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ASP > 30. Metrics / 31. Security / 32. Trucks / 33. Project Management / 34. Radiation / 35. Risk Management / 36. Scaffolding / 37. Substance Abuse / 38. Training & Education / 39. Ventilation > Flashcards

30. Metrics / 31. Security / 32. Trucks / 33. Project Management / 34. Radiation / 35. Risk Management / 36. Scaffolding / 37. Substance Abuse / 38. Training & Education / 39. Ventilation Flashcards

1
Q

Types of metrics

A

Leading indicators: activity based measures

Lagging indicators: records and trends

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2
Q

Must-relation between lagging and leading indicators

A

Each leading indicator must correspond to a lagging indicator so that the actions can be successfully measured by the outcome.

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3
Q

Features of an objective or indicators

A

Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Relevant
Time-bounded

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4
Q

DART Rate

A

Cases that requires Days Away, Restricted (duty) or (job) Transferred
DART = (Number of DART cases x 200,000) / (Employee hours worked)

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5
Q

Total Recordable Incident Rate (TRIR)

A

TRIR = (Number of injuries x 200,000) / (Employee hours worked)

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6
Q

Severity Measure

A

SM = (Days Away from Work x 200,000) / (Employee hours worked)

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7
Q

Cost of Losses

A

CL = Days away * worked hours/day * salary/hour

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8
Q

Which approach provides amore accurate, comprehensive picture of an organization’s safety and health performance?

A

The balanced approach.

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9
Q

What is a Experience Modification Rate? How is it calculated?

A

It is a factor that the National Council on Compensation Insurance utilize to make insurance premium adjustments to companies because it measures the loss experience trough the 3 previous years. The formula is:
EMR = Actual Claims / Expected Claims
EMR < 1 : company has less losses than the industry standard
EMR = 1: company has equal losses than the industry standard
EMR > 1; company hasta greater losses than the industry standard. Prime is increased.
Also called: e-mod, MOD-rate, experience rating, Mod-factor.

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10
Q

Lost time injury frequency rate

A

LTIFR = (Number of lost time injuries x 10^6) / (Total hours worked)

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11
Q

Fleet Safety lagging indicators (4)

A

Nº incidents / Nº vehicles
Nº incidents / 10^6 miles driven
Nº incidents / 10^3 deliveries
Nº incidents / 10^3 service loads

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12
Q

Leading indicators (4)

A

Management involvement: Nº safety meeting with management / Nº safety meetings

Risk assessments: Nº assessments / Nº of Risks Identified

Risk reduction:
Current Risk Score / Previous Risk Score -1

Employee engagement:
Nº Employees Involved in Safety / Total Number of Employees

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13
Q

CPTED Principles

A
  1. Natural surveillance
  2. Natural access control
  3. Territorial reinforcement
  4. Maintenance & management
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14
Q

physical security effectiveness (5)

A
  1. vulnerability identification
  2. security mesures
  3. access control
  4. lessons learned
  5. protection measures
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15
Q

PIT

A

Power industrial trucks

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16
Q

PIT classes

A

I: electric motor riders (indoors, smooth floors)
II: electric motor narrow aisle trucks (warehouses, reach trucks, order pickers)
III: electric motor hand trucks (pallet truck)
IV: internal combustion trucks (usually liquid propane, indoor tires)
V: internal combustion trucks (usually liquid propane, gasoline, natural gas, outdoor tires)
VI: electric and internal combustion tractors (tuggers or tow tractors). These tow the load, indoor and outdoor use.
VII: rough terrain PIT trucks (construction sites or heavy industry)

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17
Q

Hazards of PIT (5)

A
  • Overturns
  • Crushed-by
  • Struck-by
  • Fall
  • Atmospheric hazards
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18
Q

How frequently must a PIT operator be evaluated in the USA?

A

Each three years.

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19
Q

PIT safety program components (3)

A

Worker training, operator qualification, program review, inspection and maitenance

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20
Q

Inspection pre-operation of PIT (5)

A
  • Fluid levels (oil, water, hydraulic fluid)
  • Leaks, cracks, defects
  • Tire pressure and tire cuts
  • Condition of the forks
  • Safety decals and nameplates
  • Safety devices
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21
Q

What information contains a PIT nameplate?

