wrist.

A

Carpel Tunnel Syndrome

181
Q

Inflammation of the sheath, or synovium, that surrounds the two tendons that run between the wrist and the thumb. Also known as “gamekeeper’s thumb”.

A

De Quervian’s Disease

182
Q

Common MSD

A

Musculoskeletal Diseases
- Carpel Tunnel Syndrome
- Trigger Finger
- Toracic Outlet Compression
- Herniated/ruptured discs
- De Querevian’s DIsease

183
Q

Most frequent parts of the body affected by MSD

A

Back and arms

184
Q

Larger compensation in work is due to ____

A

Back injury

185
Q

Leading injury category in manufacturing environment

A

Back sprains and strains

186
Q

Tendonitis, tenosynovitis, Quervain’s desease, trigger finger, carpal tunnel syndrome are the ___

A

most common deseases associated with the musculoskeletal disorders associated with the arms

187
Q

Ganglion cyst

A

They are lumps that most commonly develop in the wrist. They’re typically round or oval and are filled with a jellylike fluid. Ganglion cysts are lumps that most often appear along the tendons or joints of wrists or hands. They also can occur in ankles and feet.

188
Q

Bursa

A

The bursa is a small sac filled with lubricating fluid present in joints of the body. They are usually found in the synovial joints, between the tendons and bones. The major joints (e.g. knee joint) can have several bursae, and there are up to 160 bursae present in the human body.

189
Q

Bursitis

A

Inflammation of the bursa

190
Q

____ is inflammation of the protective sheath (the synovial membrane) that surrounds your tendons. It can be painful and make it hard to move your joints like you usually can.

A

Tenosynoitis

191
Q

Repetitive extension and flexion of the wrist is associated with___

A

Tenosynovitis

192
Q

Stress on the body that causes symptoms such as rapid heart rate, blood flow changes, loss of peripheral vision, illusions of motion, loss of fine motor control, and unconsciousness.

A

Physiological stress

193
Q

Stress and strains on bones, muscles, and tendons due to work that is awkward, repetitive, or otherwise ergonomically challenging for workers.

A

Biomechanical stress

194
Q

Circadian rythme

A

A circadian rhythm, or circadian cycle, is a natural, internal process that regulates the sleep–wake cycle and repeats roughly every 24 hours

195
Q

____; injuries caused by repeated motions performed in the course of normal work or daily activities.

A

Cumulative Trauma Disorders

196
Q

Stress that occurs when part of your body rubs against a component of the workstation, such as the chair seat pan or edge of the desk. Nerves may be irritated or blood vessels constricted as a result

A

Contact stress

197
Q

Positions of the body that deviate significantly from the neutral position while performing work activities.

A

Awkward posture

198
Q

Which is an example of a worker carrying a heavy load on their shoulders and neck?

A

Contact stress

199
Q

A component of a fall protection system that is attached to the structure that supports the load (anchorage) and functions as an interface between the anchorage and the worker, for the purpose of coupling the system to the anchorage. These connectors must be capable of withstanding a 5,000 lb load and be attached to only one personal fall arrest system, unless they are certified for more than one worker.

A

Anchorage connector

200
Q

A type of hazard that exists when the anchor is not located directly above the employee. The danger of this pendulum type fall is that the employee may strike an object and the total fall distance increases due to the arc.

A

Swing-fall hazard

201
Q

The anchorage must be maintained ____ degrees or less over head the worker to reduce swaing-fall

A

15º

202
Q

Eyebolt

A

An eye bolt is a bolt with a loop at one end. They are used to firmly attach a securing eye to a structure, so that ropes or cables may then be tied to it.

203
Q

_____; fall protection device that immediately stops a fall and is typically attached to the D-ring of a worker’s safety harness. This device is designed to be placed above the workers head and - In the event of a fall - an inertial breaking mechanism locks into place and prevents the user from falling more than a few inches.

A

Self-Retracting Lifeline or Lanyard

204
Q

Rings of a trapezoidal or oval-shaped body used to quickly and reversibly connect components.

A

Carabiners

205
Q

Hook-shaped metal bodies with a self-closing gate. They are opened to receive an object, and when released, automatically close to retain the object.

A

Snaphooks

206
Q

A flexible rope, wire rope, or strap which generally has a connector at each end for connecting the body belt or body harness to a deceleration device, lifeline, or anchorage point.

A

Lanyard

207
Q

Integral connectors used with harnesses, lanyards, energy absorbers, lifelines and anchorage connectors. These connecting components of a body harness must be able to withstand a tensile load of 5,000 lbs.

A

D-rings and O-rings

208
Q

SRL

A

Self-Retracting Lifeline

209
Q

When selecting a lanyard ensure the length is as long as necessary for the work situation and allows mobility and working convenience.

A

False

210
Q

A vertical lifelines can be ____

A

Wire and synthetic

211
Q

Hierarchy of rescue

A

Elimination (- risk)
Planned rescue
Response rescue (+ risk)

212
Q

Preparation time for a planned rescue has ___ risk level.

A

Medium

213
Q

Self-rescue has a lower risk than assisted rescue due to less people being involved in the rescue.

A

False

214
Q

A rescuer that is designated by the employer, have training, knowledge and experience in rescue, perform or assist in workplace rescue, verify rescue procedures are in place, inspect rescue equipment, and have training to recognize dangers during rescue operations.

A

Authorized rescuer

215
Q

A type of fall rescue where the risk is high, because you won’t know if the fallen worker will be capable of rescuing themselves, resources required are low, preparation time is low, and execution time is low to medium.

