New Chem/Phys Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

proton

A

positive charge and a mass of 1 amu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

neutron

A

no charge and mass of 1 amu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

electron

A

negative charge and mass of 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

nuculeus

A

contains protons and neutrons, electrons flot around nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

atomic number

A

number of protons in a given element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mass number

A

sum of elements protons and neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

atomic mass

A

equal to the mass number, sum of protons and neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

isotopes

A

atoms of a given element (same atomic number) but have different mass numbers. differ in number of neiutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

atomic weight

A

weighted average of the naturally occurring issues

periodic table lists these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

rutherford

A

first said that the atom had a dense, + charged nucleus made up only a small fraction of the volume of the atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bohr model of an atom

A

dense positive charge nucleus surrounded by electrons that revolve around a nucuekus in orbit with distinct energy levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the energy difference between levels is called a

A

quantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

quanitization

A

not an infinite range of energy levels available to an electron, electrons can exist only at certain E levels. E of an electron increases as it is farther from the nuc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

atomic absorption spectrum

A

electron to jump from a lower E level to a higher E level, must absorb the amount of energy equal to the energy difference between the 2 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when electrons return from the excited state to ground state, they

A

emit the amount of energy that is exactly equal to the energy difference between the 2 levels. atomic emission spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

quantum mechanical model

A

electrons do not travel in defined orbits, but localized in orbitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

orbitals

A

a region of space around the nucleus defined by the probability of finding an electron in that region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Heisenberg uncertainty pricniple

A

impossible to know an electrons position and its momentum exactly at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

quantum numbers

A

n, l, m1, ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

principal quantum number

A

n. describes the energy of a shell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

azimuthal quantum number

A

l. describes the sub shells within a given principal energy level (s, p, d f, )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

magnetic quantum number

A

m1 specifics the particular orbital within a subshell where an electron is likely to be found at a given moment in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the spin quantum number

A

ms. indicates th spin ordinations with +1/2 and -1/2 of an electron in an orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

electron confiuhration

A

ex. magnesium. 12 electrons
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2…
3p6, 4s2, 3d10, 4p6, 5s2, 4d10, 5p6
f has 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

electrons fill the principal energy level and subshells by this role

A

n +1 rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HUnds rule

A

sub shells with many orbitals (p, d , f ) fill electrons so that every orbital in a subshell gets one electron before any of them get a second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

paramagnetic

A

have unpaired electrons that align with magnetic fields, attracting material to a magnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

dimagnetic

A

materials have all paired electrons which cannot easily be realigned, repelled by magentis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

valence electrons

A

electrons in outermost shell available for interaction (bonding) with other atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the difference in energy between 2 shells decreases as teh distance from the nucleus inceases

A

energy difference between 3 adn 4 s less than energy difference between 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

maximum number of electrons in a shell

A

2n^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

m1 can only be between -L and +L

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

subshell s, p, d, f

A

L:
0,1,2,3
electrons:
2,6,10,14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

unpaired electrons in the ground state example

A

helium . repelled by magments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

E=hc/wavelength

energy

A

h= 6.6 x 10 ^-34
c=3.00 x 10^8-speed o light
wavelength of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

if you do something with “1 mole”

A

multiple by avogadros number

6.02 x 10^23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

spins in the same direction

A

parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

periodic table organizes elements according to their

A

atomic number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

rows are

A

called periods and based on teh same pricipal energy level (n)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

columns are called

A

groups, have the same valence shell configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

metals

A

shiny, lustrous, conduct electricity, malleable and ductile. metals on L side and middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

nonmetals

A

dull, poor conductors, brittle, R side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

metalloids

A

metals and nonmetals and with boron stepping pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Zeff

A

effective nuclear charge- net positive charge experienced by electrons in their valence shell
increases from L to R,
valence electrons become increasingly separated from the nucleus as the principal energy level (n) increases from top to bottom in a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

atomic radius

A

decreases from L to R acrosss a period and increases from top to bottom in a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ionic radius

A

size of charged species. increases as you move from top to bottom on the periodic table. Ionic radius decreases as you move across the periodic table, from left to right. cations smaller than neutral, anions greater than neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ionization energy

A

amount f energy needed t o remove an electron from the valence shellof a gas - increases from L to R and decreases from top to bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

electroneg

A

F!!! measure of attractive force of the nucleus for electron within a bond. increases from L to R across a period and decreases from top to bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

alkali metals

A

oxidation state of +1 and prefer to lose an electron to achieve Nobel gas state- very rective
all the way on the outside of L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

alkaline earth metals

A

oxidation state of +2 and can lose 2 electrons to achieve noble gas configurations. reactive
form divalent cations (ions with +2 charge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

halogens

A

oxidation state of -1 and can gain electrons too have noble gas configurations.
highest electroneg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

noble gases

A

fully filled valence shell and prefer to not give up

high ionization E (for HE, NE and AR) with no electroneg and electron affinities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

metalloid

A

between metals and and transition metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what forms with water well

A

transition metals. because have many oxidation states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

within the same period, an additional valence electron is

A

added with each step to teh R of the table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ionic bonds

A

unequal sharing of electrons. formed via the transfer of one or more electrons from an element with low ionization E to an element with high electron affinity.
occur between elements with large differences in electroneg (metals and nonmetals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

elements with an incomplete octet that are stable with fewer than 8 electrons

A

H, He, Li, Be, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ionic ions dissociate in

A

polar solvents and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ionic ions have high

A

melting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

covalent bond

A

formed via the sharing of electrons between two elements of similar electroneg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

bond order

A

refers to whether a covalent bond is a single bond, double or triple. as bond order increases, bond strength increases, bond energy increases and bond length decreses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

non polar bonds covalent bonds

A

atoms that have the same electroneg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

polar bonds covalent

A

significant difference in electro but not enough to transfer electrons to form an ionic bond. the more electroneg atom takes on the partial negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

coordinate covalent bond

A

single atom provides both bonding electrons while the other atom does not contribute any.
Lewis acid base chem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

formal charges

A

when an atom is surrounded by more or fewer valence electrons than it has in neutral state (assuming equal sharing of electrons in a bond)

V-Nonbonding-1/2bonding
valence electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

lewis acid

A

any compound that will accept a lone pair of electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

lewis base

A

any compound that will donate a pair of electrons to form a covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

resonance

A

any molecule with pi system or duke bonds
represent all possible confirmations of electrons

small or no formal charge > formal charge
less separation between opposite charges > large seperation
negative formal charge is on electroneg atom > negative formal charge on less electroneg atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

all elements beyond third period can take more

A

than 8 electrons in their valence shell and form more than 4 bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

VSEPR theory

A

molecular geometry
determined by repulsions between bonding and nonbonding electrons
linear (BeCL2), trigonal planar (BH3), tetrahedral (CH4),trigonal byprimada (PCL5), octahedral (SF6)

180,120,109.5, 90/120/180, 90/180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

electronic geometru

A

describes the spatial arrangement of all pairs of electrons around the central atom, including bonding and lone pairs
H20, CH4 and NH3 all have 4 pairs of electrons around the central atom- tetrahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

molecular geometry

A

describe teh spatial arrangement of only the bonding pairs

H20, CH4 and NH3- bent, tetrahedral; and trigonal pyramidal because different coordination number

coordination number- the number of atoms that surround and are bonded to a central atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CCL4- non polar or polar?

A

non polar. although CL is electroneg and pulls, cancels each other out in all 4 directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

when orbitals overlap head to head

A

sigma bond

free rotation of axes because electron density is single linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

two parallel electron cloud

A

pi bonds. no free rotation because parallel and cannot twist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

intermolecular forces

A

electrostatic interactions between molecules

weaker than covalent bonds (which are weaker than ionic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

LDF

A

weakest, present in all

as the size of the atom increases, so does LDF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

dipole dipole

A

occur between oppositely charged ends of polar molecules.

not in gas phase due to distance in particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

hydrogen bonds

A

specialized idols

H is bonded to F, O N- electroneg atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

large intermolecular forces

A

higher BP
Kr= octet
ionic bonds are strongest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

bond lengths decrease with larger differences in

A

electronegative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ammonium

A

NH4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ammniia

A

NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

ion dipole interaction

A

the result of an electrostatic interaction between a charged ion and a molecule that has a dipole.the interaction between a Na+ ion and water (H2O) where the sodium ion and oxygen atom are attracted to each other, while the sodium and hydrogen are repelled by each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

mole

A

quantity of any substance (atoms, molecules, etc)equal to the number of particles that are found in 12 g of C
defined as avoados number - 6.022 x 10^23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

molecular weight vs. molar mass

A

amu/molecule and g/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

moles =

A

mass of sample (g)/molar mass (g/mol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

gram equivalent weight

A

molar mass/n
n= number of particles of interest produced or consumed per molecule of the compound
ex. one would need 31 g of H2Co3 (molar mass 62 g/mol) ti produce an equivalent of hydrogen ions because each mol of H2Co3 can donate 2 hydrogens (n=2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

equivalents

A

mass compound (g)/gram equivalent weight (g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

normality

A

mesure of concentration
equivlants/L
hydrogen ion concentration
1N solution = hydrogen ions equal to 1 mole per liter. 2N acid solution = 2 moles of hydrogen ions per liter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

in a 1N HCL solution the molarity of HCL is

A

1 M because HCL is monoprotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

in a 1 N H2CO3 solution the molarity is

A

0.5 M because diuretic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

normality

A

molarity x n

n= numbest of protons, ions, electrons consumed by the solute , H+ ions or OH IONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

molarity=

A

mol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

empirical formua

A

simplest whole number ratio of the elements in the compound

CH- benzene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

molecular formula

A

exact number of atoms of each element in the compound and is a multiple of the empirical formula
C6H6- benzene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

percent composition

A

mass of element in formula/molar mass x 100
ex. what is the percent composition of Cr in K2Cr2O7

molar mass = 292 g/mol
Cr: 2 x 52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

combination reaction

A

has two or more reactants forming 1 products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

decomposition reaction

A

opposite of combination

single reactant breaks down into 2 or more products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

combustion rection

A

hydrocarbon (fuel) and oxidant (oxygen) to form CO2 and water

Ch4 + 2 O2 –> CO2 + h20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

single displacement

A

when an atom or ion in a compound is replaced by an atom or ion of another element

Cu + AgNO3 – Ag + CuNO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

double displacement

A

metathesis reactions

each swap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

neutralization reactions

A

acid with base to produce a salt.