A

Type and model of vehicle, weight, combustible, capacity, load center, height.

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22
Q

When a PIT is unattended?

A
  • PIT is not in the view of operator
  • PIT operator is 25 feet or more away
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23
Q

Stability Triangle

A

Almost all counter-balance industrial trucks are supported at three points:
pivot pin in the axle’ center of rear part, connected to the two front wheels. The gravity center must be inside the stability triangle.

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24
Q

Iterative phases of a project

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Planning and design
  3. Execution
  4. Monitoring and control
  5. Completion
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25
Q

If project is approved, the initiation document (charter) is elaborated, which contains…

A
  • Purpose and scope
  • Business needs
  • Stakeholders
  • Objectives and outcomes
  • Resources for the project
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26
Q

Tool to clarify activities in a project

A

RACI
Responsible
Accountable
Consulted
Informed

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27
Q

Planning & design activities

A

Development of scope
Work breakdown structure
Timelines and budget
Risks
Stakeholders and objective

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28
Q

When is celebrated the kick-off meeting?

A

At the beginning of the execution phase.

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29
Q

Keys of stop work authority

A
  • Senior management commitment
  • Worker recognition and empowerment
  • Trust between management and workers
  • Defined procedures and expectations
  • Publicizing examples
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30
Q

PDCA cycle - activities

A

Plan:
- Policy, Objectives, Resources
Do:
- Processes, Training, Prevention
Check:
- Inspection, Audit, Verification
Act:
- Preventive actions, Corrective Actions, Continual Improvement

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31
Q

OHS Management Systems (2)

A
  • ANSI Z-10 (USA)
  • ISO 45001 (Globally)
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32
Q

A document shows how the project estimate was developed, and includes labor, travel, contractors, tools, equipment, and materials. The cost estimating method will depend on the level of information, and should include potential risks and contingency funds, as needed.

A

Basis of estimate

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33
Q

Radiation Spectrum

A

Non-Ionizing
- Extremely Los Frequencies (ELF)
- Radio waves
- Microwaves
- Infrared
- Visible light
- Ultraviolet

Ionizing
- Ultraviolet
- X-rays
- Gamma rays

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34
Q

Types of ionizing radiation and penetration (in order)

A

Alpha (least)
Beta
X-ray
Gamma
Neutron (greater)

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35
Q

Energy, frequency, wavelengths of ionizing and non-ionizing radiation

A

NIR: Low energy, low frequency, longer wavelengths
IR: higher energy, higher frequency, shorter wavelegths

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36
Q

Power lines, electrical wiring and electrical equipment are examples of ____ radiation

A

Extremely low frequencies (ELF)

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37
Q

What are lasers? Meaning of the word

A

They are a mix of Infrared, visible and UV frequencies.
Light Amplification Stimulated Emission Radiation.

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38
Q

Which are the most dangerous UV radiation?

A

The UV-C since it has shorter wavelengths. Nevertheless, it is filtered completely by the atmosphere.

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39
Q

Which UV radiation reach earth and what is their penetration into skin? What are they effects?

A

UV-A (95%) - reach dermis. Immediate tanning effect.
UV-B (almost all is filtered by atmosphere) - reach epidermis (outer skin lay). Delayed tanning and burning of skin.

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40
Q

Classification of LASERs

A

Class 1. Safe. Laser printers, barcode scanners, CD/DVD devices.
Class 2. Safe for accidental exposure (<25 sec). Laser pointers, aiming devices.
Class 3. Not safe, low and high risk (diffusion reflection is safe). Laser pointers, scanners, spectrometry, entertainment light shows
Class 4. Not safe, even its reflection. Surgery, cutting, welding, industrial machining. Fire risk.

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41
Q

Foundational safety principle of radiation.

A

ALARA As Low As Reasonably Achievable
It has the follow principles:
- Reducing the amount of the source
- Containing the source
- Minimizing time exposed to the source
- Maximizing distance
- Using shielding
- Optimizing resources to offer protection to employees and other end users

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42
Q

Three general guidelines to control exposure to ionizing radiation

A

Minimizing exposure time
Maximizing distance from source
Shielding

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43
Q

Objects that can stop ionizing radiations (4)

A

Alpha: paper
Beta: Aluminium
Gamma: Lead
Neutrons: Concrete/Water

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44
Q

High-speed nuclear particles and - of the five types of ionizing radiation. These are the only type of ionizing radiation particles that can make objects radioactive.

A

Neutrons

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45
Q

A meter that detects the presence of radiation only and does not measure a dose received.

A

Geiger counter

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46
Q

Charged particles, which are emitted from naturally occurring materials - such as uranium, thorium, and radium -, and man-made elements -such as plutonium and americium. These particles are particularly dangerous if inhaled, ingested, or if they enter a wound. They are easily blocked by a sheet of paper, skin, or even a few inches of air.

A

Alpha particles

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47
Q

Effect of a radiation depends on a combination of (3)

A

Intensity
Length of exposure
Sensitivity of organs or person

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48
Q

REM

A

Roentgen Equivalent Man, correlate the dose of a radiation to the biological effect of it.

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49
Q

On average human being receive yearly ___ rem.

A

0.62

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50
Q

What USA institution defines the safe radiation exposure level?

A

US Nuclear Regulatory Commision

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51
Q

Which is the maximum radiation for a worker yearly?

A

5 rem

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52
Q

Radioactivity units

A

Becquerel (Bg) (SI unit)
Curie (Ci) = 3.7 x 10^10 Bg

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53
Q

Units that measure the absorbed dose of a radioactive substance in a unit of mass of matter being irradiated (2)

A

Grays: 1 Gy = 1 J / Kg

Rads (Roentgen Absorbed Dose): 1 rad = 0.01 Gy

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54
Q

Units of dose equivalent

A

rems or Sieverts
1 Sv = 100 rem

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55
Q

ANSI/ASSP/ISO 31000

A

Risk management – Guidelines
American National Standards Institute
American Society of Safety Professionals
International Organization for Standardization

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56
Q

A small pager-like devices that measure radiation and alert the wearer to the presence of radiation as quickly as possible. These detectors have very fast response times and display a measurement of the radiation dose rate.

A

Personal Radiation Detector

57
Q

he thickness of a shielding material required to reduce the intensity of radiation to one half of its original intensity.

A

Half Value Layer

58
Q

The approximate radioactive activity of one gram of radium 226.

A

Curie

59
Q

The maximum time to be spent in the radiation environment or the dose divided by the dose rate.

A

Stay time

60
Q

The effect of uncertainty on objectives, a deviation from expected, both negative and positive

A

Risk

61
Q

Risks that only cause negative consequences

A

Pure Risk (insurable risks)

62
Q

Risks that can have positive consequences (e.g. investing, generally in finances)

A

Speculative risks (non-insurable risks)

63
Q

Manage risk by reducing likelihood and severity of an exposure.

A

Control

64
Q

ANSI / ASSP Z590.3

A

Prevention Through Design Standard

65
Q

Provide a method to categorize combinations of probability of occurrence and. severity of harm, thus establishing risk level

A

Risk Matrices

66
Q

What is the first step in risk management

A

Define the purpose, scope and risk criteria of risk management

67
Q

Describe the hazard triangle (3)

A
  1. Hazardous element
  2. Causes, triggers and failures modes
  3. Exposed target and consequences
68
Q

Risk assessment is a ___ step process. Mention them.

A

Three.
1. Hazard identification.
2. Risk analysis.
3. Risk evaluation & treatment

69
Q

____ a structured approach to discovering potential failures that may exist within the design of a product or process. Failure modes are the ways in which a process can fail. Effects are the ways that these failures can lead to waste, defects or harmful outcomes for the customer.

A

FMEA: Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

70
Q

___ a structured and systematic study of a more complex operation used to identify and analyze hazards and operational problems.

A

HAZOP: Hazard and Operability Analysis

71
Q

A top-down model that traces the failure pathways from a predetermined, undesirable event, called the top event

A

Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)

72
Q

___ is a Root Cause Analysis technique that uses the precise specification of a single deviation (problem or adverse event) so that changes and/or differences (potential causal factors) can be found by comparison to closely related un-deviated situations.

A

Change analysis

73
Q

A team-based hazard analysis method that asks ‘what if’ to identify deviations and analyze hazards of a system or process and requires a team, knowledgeable of the process, to review and question potential failures.

A

What-If Analysis

74
Q

Difference between hazard and risk analysis

A
75
Q

Methods to determine probability

A
  1. Review of data
  2. Predictive type analysis (FTA)
  3. Expert driven process
76
Q

____ is used as a release of liability in a contract that protects one party from injury or property damage caused by another party. By signing the clause, the other party is agreeing not to hold business owners legally responsible for the risks involved in certain services.

A

A hold harmless clause, indemnity agreement or non-insurance contracts

77
Q

ALARP

A

As Low As Reasonable Practicable

78
Q

Application of engineering and management principles, criteria and techniques to achieve acceptable risk.

A

System safety

79
Q

Distance of scaffolds from electric power lines

A

At least 10 feet

80
Q

Scaffolds must be designed by a ____ person, and inspected, tag, supervise (erection, dismantling, altering) by a ____ person.

A

Qualified person.
Competent person.

81
Q

Someone who has a recognized degree or certification, or has extensive knowledge, training, experience, and has the ability to solve problems related to the project.

A

Qualified person.

82
Q

A person that is designated by the employer as someone who “can identify hazardous working conditions and has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.”

A

Competent person.

83
Q

Maximum wind speed to use scissor lifts

A

28 miles per hour

84
Q

Types of supported scaffolds

A
  1. Frame and fabricated scaffold
  2. Tube and coupler scaffold
  3. Outrigger scaffold
  4. Bracket scaffold
  5. Rolling or tower scaffold
  6. Ladder jack scaffold
  7. System scaffold
  8. Scissor lifts
85
Q

In suspended scaffolds, outrigger beams must support at least ___ times the intended load.

A

Four

86
Q

In suspended scaffolds, suspended ropes and riggers must support at least ___ times the intended load.

A

Six

87
Q

Types of suspended scaffolds

A

Single point
Two point
Multiple point
Multi-level
boatswain chair
chimney hoist
elevator false car

88
Q

Types of aerial lifts

A

Boom supported elevating platform (cherry picker, boom truck, scissor lift)

89
Q

______ ______ must be used to level scaffolds on uneven surfaces.

A

Screw jacks

90
Q

Scaffold: Base plates must be nailed to the ____ on at least ____ opposite corners to prevent slippage.

A

Mud sills
Two

91
Q

The supporting capability of a scaffold. ¿unit?

A

Duty rating
lb / ft^2

92
Q

All scaffolds, either manufactured or constructed, are required to support ____ weight plus _____ times their maximum intended loads.

A

…their own weight plus four times ….

93
Q

Colors of tags on a scaffold

A

Green: safety use
Yellow: Special requirement
Red: Dangerous, not use

94
Q

How many scaffold duty ratings exist?

A

Three: light, medium, heavy duty.

95
Q

Workers must be trained by a person qualified in the subject matter of the scaffold in use. The scaffold user must be able to recognize the hazards associated with the scaffold and know how to control or minimize the hazards.

A

Scaffold user training

96
Q

Scaffold user training plus additional hazards associated with the scaffold to be erected or dismantled, the correct procedures for erecting, disassembling, moving, and maintaining the scaffold, the design criteria, maximum intended loads, and the intended use of the scaffold.

A

Erector and dismantler training

97
Q

a substance that affects the way the body functions.

A

Drug

98
Q

Signs of substance abuse

A
  • Absence without notice
  • Excessive sick days
  • Frequent disappearances
  • Unexplained long breaks
  • Missed appointments or deadlines
  • Frequent mistakes
  • Alternating productivity
  • Confusion or concentration issues
99
Q

Oxycodone, hydrocodone, codeine, heroin and fentanyl are usually prescribed for pain relieve. These are examples of…

A

Corticoids

100
Q

A pharmaceutical drug that legally requires a medical prescription to be dispensed.

A

Prescription drug

101
Q

Points to consider when establishing a drug and alcohol policy

A
  • Strict
  • Consequences
  • Employee treatment options
  • Alcohol at non-work activities
  • Mandatory drug test conditions
102
Q

Considerations for a drug testing program

A
  • Laws
  • Client requirements
  • Who will be selected
  • Types of testing (random, suspicious, post-event)
  • Consequences
103
Q

Also known as knowledge transfer - is best viewed as an active, dynamic process rather than a passive end-product of a particular set of learning experiences.

A

Knowledge integration

104
Q

This is more about teaching or learning a broad set of skills that workers need, to be able to apply their knowledge if they want to thrive and work safely every day.

A

Education

105
Q

This traditionally is concerned with specific skills and shorter time frames. For example, how to perform lock out tag out procedures, or how to handle specific work tasks.

A

Training

106
Q

Six laws of learning

A
  • Readiness
  • Effect
  • Exercise
  • Primacy
  • Intensity
  • Recency
107
Q

This is based on the idea of what is learned first is usually remembered. This can be a problem if someone has been taught the wrong way to perform a duty or task the first time. Such situations require re-training the individual with the correct information to override this.

A

Law of primacy

108
Q

This is concerned with tapping into prior experiences of your adult learners. According to this theory, adult learners differ from young learners in the following six ways:
* Need for Knowledge - Adults need to know “why” they should learn – or the purpose of the knowledge and how it is going to help them.
* Motives - “What’s-in-it-for-them”. Better opportunities, safer working conditions, recognition and improved status among peers and leaders. Willingness - Readiness to learn comes from perceiving the relevance of the knowledge.
* Foundation or Experience - Access experiences to help them make connections, perceive relevance, and derive inspiration.
* Self-Direction - Adults tend to be self-directed individuals who want to take charge of the learning journey. They want to feel in control.
* And last, Orientation to Learning - Adults learn best when they “apply knowledge.” They find relevance in task-oriented learning, which they can match with their workplace realities.

A

Andragogy

109
Q

This is learning that deals with finding the “Wow!” moment – which is the point in a training program where the material is transformed into something useful to the learner. The “Wow” depends on three key items:
* The Identification of a Crisis - Realizing we have been holding on to wrong beliefs or that we have a knowledge-gap should be the cue to discover information or review our mindsets and thought patterns.
* The Establishment of Relevance - Let your learners know the training relevancy. Adult learners are motivated to learn when they can envision the results of their efforts.
* And Critical Thinking – the trainer must create opportunities for critical thinking, which is analyzing the facts to form a judgement, to encourage learners to re-examine their beliefs and attitudes.

A

Transformational Learning

110
Q

ADDIE

A

Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation; a dynamic, flexible model for building effective training and supportive teaching and learning tools.

111
Q

This means the more vivid, real or intense the materials, the more likely people will learn and retain the information. Making training more interesting, while respecting the culture and the learners will help increase learning opportunities.

A

Law of intensity

112
Q

This is learning, which is the process through which learners develop knowledge, skills, and values from direct experiences outside the formal classroom or training environment. This learning involves these four concepts:
* A Concrete Experience - Kinesthetic learning or learning by encouraging physical actions, things like, taking notes of some forms virtual reality training, and learning that evokes strong emotional responses, such as realistic scenarios that reveal cause and effect relationships create powerful experiences that are not easily forgotten.
* Reflective Observation - Adults need to engage with and reflect on their experiences to glean insights and acquire knowledge. Create opportunities for “watching” the action, like demonstrations, and “analyzing” processes and procedures (such as scenario-driven activities and case studies).
* Abstract Conceptualization - Design assessments to encourage learners to exercise their “critical thinking” abilities, so they can formulate concepts and procedures.
* And finally, Active Experimentation - Role-playing activities, mock audits, and other hands-on tasks let learners apply the training. Active experimentation leads to strengthened experiences, and the cycle of experiential learning continues.

