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ASP > 6. Biological Hazards / 7. Business Principles / 8. Chemical Hazards / 9. Climate Conditions / 10. Communication & Group Dynamics / 11. Confined Spaces / 12. LOTO / 13. Cranes & Rigging > Flashcards

6. Biological Hazards / 7. Business Principles / 8. Chemical Hazards / 9. Climate Conditions / 10. Communication & Group Dynamics / 11. Confined Spaces / 12. LOTO / 13. Cranes & Rigging Flashcards

1
Q

Name the four business principles

A
  1. Cost benefit analysis
  2. Life cycle costs
  3. Net present value (NPV)
  4. Return on investment (ROI)
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2
Q

Which are insurable costs?

A

Direct costs are insurable.
Indirect costs aren’t.

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3
Q

Which is the relation between direct and indirect costs?

A

IC can be 1.1 to 4 times the DC

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4
Q

Net Benefits formula
(cost-benefit analysis)

A

Net Benefit = Benefit - Costs

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5
Q

Life cycle cost - stages

A
  1. Design concept
  2. Detailed design
  3. Purchase or install
  4. Operation and maintenance
  5. Decommission
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6
Q

Time Value of Money (formula)

A

F = P (1 + i )^n

P: present value of money (principle and investment interest)
F: future value of money (cost avoidance)
i: annual interest rate (APR)
n: period of time in years

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7
Q

Discount rate

A

A rate used to discount a future cash flow to its present value. Sometimes referred to as cost of capital.

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8
Q

In the USA, ____ publishes quarterly circular with prescribed discount rates for Federal Government use.

A

OMB: Office of Management and Budget.

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9
Q

Return on Investment (ROI) - formula

A

ROI = Net return / Cost of investment

ROI = (Gain of investment - Cost of investment) / Cost of investment

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10
Q

Cost of Loss (Illness)

A

Revenue Required = (Total Cost) / (% Profit Margin / 100)

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11
Q

Harmful biological agents (6)

A

Bacteria
Viruses
Parasites
Fungi
Allergens and toxins
Bites or stings

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12
Q

Bacterias and shapes

A

They are simple, one-celled organisms.
- Bacillus or rod-shaped
- Coccus or spherical
- Spirillum or twisted

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13
Q

Lyme disease
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Borrelia burgdorferi, transmited through a bacteria in the ticks.
  • It is needed that the tick was attached to he human body among 26 to 48 hours.
  • Outdoor activities.
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14
Q

Legionnarie’s desease and Pontiac fever
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Legionnela can grow in water if it is not properly maintained.
  • Health problem when small droplets are inhaled.
  • hospitals, hotels, cruiseships
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15
Q

Tuberculosis
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
  • Transmitted by air
  • Risk in hospitals, homeless shelters, correctional facilities, nursing homes
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16
Q

Brucelosis
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Brucella,
  • Passed among animals: sheep, goats, cattle, deer, elk, pigs and dogs. Humans get infected by contact with these animals or animal products.
  • Meet packing, livestock producers, veterinary, laboratory employees
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17
Q

Leptospirosis
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Genus leptospira
  • Transmitted by urine of infected animals which can get into water or soil, common in temperate or tropical climates
  • Outdoor workers or anyone who works with animals. Increased cases after hurricanes and floods, where people have to wade through contaminated water.
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18
Q

Tularemia, rabbit fever or deer fly fever
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Francisella tularensis bacterium
  • Tick and deer fly bites, skin contact with infected animals, drinking contaminated water, inhaling contaminated aerosols, agricultural and landscaping dust, lab exposure
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19
Q

Considered a possible bio terrorism threat

A

Tularemia, rabbit fever or deer fly fever

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20
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever

A
  • Tick bite.
  • Outdoor personnel, military personnel, rangers, foresters, ranchers, farmers, trappers, construction workers, lumber workers
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21
Q

Q Fever
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Coxiella Burnetti, natural in goats, sheep and cattle.
  • Breathing dust contaminated with feces, urine or milk, or after helping animals give birth.
  • Veterinarians, dairy farmers, ranchers, stock yard workers, meat processing personnel
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22
Q

Viruses

A

Tiny particle, smallest of all microbes. It reproduces infecting a host cell.

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23
Q

Hepatitis A, B & C
- Disease
- Transmission

A
  • All produce liver infection and desease
  • Hepatitis A: acute desease. Person to person through the fecal-oral routes or consumption of contaminated food or water.
  • Hepatitis B: through blood, semen or other bodily fluids enter into a uninfected person
  • Hepatitis C: transmitted through blood or bodily fluids with blood in them
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24
Q

What virus is covered in bloodborne pathogen standard?

A

Hepatitis B

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25
Q

Rabies
- Source
- Transmission
- Activities at risk

A
  • Disease of mammals, transmitted by the bite of a rabid animal.
  • Brain desease and death.
  • Racoons, skunks, bats and foxes
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26
Q

CDC

A

Center for Desease Control

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27
Q

Hantaviruses
- Source
- Transmission

A
  • dry droppings, urine or saliva of mice and rats
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28
Q

Avian influenza, avian or bird flu

A

Influenza type A normally found only in birds.

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29
Q

Parasite

A

Organism who lives in another organism called the host and often harms it.

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30
Q

Malaria
- Source
- Transmission

A

Mosquito-borne disease.
Common in tropical and subtropical countries,

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31
Q

Babesiosis
- Source
- Transmission

A

Microscopic parasites that infect red blood cells and are spread by certain ticks.

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32
Q

Toxoplasmosis
- Source
- Transmission

A

infection with the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, through eat or handling undercooked or contaminated meat.

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33
Q

Considered the lead cause of death attibuted to foodborne illnesses in the USA

A

Toxoplasmosis

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34
Q

One of the world’s most common parasites

A

Toxoplasma gondii parasite

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35
Q

Scabies
- Source
- Transmission

A

Infestation of the skin by the human itch mite. The scabies mite burrows into the upper layer of the skin where lives and lays eggs.

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36
Q

Fungi, types, production

A

Naturally occurring organisms and are essential in making organic matter decay
Mildew, molds, rusts and yeasts
Produces spores that are transported through the air

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37
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Fungus histoplasma capsulatum, which grow in soil particularly contaminated with bat or bird droppings
Affects the lungs

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38
Q

Aspergillosis

A

Aspirgillus (common mold), found in soil, plants and in decaying plant matter, also in household dust, building material and even in spices and some food items.
Particularly in persons with lung desease.

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39
Q

Candidiasis or thrush

A

Fungal infection of the Candida species.
Skin or mucus membrane infection, also can enter into de bloodstream.

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40
Q

Coccidioidomycosis or valley fever

A

Fungal desease caused by Coccidioides, found in soil of semi-arid areas.
People with exposure to dust are at more risk.

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41
Q

How is transmitted Zika virus, West Nile virus, dengue and malaria?

A

Through mosquito bites.

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42
Q

What are poison Ivy, Oak and Sumac?

A

Plant allergens and their related toxins

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43
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

It is an inflammation of the lungs due to breathing inorganic dusts, fungi or molds

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44
Q

OPIM

A

Other Potentially Infectious Materials

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45
Q

Farmer’s Lung

A

It is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis due to breath in dust from moldy hay.

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46
Q

Farmer’s Lung

A

It is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis due to breath in dust from moldy hay.

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47
Q

Examples of bloodborne pathogens in workplace

A

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, Human Immunodeciency Virus (HIV)

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48
Q

What scope has the exposure control plan (OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)

A
  • Engineer, work practice controls.
  • PPE.
  • Training.
  • Medical surveillance.
  • Vaccinations.
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49
Q

Tenet: “Universal Precautions”

A

Treatment of all human blood and OPIM as if they where infected with bloodborne pathogens.

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50
Q

Which vaccine must be available to workers exposed to bloodborne pathogens? (OSHA)

A

Hepatits B

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51
Q

Basic elements of a Biological Safety Program in a laboratory

A
  • SOP: standard operating procedures
  • Safety equipment
  • Facility design
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52
Q

Biological safety cabinets: classes (3)

A

Class 1: partially containment cabinet
Class 2: laminar flow cabinet
Class 3: gas-tight negative pressure cabinets (highest degree of worker protection)

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53
Q

HEPA filter

A

HEPA is a type of pleated mechanical air filter. It is an acronym for “high efficiency particulate air [filter]” (as officially defined by the U.S. Dept. of Energy). This type of air filter can theoretically remove at least 99.97% of dust, pollen, mold, bacteria, and any airborne particles with a size of 0.3 microns (µm).

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54
Q

Biosafety levels

A

Levels to isolate dangerous biological agents in a closed facility.
BSL-1 (lowest)
BSL-2
BSL-3
BSL-4 (highest)

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55
Q

Able or likely to shatter violently or burst apart.

A

Explosive

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56
Q

____ can be explosive, corrosive, and toxic and present extreme fire hazards.

A

Organic peroxides

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57
Q

What size of particles reach the alveolar sacs?

A

About 5 microns.

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58
Q

What is the dose response relationship?

A

Higher the dose, the more severe the response.

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59
Q

What is LD-50? What is LC-50?

A

It is lethal dosis, amount of material which causes the death of 50% of a group of tested animals. The route of ingress could be injection, absorption or by swallowing.
It is lethal concentration, it is the same of above but the route of ingress is inhalation.

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60
Q

Which are the organs most commonly affected by chemicals?

A

Liver, kidneys, nervous system (including heart), blood and reproductive system.

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61
Q

Types of chemicals that affect the human body

A
  1. Carcinogen
  2. Reproductive toxin
  3. Mutagen
  4. Teratogen: cause malformations or birth deffects when contact the mother
  5. Irritant
  6. Corrosive
  7. Sensitizer: causes allergic reaction on normal tissue after repeated exposure
  8. Asphyxiant: CO,
  9. Central nervous system depressant: causes simple anaesthetic effects. E.G. solvents
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62
Q

What is the Thalidomine?

A

It is an example of teratogen.

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63
Q

Classification of chemical by their effect to body systems and examples

A
  1. Hepatoxins: liver - Arsenic
  2. Nephrotoxins: kidneys - lead, halogenated hydrocarbons
  3. Neurotoxins: nervous system - carbon disulfide, hexane, lead, mercury
  4. Hemo/Hematoxins: decrease hemoglobin function and deprive body tissues of oxygen - Arsenic, benzene
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64
Q

Difference between irritant and allergic contact dermatitis

A
  1. ACD: because of a irritant, affect to many workers
  2. ICD: because of a sensitizer, affect to few workers
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65
Q

Nanoparticles: measure and origin

A

1 - 100 nanometers (1 billionth of a meter)
2.- Engineering origin

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66
Q

Regulatory limits for chemical in US

A

PEL : Permissible Exposure Limits enacted by Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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67
Q

What are OEL? Where are they from? MAK? WUS?

A

Occupational Exposure Limits
MAK: Germany
WUS: UK

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68
Q

TLV are ____ enacted by _____ (recommended)
REL are ___ enacted by _____ (recommended)
BEI are ____ enacted by _____

A

Threshold Limit Values, ACGIH (American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists)
Recommended Exposure Limits; NIOSH (National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health)
Biological Exposure Limits, ACGIH (American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists)

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69
Q

Which organization recommends standards to OSHA?

A

NIOSH

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70
Q

TWA? STEL? C?

A

Time Weighted Average
Short Term Exposure Limit
Ceiling Value

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71
Q

What is an action level?

A

50% of whatever standard (TWA, STEL, PEL,…).

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72
Q

IDLH

A

Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health
A condition that poses a threat of exposure to airborne contaminants hen that exposure s likely to cause death or immediate or delayed permanent adverse health effects or prevent a escape from such an environment.

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73
Q

Where can find IDLH for many chemicals?

A

In the NIOSH pocket guide for chemical hazards

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74
Q

Types of airborne sampling (by duration)

A

Grab sampling
Integrated sampling

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75
Q

Sampling that involves placing a collection device and media at a stationary location inside a room or area. This type of sampling is used to evaluate background concentrations, locate sources of exposure, or evaluate the effectiveness of control measures.

A

Area sampling

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76
Q

Sampling that directly evaluates worker exposure through worn sampling devices, which draw air across a filter media for sample collection, and the device is sent to a laboratory.

A

Personal sampling

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77
Q

____ sampling pump: Used primarily to sample for gases and vapors.
____ sampling pump: particulates, fumes ands mists.

A

Low-volume sampling pump or personal sampling pumps
High-volume sampling pump

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78
Q

Passive sampling

A

Uses a badge or monitor hung by the employee, it is like a personal sampling without the use of pumps

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79
Q

Removal of contaminants generated in an area by mixing enough outdoor air with the contaminant to reduce concentrations of air contaminants to a safe level.

A

Dilution ventilation

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80
Q

Which atmosphere is considered oxygen deficient?

A

Below 19.5% O2

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81
Q

Which respirators allows OSHA in the workplace?

A

Respirators approved by NIOSH.

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82
Q

What is an APF?

A

Assigned Protection Factor established by NIOSH.
Can range from 10 to 10,000.
E.G. An APF of 10 means that the respirator can protect against exposure levels that are up to 10 times the exposure limit for the hazard.

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83
Q

Respirator classes

A

air purifying respirators (APR)
- filtering face piece respirators (remove particles)
- quarter, half or full face mask respirators
- powered air purifying respirators (PAPR) (battery powered devices)

atmosphere-supplying respirators
- Supplied air respirators (SAR)
- Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)

combination of both

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84
Q

Filtration classifications for filtering face piece respirators

A

N: not resistant to oil
R: somewhat resistant to oil
P: strongly resistant to oil

85
Q

Filtration efficiency levels

A

95, 99 and 100%

86
Q

Hazard Ratio…how do you use it?

A

Hazard Ratio = Estimated concentration / Exposure Limit

It is used in respirators selection, since it is necessary to select an respirator with an APF greater than the hazard ratio.

87
Q

The overall physiological response dedicated to dissipating excess heat from the body characterized by increased heart rate and sweating.

A

Heat Strain

88
Q

Fainting that occurs after a period of standing or sudden rising from a sitting position

A

Heat Syncope

89
Q

Heat illness often accompanied by elevated core body temperatures around 100.4 to 102.2 degrees Fahrenheit, (38 to 39 degrees Celsius). Symptoms may include headache, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, weakness, thirst, heavy sweating, irritability, and a decreased urine output.

A

Heat Exhaustion

90
Q

A condition caused by your body overheating, usually as a result of prolonged exposure to or physical exertion in high temperatures. This most serious heat illness can occur if your body temperature rises to 104 degrees Fahrenheit (40 degrees Celsius) or higher.

A

Heat Stroke

91
Q

Core temperature of human body

A

36 ºC or 98.6 ºF

92
Q

Skin irritation caused by excessive sweating

A

Heat rash

93
Q

Rhabdomyolyosis

A

Rhabdomyolysis (often called rhabdo) is a serious medical condition sometimes cause by heat stress and prolonged physical exertion, that can be fatal or result in permanent disability. Rhabdo occurs when damaged muscle tissue releases its proteins and electrolytes into the blood. These substances can damage the heart and kidneys and cause permanent disability or even death.

94
Q

WBGT meter . Explain.

A

Wet Bulb Globe Temperature
Wet bulb: Measures sweat evaporation potential (because of the wind)
Dry bulb: Measures temperature
Globe: Measures radiant energy

95
Q

Heat stress formulas

A

Outdoor
WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.2 GT + 0.1 DB

Indoor (no solar heat source)
WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT

95
Q

Heat stress formulas

A

Outdoor
WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.2 GT + 0.1 DB

Indoor (no solar heat source)
WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT

96
Q

WBGT average (formula)

A

It used to longer periods:
WBGT(avg) =

97
Q

___is a type of apparent temperature used to estimate effect of temperature, humidity, wind speed, and visible and infrared radiation on humans.

A

The wet-bulb globe temperature

98
Q

A measure of how hot it really feels when relative humidity is factored in with the actual air temperature.

A

Heat Index

99
Q

A chart produced by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) to assess how hot it really feels when relative humidity is factored in with the actual air temperature.

A

Heat Index Chart

100
Q

A graphical representation of the psychrometric processes including physical and thermodynamic properties such as dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature, humidity, enthalpy, and air density.

A

Psychometric Chart

101
Q

The temperature your body feels when air temperature and wind speed are combined.

A

WInd Chill

102
Q

A condition in which the body uses up its stored energy and can no longer produce heat. It often occurs after prolonged exposure to cold temperatures. Early symptoms include shivering, fatigue, loss of coordination, confusion and disorientation

A

Hypothermia

103
Q

An injury caused by the repeated exposure of skin to temperatures just above freezing to as high as 60 degrees Fahrenheit (15.6 degrees Celsius). The cold exposure causes damage to the capillary beds causing permanent damage, and redness and itching with additional exposure.

A

Chilblains

104
Q

Illness that occurs when the body can no longer maintain its normal temperature due to exposure to cold temperatures, cold or high winds, dampness and cold water.

A

Cold stress

105
Q

An injury to the body that is caused by freezing, which most often affects the nose, ears, cheeks, chin, fingers or toes. Symptoms include numbness, aching, tingling or stinging, and bluish or pale, waxy skin.

A

Frostbite

106
Q

____, also known as immersion foot, occurs when the feet are wet or exposed to cold for long periods of time.

A

Trench foot

107
Q

WInd chill temperature

A

Wind Chill (ºF) = 35.74 + 0.6215 T - 35.75 (v^0.16) + 0.4275 T (v^0.16)

T: air temperature ºF
v: wind speed (mph)

107
Q

WInd chill temperature

A

Wind Chill (ºF) = 35.74 + 0.6215 T - 35.75 (v^0.16) + 0.4275 T (v^0.16)

T: air temperature ºF
v: wind speed (mph)

108
Q

Acclimatization on a new worker and an experienced worker

A

NW: 5 days, 20% of work-time in heat each day
EW: 4 days, 50%, 60%, 80% and 100% of work-time in heat each day

109
Q

Temperature for potable water

A

Less than 15ºC (59 ºF)

110
Q

An individual that is courageous in their leadership, and who establishes business partnerships, and demonstrates value to the organization, oftentimes in the face of adversity.

A

Change agent

111
Q

During post-investigation, ___ before, during and after catastrophic events is often a key area of focus for investigators.

A

Communication

111
Q

During post-investigation, ___ before, during and after catastrophic events is often a key area of focus for investigators.

A

Communication

112
Q

Which standard establishes “communication and consultation” as major component of the risk management process?

A

ISO 31000 “Risk Management - Guidelines”

113
Q

Persons born between 1900 and 1945, prefer discrete, formal communication. They tend to focus on a person’s words rather than body language and let history and tradition guide their communications with others.

A

Traditionalists

114
Q

Persons born between 1946 and 1964. They tend toward using the personal touch and face-to-face interactions in communication efforts and tend to be diplomatic, like to establish friendly rapport, and focus on nuances of body language.

A

Baby Boomers

115
Q

Persons born between 1965 and 1980. They tend to be informal, direct and straightforward, and like to use email and tie their messages to results.

A

Generation X

116
Q

Persons born between 1977 and 1994 and are prone to use email, voicemail and multimedia to communicate. Their communication is based in mutual respect. Likes teamwork rather than individual work.

A

Millennials or Generation Y

117
Q

Persons born from 1995 to early 2000’s and have strong tendency to technology and social media communication. They like short communication and direct to the point.

A

Generation Z

118
Q

The process of making something possible or easier, such as the process of enabling groups to work cooperatively and effectively.

A

Facilitation

119
Q

An act or practice of withdrawing from something or effort not to participate.

A

Avoidance

120
Q

A convenient arrangement, settlement or compromise.

A

Accommodation

121
Q

Methods to resolve conflict (5)

A

Compromising
Collaborating
Avoiding or withdrawing
Accommodation or smoothing (person put away its needs by the benefit of the other party)
Forcing or competing

122
Q

Methods to resolve conflict (5)

A

Compromising
Collaborating
Avoiding or withdrawing
Accommodation or smoothing (person put away its needs by the benefit of the other party)
Forcing or competing

123
Q

Which conflict resolution method seeks to find a mutually effective solution to a problem including both parties?

A

Collaborating

124
Q

Difference between compromising and collaborating

A

Compromising means that both sides make concessions, so each party is somewhat satisfied but not entirely satisfied with the outcome. In a compromise, each party gives up some of what they want in order to move forward. By contrast, collaborating means that both parties get all their needs met.

125
Q

Skills for successful mentoring (Dr. Linda Philips Jones)

A
  • Active listening
  • Building trust
  • Encouraging
  • Identifying goals
126
Q

The act of being trapped by liquid or a fine flowable solid such as sand and being surrounded or covered completely.

A

Engulfment

127
Q

Deficient and rich atmosphere

A

Deficient: O2 < 19.5%
Rich: O2 >23.5%

128
Q

Safety Requirements for Entering Confined Spaces (standard)

A

ANSI / ASSP Z117.1

129
Q

What produces decaying sewage?

A

Hydrogen Sulfide H2S
Methane CH4
Shortages of oxygen

130
Q

Any atmosphere that contains 10% or more of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), or Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) for any substance.

A

Flammable atmosphere

131
Q

The release of static electricity when two objects touch each other which may be created by friction and may constitute an ignition source if easily ignited substances are present.

A

Static discharge

132
Q

The act of joining two electrical conductors together that are not supposed to be carrying current during normal operations to bring them to the same electrical potential.

A

Bonding

133
Q

A design technique applied to electrical equipment and wiring for hazardous locations. The technique is based on limiting energy, electrical and thermal, to a level below that required to ignite a specific hazardous atmospheric mixture.

A

Intrinsically safe

134
Q

______ happens when a seemingly solid surface breaks, revealing a cavity. It generates a risk of engulfment for the person.

A

Bridging

135
Q

Difference between suffocation and asphyxiation

A

Asphyxiation can occur when a substance, such as carbon dioxide, interferes with the oxygenation of tissue. Suffocation can occur when the air supply to the body is blocked from entering the body. Unfortunately, the results can be the same - death.

136
Q

In any space that has an internal configuration which has inwardly converging walls or a sloped floor that could cause an entrant can be trapped or asphyxiated.

A

Entrapment

137
Q

Confined space reclassification

A

Proof of elimination or removal of all hazards is necessary to reclassify a permit-required confined space to a confined space.CC

137
Q

Confined space reclassification

A

Proof of elimination or removal of all hazards is necessary to reclassify a permit-required confined space to a confined space.CC

138
Q

Atmospheric reading (in order)

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Combustible gases
  3. Toxic gases and vapors
139
Q

Workers who are located immediately outside a confined space entry/exit point that must know the hazards, provide assistance to entrants, remain at the entry point until/unless relieved, monitor the space for adverse conditions, direct entrants to exit if new or adverse conditions arise, summon the exit team, and prevent unauthorized entry.

A

Eligible Attendant

140
Q

Employer must keep all cancel permits at least ___ and review them ____

A

one year
annually

141
Q

The person on the confined space team that must know the space hazards, verify emergency plans and procedures, verify the availability of rescue services, remove unauthorized persons from the area, ensure entry operations are consistent with the permit, communicate status changes, and terminate entry or cancel permits if a new condition exists.

A

Entry Supervisor

142
Q

A rescue is performed by a trained rescue team that enters the space to retrieve the worker(s). All rescuers of this type must be trained in first aid and CPR and perform practice rescues yearly.

A

Entry Rescue

143
Q

Types of rescue in confined spaces

A

Entry rescue
Non-entry rescue
Self-rescue

144
Q

CPR

A

Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation

145
Q

The practices and procedures necessary to disable machinery or equipment, thereby preventing the release of hazardous energy while employees perform servicing and maintenance activities.

A

hazardous energy control program

146
Q

Periodic inspection of the hazardous energy control program should be perform at least____

A

Once a year

147
Q

There are ____ steps in developing a hazardous energy control program.

A

5 steps
- Gather information
- Task analysis
- Hazard and Risk analysis
- Implement controls
- Communication, education and training

148
Q

An employee who actually locks/tags machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or maintenance. This employee must be trained in the recognition of hazardous energy sources, the type and magnitude of energy sources in their work area, and the procedures that are used for energy isolating and control.

A

Authorized employee

149
Q

LOTO procedure

A
  1. Identification of the machine
  2. Listing of all isolating devices and locations
  3. Preparation
  4. Shut down
  5. Isolation
  6. Lock out / Tag out procedure
  7. Stored energy check
  8. Isolation verification
150
Q

Tags can be used as a substitute of lockout devices?

A

False. Tags are complementary and are only warning signs.

151
Q

Types of cranes

A
  1. Tower cranes: temporary, jib has a counterbalance, construction, high stability
    2.3. Ridge and Gantry cranes (suspended crane)
  2. All-terrain/mobile crane
  3. Rough-terrain crane
  4. Crawler crane.
  5. Truck mounted crane.
152
Q

Cranes that are normally used in factories, shipyards and large outdoor manufacturing plants. These cranes consist of a hoist set on a trolley which moves in one direction along one or two beams.

A

Bridge and Gantry cranes.

153
Q

A crane that consists of a tall mast structure fixed to the ground with an operator cab on top, and a long horizontal jib, working arm, that swivels and has a movable hoist. The jib arm has a counter jib for balance allowing for the tower crane to lift and move heavy objects within its radius.

A

Tower crane

154
Q

A self-propelled crane mounted on an undercarriage with four rubber tires, ___ cranes are specifically designed to operate on off-road and rough applications and surfaces.

A

Rough-terrain

155
Q

A cable-controlled crane mounted on crawlers or rubber-tired carriers or a hydraulic-powered crane with a telescoping boom mounted on truck-type carriers or as self-propelled models.

A

Mobile crane

156
Q

A crane that consists of an upper carriage mounted on a track. The upper deck and attachments rotate 360º and features either a box or a lattice type straight boom with an optional jib (boom extension). It can be used on soft and boggy ground where wheeled vehicles would be unable to operate.

A

Crawler crane

157
Q

A document or checklist that summarizes key points for crane operators and decision makers to consider, such as: ground stability and weight bearing capacity; utilities nearby; load weight; crane center of gravity and dimensions; rigging gear to be used; attachment point locations; and, any risk reduction and safety considerations.

A

Lift plan

158
Q

Lifts that generally are performed for pre-engineered construction (e.g., structural steel or modular structures) where similar lifts are made repeatedly throughout a lifting sequence.

A

Production lift

159
Q

Lifts that: use only one crane; lift less than seventy-five percent of their maximum operating capacity; where the crane operator can see the load and the signal person; and, where standard or non-complex rigging is used.

A

Standard lifts

160
Q

Critical lift

A

A lift that use two cranes or more to lift the load, lift more than 75% of their maximum operating capacity, the crane operator do not see clearly the load or the signal person, there are valuable loads, there are personnel baskets lifted, it is used complex rigging

161
Q

locking materials that are used to increase the bearing area of the crane outriggers and height of the crane.

A

Cribbing or crane mats

162
Q

The strength of the ground, or its ability to support a pressure.

A

Ground bearing capacity

163
Q

The pressure, typically expressed in pounds per square foot (psf) or Pascals (Pa), that a crane imposed on the supporting surface.

A

Ground bearing pressure

164
Q

The maximum working load on a crane or rigging component permitted by the manufacturer under specified working conditions.

A

Rated capacity

165
Q

Dimension of the exclusion zone

A

It must defined in the risk assessment and not be less than the swing radius of the crane and include areas beneath the lift area.

166
Q

Radio communications can be used instead of hand signals?

A

Yes, with a dedicated channel for effective communication.

167
Q

Pinch point

A

a place where a road or path becomes narrow, or a place where there is often a lot of traffic, causing the traffic to slow down or stop:

168
Q

____ allow the personnel to pivot the load when it swings on the cranes hook

A

Taglines

169
Q

The piece of rigging that is based on throat or opening size, that connects to the lifting slings to lift heavy objects and eliminate slippage, depending on the materials being moved.

A

Hook

170
Q

Slings that are available in endless and eye-and-eye styles and that can feature metal triangular ends with or without a choker or twisted eyes made of the same material as the sling.

A

Synthetic slings

171
Q

The primary connecting link in all manner of rigging systems, from boats and ships to industrial crane rigging, as they allow different rigging subsets to be connected or disconnected quickly.

A

Shackless

172
Q

Worker that has the knowledge and training to perform rigging operations meant to lifting of the load(s) stably when the weight of the load and rigging hardware, the capacity of the crane or other hoisting device, and, the working load limit of the hoisting rope, slings, and hardware, are known.

A

Rigger

173
Q

Slings fortified by multiple strands of stainless steel or carbon steel wire ropes arranged in a helix pattern. These slings can be coated or uncoated, and are available in multiple specifications.

A

Wire rope slings

174
Q

___ the maximum safe force that a piece of lifting equipment, lifting device or accessory can exert to lift, suspend, or lower, a given mass without fear of breaking. Usually marked on the equipment by the manufacturer.

A

Safe Work Load (SWL)

175
Q

Components known by riggers

A

hook
shackle
wire ropes
synthetic slings
softening devices
pulleys and blocks

176
Q

____ has different types as: sorting, eye, clevis grab and choker

A

Hook

177
Q

What are softeners?

A

They are sling protection devices to avoid abrasion.

178
Q

Conversion of TONs to POUNDS

A

1 ton = 2,000 lbs

179
Q

Three primarily sling hitches

A

Vertical, choker and basket

180
Q

The rigging of the loads where sling angle is ____ is dangerous and should be avoided.

A

less than 45º

181
Q

Sling working load limit (WLL)

A

Vertical: 100% load weight
Choker: 75% load weight
Basket: 200% load weight

182
Q

Working Load Limit at Angles (formula) and sling angle factor for 60º, 45º and 30º

A

WLL at specified angle = (vertical hitch HLL) x (Nº legs) x (sling angle factor)
Basket with 60º: 0.866
Basket with 45º: 0.707
Basket with 30º: 0.5 t

183
Q

Which rigging device is the primary connecting link in all manner of rigging systems?

A

Shackles

184
Q

The most common wire ropes are _____ (description)

A

fortified with multiple strands of stainless steel or carbon steel wire arranged in a helix pattern.

185
Q

The most common cause of wire rope and synthetic sling failure is ____

A

Abrasion or cutting where the slings meets the edges of the load

186
Q

____a standard established by NIMS, on-scene, all-hazards incident management system already in use by firefighters, hazardous materials teams, rescuers and emergency medical teams.

A

ICS Incident Command System
NIMS: National Incident Management System

187
Q

____ coordinates the US federal’s government role in preparing for, preventing, mitigating the effects of, responding to, and recovering from all domestic disasters. It is part of Department of Homeland Security

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

188
Q

The NIMS is lead by :___

A

FEMA

189
Q

NFPA 1600

A

Standard on Disaster and Emergency Management and Business Continuity of Operations

190
Q

smem

A

Social Media for Emergency Management

191
Q

Any natural or man-made incident, including terrorism, that results in extraordinary levels of mass casualties, damage or disruption severely affecting the population, infrastructure, environment, economy, national morale and/or government functions

A

Catastrophe

192
Q

Serious situations that create significant loss and have detrimental effects on an organization and/or the public. They generally require assistance from external resources.

A

Disaster

193
Q

____ guides all levels of government, nongovernmental organizations and the private sector to work together to prevent, protect against, mitigate, respond to and recover from incidents.

___ provides stakeholders across the whole community with the shared vocabulary, systems and processes to successfully deliver the capabilities described in the National Preparedness System. ___ defines operational systems that guide how personnel work together during incidents.

A

The National Incident Management System (NIMS)

194
Q

A plan that is designed to identify stakeholders, critical business processes, potential threats, roles, responsibilities and procedures for an organization. This plan should include procedures for crisis communication internally as well as externally, and contain information on vital records, security of information, contact lists, workaround procedures, and activities to return critical processes to normal operation.

A

Business Continuity Plan

195
Q

Multidisciplinary teams authorized to respond to crisis by identifying, evaluating, and managing strategic issues that impact the organization without becoming involved in the details of the on-site emergency response actions.

A

Crisis Management Team

196
Q

Mention the primary concepts on on program disaster planing

A
  • Emergency management
  • Crisis management
  • Business continuity
197
Q

An issue, event, or series of events that severely impacts or has the potential to severely impact an entity’s oper‐ ations, reputation, market share, ability to do business, or rela‐ tionships with key stakeholders.

A

Crisis

198
Q

The process of cataloging assets and capabilities, and resources in a system, assigning quantifiable value and importance to the resources, identifying the vulnerabilities or potential threats to each resource, and eliminating or mitigating the most serious vulnerabilities for the most valuable resources.

A

Vulnerability Assessment

199
Q

An assessment of how a disruption could affect an organization’s operations, reputation, and market share, ability to do business, or relationships with key stakeholders, and also includes the identification of the resources and capabilities that might be needed to manage the disruption.

A

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

200
Q

Steps for risk assessment process (emergencies)

A
  1. Identified hazards
  2. Vulnerability analysis
  3. Business Impact Analysis
201
Q

Act created to help communities plan for chemical emergencies. It also requires industry to report on the storage, use and releases of hazardous substances to federal, state, and local governments. The program requires state and local governments, and Indian tribes to use this information to prepare for and protect their communities from potential risks.

A

Emergency Planing and Right to Know Act.

202
Q

Drills, exercises and test should be performed at least ___

A

annually

203
Q

Which institution leads de National Flood Insurance and the National Incident Management System?

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

204
Q

___ is the principal means of evaluating a program’s ability to execute its response procedures. It allows the entity to practice procedures and interact in a controlled setting. Participants identify and make recommendations to improve the overall program.
An ___ can include seminars, workshops, games, drills, tabletops, functional exercises, or full-scale exercises and involve the simulation of a response or operational continuity incident.

A

Exercise

205
Q

A ____ is a coordinated, supervised exercise activity normally used to test a single specific operation or function. With a ____, there is no attempt to coordinate entities or fully activate the EOC. Its role in an exercise program is to practice and perfect one small part of the response plan and help prepare for more extensive exercises, in which several functions will be coordinated and tested.

A

Drill

ASP (8 decks)

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