Hcl and NAOH will produce NaCL and H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

limiting reagent

A

limits the amount of product that can be formed in the reaction because it is used up first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

theoretical yield

A

max amount of product that can be generated as predicted from the balanced equation, AAUMIGN ALL LIMITED REATANT IS consumed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

actual yield

A

the amount of product one actually does obtain during rection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

percent yield

A

actual/theoretical x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

cations

A

usually metas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

anions

A

usually nonmetals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

oxidation states

A

different charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

solutes that enable solutions to carry currents

A

electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

-ous

A

lesser charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

-ic

A

greater charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The solute concentration will affect the size of spots on a paper chromatogram, .

A

not the average migration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rf=

A

= (distance traveled by aspatic acid)/(distance to the solvent front) ​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

during a dehydration reaction

A

a carbocation forms, which leads to non stereospecific (trans and cis) results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What type of functional group is formed when aspartic acid reacts with another amino acid to form a peptide bond?

A

AMIDE GROUP
The functional group that represents a peptide bond is called an amide group.

An amine is one of the functional groups that reacts to form a peptide bond, not the peptide bond itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

1,2-hydride shift

A

a carbocation rearrangement in which a hydrogen atom in a carbocation migrates to the carbon atom from an adjacent carbon (carbon 1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In gas-liquid chromatography, the first peak to emerge will be from the least polar, most volatile compound.

A

hydrogen bonds= non volatile (like in alcohols)

dipole dipole (like with BR and CL)- less volatile

LDF= volatile (bonde to just a methyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

1 cm=

A

.01 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

1 m

A

100 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

40 cm=

A

0.4 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

100 M

A

1000 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The negative sign of the lens strength is indicative of a

A

diverging lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

enzymes affect chemical reactions by Stabilization of:

A

the transition state changes the activation energy of the reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

ionization is

A

ionization is the loss or gain of charge through H atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

ohms law

A

V=IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

index of refractio

A

=speed of light in vacuum/ the speed of light in the medium,

n= c/v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

E (photon E)=

A

hf
h= planks constant = 6.626 * 10-34
f=frequnecy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

speed of light =

A

frequency x wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

intensity of the radiation

A

is rested to number of photons emitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

THz=

A

1 x 10^12 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

standard atmospheric pressure is

A

760 mmHg or 1 atm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

radioactive decay law

A

N(t) = N (1/2)t/T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

1 mL

A

0.001 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

work and power equation

A

P = W/t

time is in secondos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The high number of capillaries in the body means that the total cross-sectional area of these vessels is larger than any other vessel type in the circulatory system.

A

This causes the velocity of the blood to decrease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

BP is higher in the

A

arteries than capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Which of the following types of orbitals of the central atom are involved in bonding in octahedral compounds?

A

Octahedral compounds have six σ bonds and no stereochemically active lone pairs. According to valence bond theory, the central atom requires the hybridization of six atomic orbitals, d2sp3

when there are more than 4 bonds, the sp3 hybridized orbitals can’t accommodate the number of bonds, so it need to recruit the d orbital?

octahedral molecules have six atoms bonded to the central atom and no lone electron pairs,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The molar volume of an ideal gas at 25°C is 24.4

A

not 22.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Retinal is composed of mainly carbon and hydrogen

A

making it largely hydrophobic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

gamma decay

A

emission of a proton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

negative delta G means

A

positive delta S for sponteous reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Gibbs free E

A

determines whether or not a reaction will occur by itself without outside assistance
not necessarily mean quickly -no help with catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

colliosn theory of chemical kinetic

A

the rate of the reaction is proportional to the number of collisions per second between reacting molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

activation E

A

the minimum energy of collision necessary for a reaction to take place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Arrhenius Equation

A
k- rate constant of reaction 
A= frequency factor
Ea= activation E
R- ideal gas connate 
T- temp 

k= Ae^ (-Ea/RT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

rate of reaction

A

increases with temperature

more molecules present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

transition state

A

has greater E than both the reactants and the products

energy required to reach here is the activation E. can either go to products or reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

free energy change of the reaction

A

difference between the free E of products and of reactants
-= exergonic
+= endogeronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

exergonic

A

energy is given off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

endergonic

A

energy is absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

reaction rates are measured in terms of

A

the rate disappearance of a reactant or appearance of a product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

rate laws general form

A

k[A]^x[B]^y

x and y are determined EXPERIMENTALLY not coefficients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

rate is measured in

A

molarity (M)/seconds (s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

zero order

A

formation of product C is independent of changes in concentration of any of the reactants

constant reaction rate equal to rate constant K
A and B raised to 0.

change by adding a catlyst or temperature
linear decreasing graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

first order reactions

A

rate is directly proportionate to only one reactant
A and B raised to 1
slightly curved line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

second order reaction

A

propinate to the concentration of 2 reactants or square concentration of a singlee reactant
A and B raised both to 1 or A or B raised to 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

mixed order reactants

A

catalyst is invovled

reactions with rate orders that vary overt time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

if they tell u that the rate is “third order”

A

the sum of the exponent in the rate law must be equal to 3. s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

changing the concentration of the reactants will not change the rate in a

A

0 order reaction rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

solvents affect the rate of reaction

A

along with temperature, partial pressure of gas (how molecules collide) but products have nothing to do with reaction rate so changing that is fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

saturated solutions with a catalysts have a max turnover rate and cannot increase the rate constant or

A

the reaction rate any higher by adding more reactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

the overall order of a reaction is the

A

sum of the individual orders of the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

lowest activation eneegru means

A

fastest rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

the law of mass action

A

for a reversible reaction, if the system is at equilibrium at a constant temperature than
Kc=Keq= concentration of products raised to their coefficient/reactants raised to their coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

forward and reverse reaction rate constants

A

Kf and Kr

Keq= Kf/Kr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

reaction quotient

A

at any point in time during the reaction, can measure concentrations of all the recctants and products using the same Keq formula

concentration of products raised to their coefficient/reactants raised to their coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Q< Keq

A

forward reaction has not yet reached equilibrium
reactants are greater in concentration
forward rate increased to restore equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Q=Keq

A

reaction is in dynamic equilibrium

forward and reverse are equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Q>Keq

A

forward reaction exceeded equkiriu
greater concentration of products
reverse rate is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

if teh equkibirum for a reaction is written in one direction to be keq

A

reverse reaction. is 1/keq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Keq is

A

temperature dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Keq>1

A

products are present in greater concentration at equlibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Keq=1

A

products and reactants are both present at equilibrium at simiar level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Keq<1

A

reactants are present in greater concenrtation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Keq«1

A

amount of reactants converted to products is very small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Keq=

A

x^2/1-x

x on the denominator is negligible

when Keq is largely negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Le Chateliers

A

when a chemical system experiences a stress, it will rect so as to store equilibrium
stress can beL changes in concentration, pressure, volume and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

increasing gate concentration of reactants or decreasing products will shift

A

to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

increasing products

A

shift to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

increasing pressure on gas system (decreasing volume)

A

shift to fewer moles of gas side

known by coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

decreasing pressure (increase volume)

A

shift reaction to side with more moles of gas

known by coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

increase temp of endothermic reaction or decreasing temp of exothermic reaction

A

reaction shift to R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

decreasing temp of endothermic or increasing temp of exothermic

A

shift to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

kinetic products

A

higher in free E than thermodynamic products adn can form at lower temp. f

fast products because they can form more quickly under such conditions

free E is lower than thermodynamic products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

thermodynamic products

A

lower in free E and more stable than kinetic

more sponetous tho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

solids are NOT IN EQUILIBIRUM EXPRESSSIONS

A

ONLY GASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Kc

A

concentration equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Kp

A

pressure equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

exothermic reaction produces heat so decreasing the temperature

A

favors product formation, increase of forward reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

adding or removing a catalyst would change the reaction rates but not

A

where equilibrium is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

at very high temp

A

reactants and products may decomponse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

negative delta H

A

exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

mRNA is moncistronic

A

meaning that each mRNA molecules translates Ito one protein product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

in prok mRNA is polycistronic

A

mRNA can result in many different proteins depending on the lcoation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

tRNA

A

convertingg NA to amino acid and peptides RRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

rRNA

A

ribosomal machinery used during protein assembly in teh cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

the genetic code is degenerate becuaas e

A

more than 1 codon can specify a single amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

wobble position

A

third codon base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

X^0=

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

X^-A

A

= 1/X^A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

log 1 =

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

10^12=

A

tera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

10^9

A

giga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

10^6

A

mega

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

10^3

A

kilo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

10^2

A

hecto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

10^1

A

decta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

10^-1

A

deci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

10^-2

A

centi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

10^-3

A

mili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

10^-6

A

micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

10^-9

A

nano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

10^-12

A

pico

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

isolated ysstem

A

system cannot exchange energy (heat and work) or matter with teh surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

closed system

A

the system can exchange energy (heat and work) but not matter with teh surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

open system

A

both energy and matter can exchange with surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

first law of thermodynamics

A

delta U = Q-W
u= change in internal energy
Q= heat added
W= work done by the system

change in internal energy is equal tot eh amount of heat transferred minus energy trsnadfered from work

if intneral E is positive, then increasing temperature, heat flows int eh system and work is done by teh system (expansion)

if negative internal E, decreasing temp, heat flow out of system and work is done on the system (compression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

isothermal processes

A

constant temperature so u is constant
(temperature and interval energy are directly proportional)
so Q=W
(in the delta U = Q-W equation)

Hyperbolic curve of pressure adn volume with work underneath that cuve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

adiabatic processes

A

when no heat exchange between the system and the environment so thermal energy is constant
Q=0
delta U= -W (work done on the system)
also hyperbolic on the graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

isobaric processes

A

when the pressure of the system is constant.

flat lien on the P and V graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

isovolumeric process

A

isochoric. experience no change in volume
gas neither expands nor compresses so no work is preformed so
U=Q
vertical line on PV graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

standard conditions

A

25 degrees C (298k), 1 atm pressure, 1 M concentrations

BU STTANDARD TEMP AND PRESSURE IS 0 DEGREES C (IDEAL GAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

phase changes

A

melting and freezing (crystallization and solidification) occur at boundary between solid and liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

vaporization (evaporation or building) and condensation

A

occur at liquid and gas phase

vaporization: liquid to GAS
condensation: gas to liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

sublimation and deposition occur at

A

solid and gas phase
solid to gas: sublimination
gas to solid: deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

between liquid and gas phases is the

A

critical point- where liquid and gases are indigustushable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

at the triple point

A

all three phases exist at equilibrium (the center of the graph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

phase diagram

A

qshows each phases according to pressure and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

temperature

A

is a scaled measured of the average kinetic energy of a substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

heat

A

transfer of energy that results from differences of temperature between 2 substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

the heat content of a system undergoing heating, cooling or phase changes is the

A

sum of all energy changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

process of a systematic absorbing heat

A

endothermic

Q>0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

process of system release heat

A

exothermic

Q<0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

enthaloy

A

is equivalent to heat (Q) oder constant pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

q=

A
mc delta T
MCAT
m- mass
c- specific heat of substance
q=heat
delta T= temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

specific heat

A

amount of energy required to raise the temp one gram of suabyance by 1 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

specific heat of water

A

1 or 4.184

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

during phase changes (solid to liquid or liquid to gas), we cannot use mCAT cuz delta T is 0

A

q=ml
q=heat
m=mass
l- latent heat-enthalpy (heat of fusion or heat of vaporization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

when going from solid to liquid, the changes of enthalpy will be

A

negative because heat is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

enthalpy

A

measure of the PE of a system in intermolecular attractions and chemical bonds

=U + PV
=Q-W + PV
heat, work done by the system,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Hess’s law

A

the total change of PE of a system is = to the changes of PE of individual steps int eh processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

second law of thermodynamics

A

energy spontaneously disperses from being localized to becoming spread out if it is not hindered from doing o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

entropy

A

measure of sponetous dispersal of energy at specific temperatures
DELTA S = Q rev (heat that is gained or lost in a reversible process)/T (temp)

J/mol K

always greater than 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

when energy is distributed in a system at a given temp

A

entropy increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

delta G= delta H-T delta S

A

Gibbs free energy equation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

delta H positive and delta S potivie

A

sponteous at high T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

delta H positive and Delta S neg

A

nonspotous at all T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

delt H neg and delta s pos

A

sponteous at all T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

both delta H and delta S neg

A

sponetous at low T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

boiling is an

A

endothermic process and delta H is motive

abd delta S is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

delta G reaction

A

-RTlnKeq
R- ideal gas constant
T-temp in Kelvin
Keq- equilibrium connate `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

gases have highest entropy

A

solids have the lowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

gases are

A

least dense, easily compressible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

1 tm =

A

760 mmHg-760 torr=101 kPA = 1.013 Pa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

mercury barometer

A

measures atm pressure

as pressure increases more mercury forced into column, increasing its height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

STP

A
273 K (0 C) and 1 atm
1 mol of gas occupies 22.4 L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

equations for ideal gases assume negligible mass and volume of

A

gas molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

regardless of identity of gas, equimolar amounts of 2 gases will

A

occupy the same volume at the same temrpature and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

ideal gas law

A

a moleucle with no intermolecular forces and occupy no volume

PV=NRT
n- number of moles
R- ideal gas constant which is 8.21 x 10^-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

C to Kelvin

A

add 73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

pressure of 380 mmHg

A

divide it by 760 mmHG to get atm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

grams to moles

A

use molar mass (mols/g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

density

A

ratio of mass/volume =PM (molar mass)/RT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

combined gas law

A

P1V1/T1=PV/T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

avogadros principle

A

all gases are at a constant temperature and pressure occupy volumes that are directly proportional to the number of moles present

n1/V1=n2/V2

mols of gas /volume `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Boyles law

A

PV=PV

inverse relationship I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Charles Law

A

V/T= V/T

direct relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Gay Lussac

A

P/T=P/T

direct relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

law of partial pressure

A

individual gas components of. MIXTURE OF GASES WILL EXERT INDIVIDUAL pressures in proportion to their mole frctions
total pressure of mixture of gases is equal tot eh sum of their partial pressure of many gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

partial pressure of a gas

A

Pa (pressure of A)=XPt (total pressure)

X- moles of gas A/total moles of gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

KE=

A

1/2mv^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

kinetic molecular theory

A

gases are made up of particles with low volume
gases have no intermolecular attractions or repulsions
gas are random, collisions
collisions are elastic (conversation of momentum and KE)
avg KE of gases are proportional to temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

photoelectric efect

A

when light of high Frequency (blue to UV light) is shown on a metal vacuum, metal atoms emit electrons. these electrons will produce a net charge flow (current)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

larger intensity means

A

greater current and the greater the number of photons per unit time and greater number of electron per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

current is proportional to

A

intensity (amplitude) of the light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

threshold freqnecy

A

minimum frequency of light that causes ejection of electrons
if less, no electron will be ejected

279
Q

energy of each photon equation

A

E=hf
E- energy of 1 photon of light
h-plancks constant (6.6 x 1^-34
f- frequency of the light

280
Q

wavelength adn frequency equation

A

c=f wavelength

c- speed o light (3.0 x 10^8

281
Q

waves with higher frequency have shorter wavelengths and

A
higher energy (toward blue and UV)
inverse of each other
282
Q

waves with lower frequency have longer wavelengths and

A

lower energy (to3ward red and infrared spectrum)

283
Q

if the photon has more than enough energy to eject a single electron (above threshold NOT at threshold ) then the excess energy will be converted to

A

kinetic energy in the ejected electron
KE= hf-W
w- work

284
Q

work function

A

minimum energy required to eject an electron

W=hf

285
Q

an electron can jump from a lower to a higher orbital b y

A

absorbing a photon of light at the right frequency to match teh energy difference between oribital s(E=hf)

286
Q

when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower one

A

photon of light is emitted

emitted with lower frequency because lower energy so longer wavelengths

287
Q

IR spec

A

is used to determined chemical structure because different bonds absorb different wavelengths of light

288
Q

UV VIS spectra

A

absorption of light in the visible and UV range of chemical structures

289
Q

we see the color on IR and UV spec that are

A

not absorbed

290
Q

photons of UV light have

A

high frequency (Short wavelengths)

291
Q

mass defect

A

E=mc^2
E- energy
m-mass
c-speed of light

matter is converted to energy, so nuclei is slightly smaller than the protons and neutrons added together
small amount of mass can have a lot of energy because of the c sqaured

292
Q

isotopic notation

A

A X
Z

Z- atomic number- protons in the nucleus
A- mass number- protons plus neutrons

293
Q

fusion

A

small nuclei combine and form a larger nuclei

294
Q

fission

A

large nucleus splits into smaller nuceli

295
Q

alpha decay

A

emission of an alpha particle, which is 4/2 HE (alpha)secular that has 2 proton 2 neutrons and 0 electrons

massive compared to beta and gamma `

296
Q

beta decay

A

emission of a beta particle, which is an electron

0/-1 Beta

297
Q

positron emission

A

position is released, which has the same mass and effect of an electron in beta decay but carries a positive charge

298
Q

gamma decay

A

emission of gamma rays which are high energy and high frequency photons
carry no charge and Lower the energy of the nucleus without changing the mass number or atomic number
0/0 gamm

299
Q

half life example

A

if the half life is 4 years, what fraction of the sample will remain after 12 years

do teh normal half life thing

3 half LIVES at 12.5% remains

(1/2)^3= 1/8 is the fraction

300
Q

mass defect is related to binding energy

A

E=Mc2

301
Q

the flow of positive charges

A

current

302
Q

metallic conductivity

A

metals (good electrical and thermal conductors because electrons can move around)

303
Q

electrolytic conductivty

A

seen in solutions conductivity
water has low conductivity (insulator)
sea water is good conductor

304
Q

electrical current

A

Flow of charge between two points at different electrical potentials connected by a conductor, like a copper wire

305
Q

Current equation (I)

A

I= Q (amount of charge passing through a conductor)/time

amps

306
Q

because electrons are negatively charged, they move from a point of lower electrical potential to a point of

A

higher electrical poneital (reducing their electric potential E)

the pathway that positive charges flow, or current, actually flows from higher potential to lower potential and so current is the opposite of the direction of electron flow

307
Q

voltage

A

can be produced by an electrical generator, a voltaic cell (galvanic) or cells with a battery

308
Q

Kirchfoos junction rule

A

at any point in a circuit, the sum of currents directed into that point equals the sum of currents directed away from that point

I (into)= I out

309
Q

Kirchoffs loop rule

A

in a closed loop, the sum of voltage sources is equal to the sum of voltage drpos

310
Q

resistanve

A

the opposition within` any material to teh movement and flow of charge

think of it like air resistance, friction

311
Q

materials that have low resistance are called

A

conductors

312
Q

Resistane equation

A

R= p (resistivity) x L (length of the resistor)/ A (cross sectional area)

313
Q

resisitiy is in

A

ohms

intrinsic resistance to current flow

314
Q

a longer resistor mean that electrons will have a greater length to travel in its resistant material

A

L in resisvity equation

315
Q

inverse between resistance and cross sectional area

A

an increase in area will increase the number of pathways through the resistor, and more current can flow the wider it is.

316
Q

conductor have greater resistance at

A

higher temp

317
Q

ohms law

A

V=IR

voltage, I- current, R- resistance in OHMS

318
Q

in a series

A

current is equal

add the resistance up up

319
Q

power adn resistance

A

P= IV= I (R)^2=V^2/R

320
Q

parallel circiut

A

current will divide to pass through resistors seperately

so add them together

321
Q

in a series circuits, the resistance are

A

added together

as ell as the voltages

322
Q

parallel ciruits

A

voltage is the same for every resistor

current can be added together

resistance ill be different (electrons prefer the path of least resistance)
add together resistor by 1/R + 1/R = R total (which will decrease as more R are adde)

323
Q

capacitors

A

the ability to hold charge at a particular voltage

defibillaterors!

324
Q

captiance

A

the ratio of the magnitidue of the charged stored on one plate to the potential difference (voltage) across the capacitor

both positive and negative plates
C=Q/V

Q- charge
V- volrage
C- capacitance

Farad

325
Q

uniform electric field equation

A

E= V/d

d- distance
E- electric field

326
Q

potential energy of a stored capictor

A

PE = 1/2CV^2

327
Q

when capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance decreases

A

as more are added
must share the voltage drop and therefore cannot store as much charge

1/C total = 1/c + 1/c….

328
Q

capitanors in parallel

A

C total = C1 + C2 + C3

C Toal increases as more is added

329
Q

ammeters

A

used to measure the current at some point within a circuit

330
Q

voltmeter

A

measure voltages

331
Q

ohmmeters

A

measure resistance

332
Q

amps

A

C/s

333
Q

sinusoidal waves

A

oscillate back and forth

334
Q

traverse vs longuidundal waves

A

Transverse waves cause the medium to move perpendicular to the direction of the wave (up and down). Longitudinal waves cause the medium to move parallel to the direction of the wave (sound)

335
Q

the distance from one crest (maximum) to the next

A

wavelength

336
Q

frequency of a wave

A

number of wavelengths passing a fixed point per second

Hz

337
Q

propagation speed of wave equation

A

v= f wavelength

338
Q

period (T)

A

inverse of freuency

1/f

339
Q

angular frequqncy

A

radians per sec
used ins simple harmonic motion in springs
angular frequency = 2 pi F or 2 pi/T

340
Q

maximum magnitude of displacement in a wave is

A

amplitude

from equilibrium position (middle) to crest (top) or trough (bottom)

341
Q

in phase

A

2 waves that have the same frequency wavelength adn amplitude through teh same space at same Tim because crest adn trough line up

phase difference is 0

342
Q

phase outout of phase

A

when crest of 1 wave goes with teh trough of another
phase difference is 1/2 of a wave

wavelength/2 or 180 degrees

343
Q

principle of superposition

A

when waves interact with each other, the displacement of the resultant wave at any point is the sum of the displacement of 2 interaction waves

344
Q

constructuve interence

A

when the waves are perfeclty in phase and the displacement add together and the amplitude is equal tot eh sum of the amplitude of the two eves

345
Q

when waves are perfectly out of phase, displacement counteract each other and the amplitude is the difference between teh 2 waves

A

destructive interference

346
Q

string is fixed at one end moving up and down

A

traveling wave and will reflect and invert when rect the end

two waves shown

347
Q

when both ends of her string are fixed, the traveling wave will look

A

stationary, looking like standing waves

348
Q

points in teh wave that remain at rest

A

nodes (amplitude is 0)

349
Q

antinodes

A

midway between the nodes flucttuate with maximum amplitude

350
Q

audible frequency

A

20 Hz-20,000 Hz

351
Q

sound

A

longuidindal wave trnmitted by the oscillations of particles in a deformed medium

produced by the mechanical disturbance of particles in a material
vibrate

352
Q

pitch

A

frequency

determined by the length of the air column, which can be changed ether by covering holes or changing its lenght

353
Q

doppler effet

A

the differnec between teh actual frequency of a sound and its perceived regency of the sound and the sounds detector are moving relative to one another

towards each other- perceived is greater than actual

away from each other (source and detector)- perceived is less than actual

perceived = actual (v -/+ vD/v -/+ vs)

v- speed of sound
vD- speed of detector
vS- speed of source

first sign os used when going towards (NEG), second is when it away (+)

354
Q

km/hr to m/s

A

1 hour has 3600 seconds

1000 m in 1 km

355
Q

loudness

A

or volume of sound is the way in which we perceive its intensity

356
Q

intensity

A

average rate of E transfer per unit area across a surface that is perpendicular to then wave

I = P/A

p- power
A-area

357
Q

intensity is proportional to the square of ampltidue

A

so doubling amplitduing means quadrupling intensity

358
Q

sound level

A

B= 10 log I/Io

359
Q

change ins ound level

A

Bf= B9 + 10 log If/Ii

360
Q

damping

A

attenutation

sound will be lower than expected from calculations

361
Q

standing wave

A

L= wavelength/2, 2 wavelength /2, 3 wavelength over 2

or wavelength = 2L/n

n=1,2,3,etc (harmonics)- corrresponds to the number of half wavelengths (HUMPS)

IN ESSSENCE
wavelength = 2 L/ count how many waves (OR HUMPS)

362
Q

open pipes

A
has antinodes on both ends 
(nodes are the only thing there for closed pipes)
L= 1wavelength/2
L= 2wavelength/2 
L= 3 wavelength/2

SAME AS STRING

wavelength = 2L/n (COUNT THE ANTINODE)

363
Q

closed pipes

A

the harmonics are now equals to eh number of quarter wavelengths supported by teh pipe

odd harmonics only

wavelength = 4L/n or

L= wavelevnth/4
L= 3 wavelength /4
L=5 wavelength/4

364
Q

ultrasound

A

uses high frequency sound waves to compare relative densities of tissue sin body

based on travel time of reflece sound

365
Q

speed of sound is fastest in solid

A

then liquids than gases

366
Q

intensity is related to

A

sound level (which is related to amplitude of vibration)

367
Q

mass unts

A

lb s^2/ft OR lbs s^2/in

368
Q

force units

A

g cm/ s^2 OR kg m/s^2 (N)

369
Q

work and energy unit

A

ft lb OR g cm^2/s^2 OR kg m^2 / s^2 (JOULES)

370
Q

POWER unit

A

ft lb/sec OR g cm^2/s OR kg m^2/s^3 (WATT)

371
Q

1 angstrom =

A

1 x 10^-10

372
Q

1 eV =

A

1.6 x 10^-19

373
Q

v=

A

d/t

374
Q

friction =

A

mu N
mu- kinetic friction coeff
N- normal force- mg

375
Q

a=

A

v/t

376
Q

v=

A

v0 + at

377
Q

d=

A

v0t + 1/2at^2

378
Q

v^2=

A

v0^2 +2ad

379
Q

d=

A

vt

380
Q

Fc=

A

mv^2/r

381
Q

kn to N

A

1 kn = 1 x 10^3

382
Q

TORQUE

A

r f sin theta

383
Q

zeroth law of thermodynamics

A

objects are in thermal equilibrium when they are at the same temperature adn experience no net change of heat energy

384
Q

temperature

A

qualitative measures how hot or cold something is

quantitively, it is related to KE of the particles that make up a substance

385
Q

thermal expansion

A

how a substate changes in length or volume as a function of the change in temperature

386
Q

heat moves from materials that have higher tempature

A

to materials that have lower temperature

heat is the transfer of thermal E

387
Q

kelvin scale

A

starts from 0, adds 273 + C

no negatives

388
Q

Fahrenheit to Celsius equation

A

F= 9/5C +32

389
Q

rising temperature causes a decrease or increase of length

A

increase of length for solids, and increase in volume for liquids

390
Q

1 Cal=

A

1000 cal = 4184 J

391
Q

conduction

A

transfer of E from molecule to molecule through molecular collisions

must be physical direct contact between objects
transfer KE from hot to cooler matter through collisions

392
Q

metals are the best conductors because

A

metallic bonds contain a density of atoms embedded in sea of electrons which facilitate rapid energy transfer
gases re the poorest because too much space between molecules that collisions are infrequency

393
Q

convection

A

transfer of heat by the physical motion of a fluid over a material
ovens

394
Q

radiation

A

transfer of E by electromagnetic waves
through a cavvumn
sun able to warm earth

395
Q

heat of fusion

A

liquids to solids, solids to liquid (which have a melting point)

396
Q

heat of vaporizaition

A

liquid yo gas or gas to liwuid

397
Q

tofigure out how much heat is required, use mc delta T to figure out heat to melting point,

A

then use q=mL for heat of fusion

add both numbers together

398
Q

entrophy of the universe is increasing

A

delta S universe= delta S system + delta S surroudsning >0

399
Q

E (heat/Q)

A

P x T

400
Q

500 gq

A

0.5 kg

401
Q

density =

A

mass/volume

kg/m^3 or g/ml or g/cm^3

402
Q

density of water

A

1 g/cm^3=1000 kg/m^3

403
Q

weight of substance with density=

A

Fg= density x Volume x 9.8

404
Q

specific gravity

A

SG= density/ 1 g/cm^3

405
Q

pressure

A

Pressure= Force/Area

Pa (pascal)= 1 N/m^2

406
Q

scalar

A

magnitude but no direction

like pressure

407
Q

absolute hydrostatic pressure

A

total pressure that is exerted on an object the is submerged in a fluid

P= P0 (pressure of the surface/ambient pressure) + density x 10 x depth of the object (z)

408
Q

guage pressure

A

difference between the absolute pressure inside the tire and the atmosphericpressure outside the tire

Pguage= P- Patm = (P0 (pressure of the surface/ambient pressure) + density x 10 x depth of the object (z))- Patm

P0 and Patm can most likely equal each other

409
Q

absolute pressure

A

P= Patm + Pguage

1.013 x 10^5 Pa if 1 atm

410
Q

pascals principle

A

pressure applied to an incompressible force will be distorted undiminished throughout the entire volume of the fluid

411
Q

archimdes principle

A

buoyancy
always teh opposite direction of gravity
if higher than force of gravity, will float (less dense objects)– can be equal to mg if floating

Fb= density of the fluid x volume of the fluid displace x 10 = density of the fluid x volume subermedg x 10

412
Q

cohesive forces

A

give rise to surface tension because cohesion together fluid

attractive force a molecule feels toward other molecules of the same liquid

413
Q

adhesion

A

attractive force that a molecule of liquid feels toward the molecules of other substance

water and glass

414
Q

viscosity

A

reistance of fluid

415
Q

Poiseuielles Law

A

Q= pi r ^4 delta Pressure/ 8 n L

Q- flow rate
r-radius of the tube
n-viscosity
L- length o pipe

look at relationship mroe than equation

416
Q

contuinty equation of fluids

A

fluids flow more quickly in narrow spaces than larg enes

417
Q

Bernoullis equation

A

pressure + 1/2 density (volume)^2= pressure + 1/2 density volume ^2 + density(g)(h)

418
Q

couloumb

A

1.60 x 10^-19 C in 1 electron

negative in electron, positive in proton (with much greater mass)

419
Q

insultors

A

do not distbrute charge over a surface

420
Q

couloumbs law

A

Fe= kq1q2/r^2

electrostatic force= Fe
k- 8.99 x 10^9
q- charge (coulomb of electron)

421
Q

gravitational force

A

Gm1m2/r^2

422
Q

magnitude of electric field (E)=

A

Fe/q= kQ/r^2

423
Q

field lines

A

represent how a positive charge would move in teh presence of a positive or negative charge

424
Q

electric field is vector or scalar

A

vector- has direction

425
Q

electric potential energy

A

= kQq/r
if both charges are positive or both negative, then potential will be positive

if both charges are different from each other, then both charges will be negative

426
Q

electic potential

A

measured in volts= kQ/r
different points in space of an electric field surronding a source charge will have different electric potential values
the charge of electric potential that accompanies the mvoement of a test charge from one position to another

move in the direction that shows. decrease in electric PE (from high to low potential for positive test charges, and low to high for negative test charges)

427
Q

equipotential line

A

every point is the same potential , so 0 is the difference

designate teh set of points around a source charge or multiple source charge that have the same electric potential

work is done when one charge is moved from 1 equipotential line to anther (but no work if move to same line)

428
Q

two charges of opposite sign separated by d generates an

A

electric dipole

429
Q

dimagentic

A

no unpaired electrons

not MAGNETIC

430
Q

paramagentic

A

unpaired electrons

MAGNETIF

431
Q

dipole potential

A

V= kqd/r^2 x cos theta

q- dipol moment

432
Q

magentic force

A
Fb= qvBsin theta
q- charge
v- velocity 
B- magenta field magnitude 
theta- smallest angle between velocity and melanic field vector
433
Q

sn1

A
  1. loss of LG
    forms carbocayion
    +1 charge for carbocation functions as nucleophile
    -1 LG charge acts as electrophile

RDS- rate determining step. increase by 2, rate increases by 2. first order
``
2. nucleophilic attack

434
Q

SN2

A

there’s a dipole, alkyl halide is a bit more negative (nucleophile)and C that is it attached to is more positive

the thing it reacts with (oh for ex) is the electrophile (the oxygen)

negative oxygen in OH attacks Carbon positive, at the same time, 2 electrons from the bond come off of kick bromine/alkyl group off

no carbocation
OH adn carbon that was attached to alkyl halide forms a bond (to form an alcohol)

435
Q

nucloephile

A

onating an electron pair. … Because nucleophiles donate electrons, they are Lewis bases.

436
Q

electrophile

A

lectrophiles react by accepting an electron pair in order to form a bond to a nucleophile including the interactions of a proton and a base.

437
Q

amide

A

Amides are functional groups in which a carbonyl carbon atom is linked by a single bond to a nitrogen atom and either a hydrogen or a carbon atom.

n secondary structure of proteins

438
Q

amine

A

basic nitrogen atom with a lone pair.

H-N-H

439
Q

hydride shift

A

arbocation rearrangement in which a hydrogen atom in a carbocation migrates to the carbon atom bearing the formal charge of +1 (carbon 2) from an adjacent carbon (carbon 1).

440
Q

bronsted acid

A

an acid is a proton (H⁺) donor, a

441
Q

bronsted base

A

base is a proton accepto

442
Q

intensity of radiation and photons emitted

A

, intensity is inversely proportional to wavelength.

higher intensity more photons emitted

443
Q

solvation

A

electrostatic interaction between solute adn solvent molecules (aka dissolution)

when water is the solvent, can be called hydration

involves breaking intermolecular interactions between mc and forming solute and solvent interactions together (if new interaction is stronger than separately-exothermic, favored at low temp)– gas into liquid

444
Q

when the interaction between solute and solvent is weaker than if they were seperate

A

then it is endothermic at high temperatures

NACL and water

445
Q

solubility

A

the maximum amount of the substance that can be dissolved in a particular solvent at a given temperature

soluable in sponetous reactions (neg delat G)

446
Q

all salts of Group 1 metals and all nitrate salts are soluable

A

are soluale in water

447
Q

coordinate covalent bonds

A

Lewis base (electron donating pair) and an electron acceptor (lewis acid0 form very stable Lewis base acid complexes

448
Q

the formation of complex ions (Lewis acid and lewis bases to form one end product)

A

what that says yes

449
Q

concentration

A

amount of solute dissolved in a solvent

450
Q

mole fraction

A

moles of A/total moles of species

sum of all mole factions will equal one

451
Q

molarity

A

moles of solute/liters of solution

452
Q

molality

A

moles of solute/kg of solvent

453
Q

normality=

A

molar mass x n (which could be number of protons or number of OH ions)

454
Q

m1v1=

A

m2v2

Molarity
Volume

455
Q

for a dissociation reaction

A

Ksp is the equilibrium constant (products /reactants of AQ only)

456
Q

ion product and Ksp determines level of saturation

A

if less than Ksp- unsatured and more solute is added it will dissolve

if = to ksp - saturated and no change in concentrations

if more than Ksp then solution is supersaturated and precipitate will form

457
Q

ksp vs. kf

A

ksp wil show dissoltion of OG solution
formation of complex ion is Kf (usually larger than Ksp)

multiply Kf and Ksp together when you combine both equations together

458
Q

to find molar solubility

A

set up ICE table which Is baed on concentrationa

for C- look at coefficient

459
Q

formation of complex ion increases the solubility of other salts with teh same ions because it uses up the products of those dissolution reactions, shifting equiilibrium tot eh R

A

look at Ksp adn Kf both equations

460
Q

common ion effect

A

decrease the solubility of a compound in a solution that already has one of the ions in teh compound . shifts dissolution to eh L, decreasing dissociation

461
Q

arehnnius acid

A

dissociate to form an excess of H+ in solution

462
Q

arrhenius base

A

disociate to form an excess of OH-

463
Q

amphortic speies

A

acts as an acid in basic envroent and a base in acidic environments

gain or loss a proton in bronzed
water for example

464
Q

in pure wter

A

equal concentrations of H30+ and OH- if solution is equilibrium

465
Q

pH=

A

-log H+= log 1/H+

466
Q

pOH=

A

-log OH-= log 1/OH-

467
Q

pH + pOH=

A

14

468
Q

pH= -log (10^/3)=

A

3

469
Q

ka and kb

A

Ka = [H3O+][A-] / [HA]. General Kb expressions take the form Kb = [BH+][OH-] / [B].

470
Q

strong acid and bases completley dissociate

A

ph=14-pOH

ph= 14-(-log[OH])= 14 + log (cocnentration fo OH)=

471
Q

log 1=

A

0

472
Q

log 10=1

A

YES

473
Q

Kw=

A

[H30+][OH-]

474
Q

strong acids

A

HCl, HBr. HI H2SO4, HNO3, HCLO4

475
Q

stong bases

A

NaOH, KOH,

476
Q

there can be negative PH and above 14 PH values

A

yes

477
Q

weak acids and bases

A

dissociate partially

Ka= (products)/reactas

478
Q

smaller Ka means

A

weaker the acid and less it dissociates

479
Q

small kb mean

A

weaker the base and it will dissociate less

480
Q

conjugate acid

A

when a base gets a proto

481
Q

conjugate base

A

when an acid loses a proton

482
Q

autionization of water the Kw is

A

[H30+][OH-]=10^-14

483
Q

Ka +Kb= Kw=

A

10^-14

484
Q

Kb adn Ka are inversely related so

A

if Ka is large, Kb is small

strong acid will produce a weak conjugate base

485
Q

10 ^1

A

10

486
Q

10^0

A

1

487
Q

neutralization reaction

A

when acid and bases form a salt

488
Q

when salt ions react with water to give back an acid or base

A

hydrolysis

489
Q

titrations

A

used to determine the concentration of a known reactna tin a solution

titrant has a knoewn concentration and is added slowly to the tetrad to reach teh equvilance point

490
Q

acid base titrations

A

equivalencies point is reached when the number of acid equivalents present in the OG solution equals th enumbe of based equvlant added

491
Q

strong acid strong base will have an equvilance point of

A

7

492
Q

indicators

A

weak acids or bases that have different colors in their protonated an deprotonated states

when it dodes change color= end point or rlly equivlance point

493
Q

weak acid and sting base titrations will have equilateral point of

A

ph>7

494
Q

weak base and strong acid will have equilibrium point of

A

pH<7

495
Q

indicatorsshould have a pKA close to the PH of the

A

expected equvialnce point

496
Q

bufering solitions

A

mixture of weak acid and its conjugate salt (conjugate base and cation) or weak base and its conjugate salt (conjugate acid and anion)

497
Q

can have half equvilance points

A

half of the species has been prootonted in polyvalent acids (H2Co3) and bases

498
Q

buffer soltions can resist changes in PH when small amounts of acid or base are added

A

yes

499
Q

bicarb buffe system

A

Co2 + H20–> H2C03–> H+ + HCO3-

cellular respiration maintain pH of blood

500
Q

henderson hasslbach equation

A

pH= Pka + log [A-]/[HA]
A-= conjugate vase
HA- weak acid

501
Q

weak buffer solution:n

A

POH= Pkb + log ([B+][BOH]

B+= conjugate acid 
BOH= concentation of weak base

pOH=PKb when conjugate acid = weak base

502
Q

first pka in a graph

A

halfway between starting point and first equivalence point

503
Q

eqvulance point

A

steep slopes upwards

504
Q

N1V1=

A

N2V2

normaly and volume

505
Q

reactions that involve the transfer of electrons from one chemical species to another

A

oxidation reduction redox reactions

506
Q

oxidation

A

loss of electrons

507
Q

reduction

A

gain of electrons

508
Q

oxidizing agent

A

causes another atom to undergo oxidation by being reduced itself

509
Q

reducing agent

A

causes the other atom to be reduced and is oxidized itself

510
Q

oxidation numbers

A

assigned to atoms in order to keep track of the redistribution of electrons during chemical reactions

N2, He- free elements- oxidation # is 0
monatomic ions= charge of ion: Na+, Cu2+, Fe3+ (+1, +2, +3)

511
Q

group 1A elements oxidation numer

A

+1

512
Q

group 2 oxidation number

A

+2

513
Q

oxdaition number of oxugen

A

-2

514
Q

if neutal atom

A

no charge above it, must be 0 oxidation number

515
Q

if oxidatio number goes from +2–> +4

A

loses electrons, oxidation (making it a reducing agent)

516
Q

If oxidation number goes from +4-+2

A

reduced, gains electrons (oxidizing agent)

517
Q

optical isomers

A

stereoisomers- compounds that have the same chemical formula but differ from one another in terms of the spatial arrangement of their atoms.

518
Q

enantiomers

A

nonidentical, non superimposable mirror images

chiral compounds wit no symmetry
every carbon Is different between D and L

519
Q

chiral comoound

A

4 different groups attached to it

520
Q

D and L / R and S

A

R=D- OH on R side
S=L- OH on left side

for last OH group

521
Q

two sugars that are in the same family (ketoses or alcoves or have same number of C) but are not identical or no mirror images are

A

diastereomers

522
Q

epimers

A

have one chiral carbon in a diastereoisomer

523
Q

alpha anomeric carbons

A

point down OH’s

less favored because axial adding to steric strai

524
Q

beta anomeric C

A

pointed up OH’s

525
Q

monosacarrides contain

A

OH groups and carbonyl C (R-C-R with OH on top of C)

526
Q

aldoses can be oxidized and so are considered

A

reducing agents

527
Q

1 chiral carbon has how many stereoisomers

A

2

2^chiral C= stereoisomers

528
Q

fisher projections

A

when drawing OH groups think downright up - left

on the R side go down, L side go up

529
Q

aldehyde or ketone (KETO FORM) + acid or base you get

A

enol

double bond with alcohol, from shifting alpha H
has a carbocation

enola nd keto are tatuermers

530
Q

glucose is an

A

aldohexose

2^4 (chiral groups)= 16 stereocenters

531
Q

2 monosaccarides linked together

A

form disaccarides by glycosidic linkages

532
Q

glycolsidic linkages

A

C1 and usually C4 (from the anomeric C- the one on the lowest R side)

533
Q

if OR group is CIS with respect to the C6 C (the one with CH2OH) then it is

A

beta

534
Q

if OR group is trans with respect to the C6 C (the one with CH2OH) then it is

A

alpha

535
Q

electroagetic spectrum

A

radio waves (long wavelength, low frequency) and game rays (short wavelengths, high frequency, high energy)

between them from lowest to highest we have: microwaves, inferred, visible light, UV and x rays

536
Q

electromagnetic waves are

A

transverse waves because oscillating vectors are perpendicular to each other

537
Q

mm, um, nm, angstrom

A

10^-3, 10^-6, 10^-9, 10^-10

538
Q

sped of light =

A

frequency x wavelength

539
Q

in visible light

A

red is 700 nm, violet is 400 nm

540
Q

reflection

A

rebounding of incident light waves at the boundary a medium

541
Q

angle of incidence =

A

angle of reflection

as measured from the normal, which is a line drawn between each angle and straight up

542
Q

real image

A

if light converges at the position fo the image

543
Q

virtual

A

only I light appears to be coming from the position of the image but does not actually converge there

544
Q

center of curbature

A

center of the spherical shaped mirror if it were a complete sphere

545
Q

concave

A

inside of the sphere to its surface

in front of mirror ris center of curvature and radius
converging mirrors aka

546
Q

convex

A

outside of the sphere to inside

diverging mirrors

547
Q

focal length

A

distance between the focal point and the mirror
f=r/2 (radius of curvature is the distance from C and the mirror)

distance between object and mirror is o
image and mirrors distance- i

548
Q

focal length equation

A

1/f=1/o + 1/9= 2/r

549
Q

if an image has a positive distance (I>0)

A

it is a real image, implying image is in front of the mirro r

550
Q

if image has a negative distance (I<0)

A

it is virtual and located behind the mirror

551
Q

magnification

A

= -I/o

ratio of size of image to the size of an object

552
Q
  • magnification
A

= inverted image

553
Q

+ magnification

A

= upright image

554
Q

if the object is placed at the focal point

A

no image is formed because reflected light rays are parallel t each other

555
Q

if the object is between F and the mirror

A

the image is vital, upright and magnified

556
Q

If the object is beyond F

A

image is real, inverted and magnitifed

557
Q

divergin mirro

A

forms only virtual, upright adn reduced image

farther away object, smalle rimage will ve

558
Q

object is in front of mirror

A

o is positive (and real)

559
Q

o is negative

A

objet is behind mirror (virtual)

560
Q

I is positive

A

image is in front of mirror (real)

561
Q

I is negative

A

image is behind mirror (virtual)

562
Q

r or f is positive

A

mirror is concave (converging)

563
Q

r or F is negative

A

mirror is convex (diverging)

564
Q

m is positive

A

image is upright

565
Q

m is negative

A

image is inverted

566
Q

refraction

A

bending of light as it passes from one medium to another and it changes speed

567
Q

index of refraction equation

A

n= c/v

index ofrefraction = speed o light in a vacuums, speed of light in medium

568
Q

snell s law

A

refracted light
n1sin=n2sin

1- where light is coming from (when this is bigger, bend away from normal)
2- where light is entering (when this is bgiger, bend to normal)

569
Q

when light travels from a medium of high index of refraction (such as water) to a medium with lower index of refraction (such as air)

A

the refracted angle is larger than the incident angle (theta 2> theta 1), bends away from normal

570
Q

as the incident angle increases, refracted angle also increases

A

making the critical angle, refracted is equal to 90 degrees (theta 2)
refracted light passes along the interface between teh two media

critical angle = sin ^-1 (n2/n1)

571
Q

lenses refract light, mirrors

A

reflect it

572
Q

lenses

A

there’s two surfaces (the glass when light goes in adn out) so equation is:
1/f= (n-1)(1/r1 - 1/r2)

n-index of refraction
r-radius of curvature

573
Q

the cornea acts as the

A

primary source of refractive power

574
Q

lens:

o positive 
I positive 
r positive 
f postiive 
m positive
A

object is on same side of lens as light source
image is on opposite side of lens from light source (real)
lens is convex (converging)– both r and f positive
image is upright

575
Q
lens: 
negative 
o
I
r
f
m
A

object is on opposite side of lens from light sourec
image is on same side of elns as light source (virtual)
lens is concave (diverging) - for r and f
image is inverted

576
Q

POwer and focal length

A

P= 1/F

577
Q

power is positive for

A

converging lens

578
Q

power is negative for

A

diverging lens

579
Q

people who are near sighted (can see near objects- myopia)

A

need diverging lens

580
Q

peopel who are far sighted need (hypeopia)

A

converging lens

581
Q

or a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products, the relative mole ratio of products is directly related to the

A

relative stability of these products.

582
Q

mF to F (for captors)

A

1000 mF is = to 1 F

583
Q

q=CV

A
q= charge stored
C= catpiance 
V= votlage
584
Q

energy with captiance =

A

1/2 CV^2

585
Q

doppler effect

A

f prime > f before passing the horn, f prime< f after passing it

586
Q

P = Fv

A

power= force x velocity

587
Q

work is

A

= to KE

588
Q

kW to W

A

1 Kw= 1000 W

589
Q

slowing down/ stopping or anything

A

v’t graph is a parabola

590
Q

hermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted;

A

less heat, greater stability.

tability is related to energy in that more stable molecules have less energy while the less stable molecules have more energy to start with. So the ones that give more heat off when burned were less stable.

591
Q

Boiling point is about the intermolecular forces, while heat of combustion is about the intramolecular forces.

A

Thermodynamic stability is about intramolecular forces

592
Q

example problem with labelling

A

The researchers want to know where guanine binds/is incorporated in reactions. To do this, they decided to use radioactive hydrogen which can be traced.
If they want to put the hydrogen in guanine, they have to place it somewhere where it won’t be likely to fall off. Position 2, 3, and 4 all have nitrogens and hydrogens. If the researchers attach the radioactive hydrogen to any of these spots, they might risk the nitrogen’s reacting with the water(solvent) and lose the hydrogen. If the hydrogen is lost, the researchers will have no idea where the guanine attached.
If they put the hydrogen at position 1, it is very unlikely that the hydrogen will fall off b/c the double bond is fairly unreactive towards the solvent.

593
Q

activation energy for a reaction represents the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products.

A

.the activated complex minus the energy of the reactants.

594
Q

period

A

from one place to same next place on the wave
top to top

time it takes to complete one full cycle

595
Q

The glucose meter measures the current produced during Reaction 2. If 0.67 μmol of electrons were measured, what mass of glucose was present in the sample? (Note: The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol = 180 μg/μmol.)

A

stoichiometry of the reaction is 2 mol e– per mole of glucose consumed. The device measured 0.67 (2/3) μmol of electrons, indicating that 0.33 (1/3) μmol of glucose was consumed. This weighs 60 μg, based on its molar mass of 180 g/mol.

596
Q

Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species.

A

will increase acid production because monosodium has extra H

597
Q

the formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by the formation of water as a by-product, and the mass of water is 18 amu.

A

byproduct of peptide bond formation

598
Q

acetylation (attachment of RC=O)

A

to N

599
Q

n atom must be a Lewis base to coordinate to calcium ions, and oxygen is the only Lewis basic atom present in the side chains or backbones of the listed amino acids that has either a partially negative charge (in the peptide backbone or Ser side chain) or a negative charge (in the Asp side chain).

A

A coordinate covalent bond is a bond where both the electrons in it come from the same atom.
A Lewis base is an electron donor.
So yes, the Lewis base will be responsible for

600
Q

pyrrole ring

A

five-sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom

601
Q

resistivity is the inverse of the conductivity,

A

yes

602
Q

involves transfer of a methyl group to cytosine, and the next step involves the hydroxylation of that methyl group.

A

refore, the two classes of enzymes needed are a transferase and an oxidoreductase.

603
Q

hydroylxation

A

a chemical process that introduces a hydroxyl group (-OH) into an organic compound

oxydation reduction

oxidation reaction in which carbon–hydrogen (C-H) bond oxidizes into carbon–hydroxyl (C-OH) bond. I

604
Q

deta G equation

A

ΔG′° = −RTlnKeq = −RTln([unfolded]/[native]).

605
Q

Because DNA unfolding occurs as the pH increases, it

A

can be inferred that this is due to cytosine deprotonation.

606
Q

glucose and dextran (sugar)

A

polysaccharide of glucose has numerous hydroxyl groups that can hydrogen bond to the polar side chains that are typically exposed on a protein surface.

607
Q

the frequency of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates

A

but amplitude, wave speed and wavelength are

608
Q

sponetous reactiona and delta K

A

because a spontaneous reaction is one that exhibits ΔG < 0. Since ΔG = –RTln(Keq), this means that Keq must be > 1

609
Q

mass is

A

density x volume

610
Q

electrohemical cels

A

contained systems in which oxidation reduction reactions occur

galvanic cells (voltaic cells), electrolytic cells, concenrtation cells

611
Q

galvanic cells

A

sponeteous reactions

612
Q

electrolyytic cells

A

nonsponteous reactions

613
Q

oxidation occurs at

A

anode

614
Q

reduction occurs at

A

cthode

615
Q

electromotive force

A

corresponds to teh voltage or electrical potential difference f the cell

if positive, cell releases energy (delta G less than 0)
if negative, aborb energy (delta G positive and nonspop)

616
Q

movement og electrons in electrochemical cells is from

A

anode to cathode, and current runs from cathode to anode

617
Q

galvanic cells

A

release E into teh environment

2 electrodes connected to each other through a conductive metal, like copper and the solutions contain a salt bridge

sponetous redox reaction - as the reaction proceeds toward equilibrium, the movement of electrons results in conversion of electrical potential to KE and this can hel pdo work

618
Q

salt bridge

A

charge disperses so that when the reaction runs, not too much negative or too much positive is on one side

619
Q

cell diagarm

A

short hand notation for representing reaction
Zn (s) [ Zn 2+ [ Cu2+ [ Cu

anode, anode solution cathode solution, cathode

620
Q

electrolytic cells require the

A

input of E to proceed, driven by external voltage source called electrolysis

621
Q

Cl- cells migate to the

A

anode

where they are oxidized to Cl2

622
Q

Na+ ions migrate to teh

A

cathode

where they are reduce to NA

623
Q

1 electron carries a charge of

A

1.6 x 10^ -19 C

624
Q

Farday constant

A

equvilant to eh charge contained in 1 mol of electron, as 96,485 C= 1 F

10^5

625
Q

concentration cells

A

specialized form of galvanic cells in which electrodes are made up fo the same material , concentration gradient causes movement of charge, not potential difference

626
Q

charge of electrode dependent on type of electrochemical cell

A

galvanic cells- anode is neg and cathoe is positive

electrolytic cells- anode I positive and cathode is neg

627
Q

electrons typically move from negative (low electric PE) to

A

postiive (positive electrical PC)

628
Q

isoelectric focusing

A

technique used to seperate amino acids or polypeptides based on isoelectric points

postiive charged aa will igrate to cathode (protonated at soltiosn pH) and nehatively charged aa will migrate to anode *deportonated )

629
Q

reduction potential

A

gien in Volts
oxidized or reduced which psecies can be determined (which gains e to be reduced)

more positive potential, more likely to be reduced

630
Q

electrode witht the more positive reduction potential

A

cathode (opposite for electrolytic cells)

631
Q

lectrodue with less positive reduction potential

A

anode (opposite for electrolytic cells)

632
Q

beause species wants to gain electrons, reaction I sponteous

A

so negative delta G

633
Q

since reduction adn oxidation are opposite processes, to brain teh oxidation potential,

A

switch sign of reduction potential

634
Q

electrolytic potential of cell =

A

E reductionc cathode - E reduction anode

635
Q

for galvanic cells

A

difference inr eduction potentials must be pos

636
Q

or electrolyti cells

A

difference in reduction potentials I negative

637
Q

electromagnitude F (E) and change in free E have opposite signs (G)

A

if E is pos, G is neg and galvanic
E is neg, G is pos= electrolytic
E and G are 0= concentration cells

638
Q

Nerst equaton

A

describes the relationship between the concentration fo species in a solution under nonstandard conditions adn electromotive F

E cell = E^o cell –RT/nF. ln Q
e cell- no standard condition, E^o cell standard conditions, R - ideal gas constant , temp, number of moles of electrons, Farday, Q is reaction quoeitn

Q- reactants/products of aq

639
Q

delta G =

A

-nFE cell

n- number of moles of eelctron exhcnaged
F- Farday constant
E- emf of cell

640
Q

Work= delta q x V

A

amount of work is need to transport charge across potential difference (voltage)

641
Q

when kEq (ratio of products concentrations at equilibrium over reactant raised to stoic coefficient) isgreater than 1

A

E cell is positive

642
Q

when Keq is less than 1

A

E cell is negative

643
Q

When keq=1

A

E cell is 0

644
Q

gluocose transporters

A

GLut 1-4

Glut 2 and 4 are important because in specific cells and highly regulated

645
Q

GLUT 2

A

low affinity transporter in hepatocytes and pancreatic cells

after a meal, blood traveling from a hepatic portal vein from teh intestine is rich in glucose. glut 2 captures excess glucose for storage.

beta ce;;s and also glut 2 help with insulin release

646
Q

glut 4

A

adipose tissue adn responds to glucose concentration in peripheral blood
increased by insulin (rate of glucose transport), stimulating the movement of additional glut 4 transporters to membrane

647
Q

glycolysis

A

pathway that converts glucose into 2 PYVRUATE molecules , realign energy captured in two substate level phosphorlyations adn one oxidation reaction

needs mitochondria and oxygen - aerobic through NADH
if lacking- RBC , glycolysis occurs anaerobically bu energy is lost

648
Q

hexokinase and glucokinase

A

the first steps in glucose metabolism in any cell are transport across the membrane and phosphorylation by kinase enzymes inside the cell to precent glucose from leaving via the transporter

convert glucose to glucose 6 phosphate

649
Q

PFK 1

A

rate limiting enzyme and main control point in glycolysis

fructose 6 phpshatr is phosporlyated to frustose 1,6 bisphoat using ATP

inhibited when made enough ATP and citrate (meaning Krebs cycle is working)

activated by AMP and fructose 2,6 bisphosphate

650
Q

PFK 2

A

produces fructose 2,6 bisphosphate that activates PK1 . activated by insulin and inhibited by glucagon

651
Q

glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

A

produces NADH which can feed into teh electron transport chain

652
Q

3 posphoglucerate kinase and pyruvate kinase

A

put phsphate on ADP to make ATP through substrate level phosphorlation

653
Q

irreversible reactions enzymes

A

glucokinase/hexokinase, PFK 1 and pyruvate kinase

654
Q

NADH produced in glycolysis is

A

oxidized by the ETC in mito when o2 is present

655
Q

if o2 and mito are absent, NADH in glucolysis is

A

oxidized by lactate dehydrogenase

656
Q

lgycolysis overview

A

glucose + 2 NaD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi= 2 pyruvate + 2NADH + 2 ATP + 2 H20 + 2 H+

(use 2 ATP because use 2 in process)

657
Q

pyrutes are

A

3C molecules

658
Q

glycolysis

A
  1. phosphorlyation of glucose by hekokinase to glucose 6 phosphate (uses ATP)

glucose 6 phosphate to fructose 6 phosphate by phosphoglucose isomerase

fructose 6 phosphate ohosprulated by PFK 2 to make fructose 2 6 bisphosphate

fructose 2 6 phosphate is then catalyzed via PFK 1 to make fructose 1 6 bis phosphate which splits into DHAP and glyceride 3-P after aldolase

Glyceradlude 3P is mixed with glyceradhyde 3p dehydrogenase to make 1 3 bisphophosoglycertae which combined with phosphoglycerate kinase to make 3 phosphoglycerate

last step is PEP phosphorylated by pyruvate kinase to make pyruvate

659
Q

lactate to pyruvate by lactate dehydrogenase

A

fermentation
oxidizes NADH to NAD+

generating more NAD+ fo rglycolysis to contain

660
Q

cellular respiration

A

glycolysis (in cytosol) which splits up glucose into 3 C pyruvate to make 2 ATP and NADH.

pyruvate fermentation, where pyruvate is converted to acetyl COA for entry into teh citric acid cycle if ATP is needed= carboxyl group dt4ripped off of pyrvuate adn exerted as CO2 . acetyl attaches to COA (where pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is- inhibited by acetyl COA in inhibition). Pyruvate can also be converted to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase or oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase.

acetyl COA can then be used in teh citric acid cycle to make CO2 and H20 or FA synthesis to make FA

661
Q

citric acid cycle

A

acetyl COA + oxaloacetic acid (4C) to make citrate/citric aci (6C). oxidized over a bunch of steps to form oxaloacetatic acid again. Cabers that are cleaved off make Co2 and leave. Makes 3 molecules of Co2 each spin, twice usually - so 6 CO2

reduced 10 NAD to 10 NADH
and 2 FAD to 2 FADH2 (oxidized)- inputs to ETC

2 ATP

662
Q

ETC

A

produces 32 ATP

actually generate ATP
each NADH produces 3 ARP
FADH2 each produces 2 ATP

so 10 NADH come in (30 ATP) total, FADH2 has 2 go in so (4ish) ATP

NADH is oxidized and electrons go down complexes and losing energy

pump hydrogens into the outer membrane to move electrons down and ATP H+ synthase

663
Q

glycogen synthesis and degradation occurs in teh

A

liver adn skeletal muscle

mobile between meals to prevent low blood sugar

664
Q

glycogenesis

A

synthesis of glycogen with UDP

665
Q

gluconeogeneisis`

A

synthesis fo glucose from noncarbo precursors

reverse og glycolysis

666
Q

boiling chips

A

The air bubbles break the surface tension of the liquid being heated and prevent superheating and bumping

667
Q

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the surface pressure.

A

which is usually 1atm

668
Q

color and orbitals

A

The color arises because nickel(II) ion has partially filled d orbitals and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals.

669
Q

inductive effect

A

The effect of the sigma electron displacement towards the more electronegative atom by which one end becomes positively charged and the other end negatively charged

670
Q

electric field

A

Volts/Meter= N/C

voltage / distance

671
Q

If the first harmonic has a frequency of 100 Hz, then the second harmonic

A

is 200 and the third is 300, etc.

672
Q

(NH3 + H+ → NH4+) does the oxidation state of N change?

A

No! tell me why??

673
Q

One mole of gas occupies 22.4 L at STP.

A

yes

674
Q

you cannot turn a tertiary alc to a

A

ketone

675
Q

Z

A

same side

676
Q

E

A

opposite sides

677
Q

Two vectors of magnitudes |A| = 8 units and |B| = 5 units make an angle that can vary from 0° to 180°. The magnitude of the resultant vector A + B CANNOT have the value of:

A

add them together and then subtract them together- this is the range so cannot have 2!

678
Q

to correct nearsightedness, the laser beam is directed onto the central part of the cornea, resulting in a flattening of the cornea.

A

This means that the radius of curvature of the cornea is increased.

679
Q

time internval also measn

A

period

680
Q

pulsed vs. continuous laseer

A

The pulsed laser radiation interacts with the cornea for a shorter time than a continuous laser radiation, thus less heat is transferred to the cornea. This allows the cornea to maintain a lower average temperature by cooling off between pulses

681
Q

if you are given Kb - set up an equilibriu m

A

of concentrstions!

682
Q

square root of 1.2 x 10^-4 is 1 x 10^-2

A

yes

683
Q

A carbonyl group contains a C=O double bond. .

A

The first bonding interaction between atoms is always a σ bond. The second bond is formed from π symmetry orbitals

684
Q

cyclic ester

A

lacton

685
Q

ester

A

R-C(=O)-O-R

686
Q

The substrate is covalently attached to:

A

they are asking about how the substrate, glycerol 3-phosphate, covalently attaches to the active site of enzyme G3PP. In the hydrolysis reaction, we know that the active site Asp that will covalently attach to the substrate is the one that’s a nucleophile because the nucleophile is the one that is capable of bond formation, not a general acid. We are told that Asp14 is the nucleophile, so we can immediately eliminate options C and D. Next, they are asking what atom on the substrate the Asp14 attacks. We know that Asp has a carboxyl group in the side chain, which means the oxygen on the Asp is the one that attacks. We know the nucleophile in the reaction. The oxygen (from Asp14) is not going to attack another oxygen, it’s going to attack a phosphorus, and hence we can deduce that the electrophilic atom on the substrate is the phosphorus, not an oxygen. Thus, the answer is A. Hope that helps!

687
Q

v max and k cat are properotional

A

both increase or decrease

688
Q

32P undergoes the β– decay according to the reaction 32/15P →

A

32/16S + e– + energy.

689
Q

GC has

A

3 hydrogen bonds

690
Q

One company sells a defibrillator for home use that uses a 9-volt DC battery. The battery is rated at 4.2 A•hr (amp•hour). Roughly how much charge can the battery deliver?

A

Current has units of Amperes (A) which is charge per unit time, or C/s. The question is asking for how much CHARGE is delivered, meaning we need the answer to be in Coulombs. They gave us 4.2 amp •hour, which has the units 4.2 C/s • hour. In order to convert that to just coulombs, we convert hour to seconds (1 hour = 3600 seconds), and if we multiply
4.2 C/s x 3600s, this leaves us with 15,120 C

691
Q

v/t =

A

acceleration

692
Q

In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons.

A

yes!!!

693
Q

ester

A

made from acid and alcohol

694
Q

protectign group

A

no reaction from molecule