A

Experiential Learning

113
Q

Characteristics of adult learners

A
  • Relevance
  • Self-concept (self-decisions, offering choices in learning methods and activities)
  • Experience
  • Readiness
  • Orientation (real life application)
  • Motivation (adequate environment)
114
Q

Connect what they are learning to a value in their job or their life. ____ means they have the experience and knowledge to connect the new information to what they already know.

A

Readiness

115
Q

Also called a gap analysis, is used to determine the needed knowledge, skills, and abilities and existing gaps in these areas.

A

Needs analysis

116
Q

Learning objectives statements

A
  • Action word
  • Learning statement
  • Statement of the criterion
    Describe confined spaces in the refinery with a 100% accuracy.
117
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy for developing training

A
  1. Before you understand a concept, you first must remember it
  2. Before you apply a concept, you first must understand it
  3. In order to evaluate a process, you first analyze it
  4. In orden to create a accurate conclusion, you must completed a thorough evaluation
118
Q

Bloom’s Pyramid

A

Remember
Understand
Apply
Analyze
Evaluate
Create

119
Q

Six by six rule

A

This means to use no more than six bullets per slide with up to six words each.

120
Q

This is the classification of the different objectives and skills. This has six levels of learning. These 6 levels can be used to structure the learning objectives, lessons, and assessments in a course.

A

Bloom’s taxonomy

121
Q

Kirpatrick evaluation model

A

Level 1: Reaction (opinion about new knowledge)
Level 2: Learning (pre and post tests)
Level 3: Behavior (observation on job)
Level 4: Results (degree of accomplishment of the goal)

122
Q

Types of ventilation (3)

A
  1. Natural ventilation
  2. General/dilution ventilation
  3. Local exhaust ventilation
123
Q

Stack effect and reverse stack effect

A

Natural cool air ingress to building by lower openings and egress by openings on the roof (warmer areas).
In warmer climates, warmth air ingress by higher openings and exists by lower openings (cooler areas).

124
Q

Methods to produce general ventilation

A
  1. Natural drafts
  2. Thermal gradients
  3. Mechanical means
125
Q

Air Change Rate (formula)

A

ACR = Q x 60 / V

ACR: air changes per hour
Q: air flow, cfm
V: volume of the room

126
Q

For human comfort, a minimum of ___ air changes per hour is typical

A

4 air changes per hour

127
Q

Ventilation method used to reduce employee exposure to airborne contaminants, such as dust, mist, fume, vapor, or gases, in the workplace by capturing harmful emissions at their source.

A

Local exhaust ventilation

128
Q

Hoods designed to “receive” the emissions from a source that has some initial velocity or movement. An example is a canopy hood located over a melting furnace

A

receiving hood

129
Q

Hoods located next to an emission source without surrounding or enclosing it. Examples are a rectangular hood, along the edge of a tank, a hood on a welding station or grinding bench table, or a downdraft hood for a hand grinding bench.

A

capturing hood

130
Q

Hoods that surround the process or point where the contaminants are generated. Examples are glove boxes and grinder hoods.

A

enclosing hood

131
Q

Capture velocity

A

It is the air velocity in front of the hood that is necessary to catch and convey airborne contaminants into an exhaust ventilation system.

132
Q

Principle of ventilation

A

Required airflow rates vary with the squared of the distance from the source

133
Q

Capture velocity

A
134
Q

When a contaminant is released a there is no other air currents in the room, the recommended capture velocity is____

A

100 fpm or 0.5 m/s

135
Q

Volumetric Flow Rate (formula)

A
136
Q

Velocity Pressure (formula)

A

1 in w.g. = 248.84 Pa

137
Q

Thermal or hot wire anemometer

A

Measures air velocity in tight areas

138
Q

Rotating vane anemometer

A

Measures air velocity, volume and temperature at supply openings

ASP (8 decks)

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