A

Fall self-rescue

216
Q

Engaging an outside rescue resource after the event has occurred. This could be by calling a local fire department or by engaging a specialist in rope or high angle resc

A

Response rescue

217
Q

Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment to safely gain access to and remove victims from hazardous areas with limited access such as mountains, high rise buildings, or above or below grade structures by means of a rope system.

A

High angle ropes rescue

218
Q

Using a ladder or an aerial lift for fall rescue, thus reducing the risk to ‘low’ but increasing the resources required from low to ‘medium’. Preparation time and execution time for this type of rescue are both low to medium.

A

Assisted fall rescue

219
Q

A rescuer that is designated by the employer, have training, knowledge and experience in rescue and be capable of implementing, supervising and monitoring the employer’s fall protection rescue program.

A

Competent rescuer

220
Q

250 lbs maximum; heavy industrial ladder.

A

Type I ladder

221
Q

225 lbs maximum; medium duty commercial ladder.

A

Type II ladder

222
Q

300 lbs maximum; extra heavy duty industrial ladder.

A

Tipe IA ladder

223
Q

Lifting equation: which variable determines “is the weight too heavy for the task?”

A

The Recommended Weight Limit (RWL)

224
Q

Lifting equation: which variable determines “how significant is the risk?” and what is the formula?

A

The Lifting Index (LI)
LI = Weight of the Load / RWL

225
Q

Niosh Lifting Equation

A

LC (51) * HM * VM * DM * AM * FM * CM = RWL
- LC: Load Constant
- HM: Horizontal multiplier
- VM: Vertical multiplier
- DM: Distance multiplier
- AM: Asymmetric multiplier (angle of how far an object is displaced from the front of the worker’s body)
- FM: Frequency multiplier (average number of lifts/min over a 15 min period)
- CM: Coupling measure (goof, fair, poor)

226
Q

Three-tiered in lifting duration

A

Short: less than 1 hour
Moderate: 1 to 2 hours
Long: 2 to 8 hours

227
Q

A tool used to evaluate the exposure of individual workers to ergonomic risk factors associated with upper extremity MSD.

A

RULA
Rapid Upper Limb Assessment

228
Q

A tool to evaluate whole body postural MSD risks.

A

REBA
Rapid Entire Body Assessment

229
Q

A programme, process or investigation. implemented to identify, analyse, evaluate and prioritise any risk from exposure to. ergonomic risks associated with the workplace.

A

Ergonomic Risk Assessment (ERA)

230
Q

In ergonomic evaluation, which method is based on psychophysical measures and which one in bio mechanical measures?

A

psychophysical: Liberty Mutual / Snook Tables
biomechanical: Niosh Lifting Equation

231
Q

The ___ generally called the “Snook Tables” was developed at Liberty Mutual Insurance Company and is described in Snook, S. H. and Ciriello, V. M., “The design of manual handling tasks: revised tables of maximum acceptable weights and forces”, Ergonomics, 34,9,1991.

A

Hazard Analysis Tool

232
Q

___ is a tool designed to help assess repetitive tasks involving the upper limbs. It assesses some of the common risk factors in repetitive work that contribute to the development of upper limb disorders.

A

The Assessment of Repetitive Tasks (ART)

233
Q

___ is a tool designed to help assess repetitive tasks involving the upper limbs. It assesses some of the common risk factors in repetitive work that contribute to the development of upper limb disorders.

A

The Assessment of Repetitive Tasks (ART)

234
Q

An interdisciplinary, individualized, job specific program of activity with the goal of return to work

A

Work Hardenning

235
Q

The zone for lifting is close to the body, between mid-thigh and mid-chest height.

A

Power Zone

236
Q

An iterative design process in which designers focus on the users and their needs in each phase of the design process. Design teams involve users throughout the design process via a variety of research and design techniques, to create highly usable and accessible products for them.

A

User-Centered design

237
Q

50 to 100 mm or (two to four inches) below elbow level.

A

Hand work height

238
Q

____ the process of moving or supporting an object by physical force. Pushing, pulling, lifting and carrying are all examples.

A

Manual Material Handling;

239
Q

A program that helps to evaluate a person’s physical, mental, and emotional level in accordance to the specific requirements of a job.

A

Fitness for duty

240
Q

Maximum weight to lift with two hands

A

51 lb

241
Q

In ergonomics, which is better: pushing or pulling?

A

Pushing

242
Q

To manual work, the height below the elbow must be:
- Light work:…
- Heavy work:…

A

4 to 6 inches
6 to 15 inches

243
Q

The best tools are the ones that weight less than…

A

1 kg or 2.2 lbs

244
Q

___ are the best choice for vertical works and ___ tools for horizontal tasks

A

Pistol-grip tools
In-line tools

245
Q

As a general rule, work height should be ___ for light work and ___ for heavy work

A
  • higher
  • lower
246
Q

Computer station: work surface must be ___ hight for seated work

A

25 - 34 in

247
Q

Measures of computer seated work

A
248
Q

Recommended temperature for office work

A

20 - 26 ºC (68 - 78ºF)

249
Q

What are the conclusions of a medical report ?

A

Fit
Unfit
Fit, subject to work modifications

250
Q

____typically ask individuals to perform job-related tasks requiring manual labor or physical skill. These tasks measure physical abilities such as strength, muscular flexibility, and stamina.

A

Physical ability tests (PAT)

251
Q

Work Hardening

A

It is an individualized, highly-structured program designed to help patients return to their pre-injury work level in a safe and timely manner.

252
Q

Changes as the workers age

A
  • Physical
  • Physiological
  • Psychological
253
Q

MMH

A

Manual Material Handling

254
Q

Distribution of brightness in the visual environment

A

Lighting

ASP (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions