Chem-Phys1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Scientific Notation

A

method of writing numbers that takes advantage of powers of 10: significand and exponent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Significand

A

absolute value in the rang 1-10, cant be 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Converting #s to Scientific Notation

A

move the decimal point until the signficand is bigger than or equal to 1 and less than 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is 34,600, 0.0003201, 1.10 and 525,600 in scientific notation?

A

34,600, 3201, 1.10, 525,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When rounding two numbers containing decimals, in which direction should each number for multiplication go?

A

adjust the two decimal points in opposite directions: as one moves up, move the other down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When rounding two numbers containing decimals, in which direction should each number for division go?

A

adjust the two decimal points in the same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Scientific Notation Tips

A
  • Count all numbers between the first nonzero digit on the left and the last nonzero digit on the right
  • any 0s to the left of the first nonzero is consider NS
  • 3,490 has 3 sig, 3,490.4 has 4- watch for decimal places
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rounding of Sig Figs

A

round to the number of sig figs that is the same as the least number of sig digits in any of the factors given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

X^0 =

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X^A x X ^B =

A

X^(A +B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

X^A/ X^B =

A

X^(A-B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(X^A)^B =

A

X^ (A x B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(X/Y)^A =

A

X^A/ Y^A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

X^-A

A

1/X^A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

X^(A/B)

A

square root with B on the outside of X^A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Perfect Squares Example: square root of 180 =

A

square root of 4 x square root of 9 x square root of 5 = 2 x 3 x square root of 5 = 6 square root 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

square root of 2

A

1.414

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

square root of 3

A

1.732

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

LogA 1=

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

LogA A=

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Log A x B =

A

Log A + Log B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Log A ^ B

A

BLogA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Log (A/B)

A

Log A - Log B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Log (1/A)

A

-log A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Henderon-Hasselbalch equation

A

pH= pKa + Log [A-/HA]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(a + b) ^2

A

a^2 + 2ab + b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Log (n x 10^m) = log (n) + log(10^m)

A

= m + log (n)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

values of sin, cos and tan range

A

sin and cos range from -1 to 1, tan ranges from - infinity to positive infinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

inverse of sin, cos and tan used to find

A

angle of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

0 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

sin = 0, cos = 1, tan = 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

30 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

1/2, root 3 over 2, root 3 over 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

45 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

root 2 over 2, root 2 over 2, `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

60 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

root 3 over 2, 1/2, root 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

90 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

1, 0, undefined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

180 degrees sin, cos and tan values

A

0, -1, 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fahrenheit equation from C

A

F= 9/5C +32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Kelvin equation with C

A

K= C +273

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Conversion between metric prexies is accomplished by what?

A

by muiltpication or divine by appropriate power of 10. For example, millimeters (10^-3) to kilometers (10^3), multiply by 10^-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

scientific method

A

set of steps that defines the appropriate order of event to structure and carry out an experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

scientific method steps

A

generate testable question, gather data, hypothesis (if-then and testable), collect new data (experimentation or observation), analyze data, interpret data, publish, verify results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

FINER method

A

method to determine whether the answer to ones question will dd to the body of science knowledge in practical way and within reasonable period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

FINER method 5 questions

A
  1. is research study going to be feasible? - obtain necessary supplies, financial or time restraints, gather enough subjects
  2. Do other scientists find this question interesting?
  3. Is this question novel?– gain any new knowledge?
  4. Would the study obey ethical principles?
  5. Is the question relevant outside scientific community?-more important if impact more people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

errors or biasing during publication are most likely to affect which stages of scientific method?

A

affect the quality of future experimentation since their is a flawed research base and therefore subsequent hypothesis will be flawed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

basic science research

A

experimenter has so much control because done in lab not on people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

controls

A

acts as a method of verifying results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

postitive controls

A

ensure a change in the DV when it is expected

administer HIV test to HIV positive people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

negative control

A

ensure no change in the DV when no change is expected – placebo effect (observed change when people given a sugar pill)
administer HIV test to HIV negative people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

positive and negative controls create ___

A

the upper and lower bounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

IV

A

manipulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DV

A

measure or observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

causal relaionships

A

if the change in the IV always precedes the change in DV< and the change in the DV does not occur in absence of intervention, then causal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

basic science researcher errors

A

experimental bias is minimal, except if have faulty hypothesis, failing to publish results that may contradict hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

instrument error

A

may affect accuracy, precision or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

accuracy

A

also called validity- ability of an instrument to measure a true value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

precision

A

or reliability - ability of an instrument to read consistently or within a narrow range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

accurate but not precise

A

persons weight between 150-190 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

inaccurate but precise

A

129 and 131 pounds, but rlly 140 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

inaccurate tools (but precise) produce

A

systematic error/bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

controls purpose

A

controls experimental help establish casualty by demonstrating that the outcome does not occur in absence of the intervention. controls are suet keep the manipulation of diff systems as similar as possible, or as known standard against which to judge an experimental manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

human subjects research

A

experimental control is low (because of ethics) and relationships are weaker
experimental and observational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

randomization

A

control for differences between subject groups in biomedical research
placement of each subject into a control group or treatment group
coin toss random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

blinding

A

researchers have no information about which group the subject is in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

single blinded experiments

A

only the patient or assessor (person who makes measurement on patient) is blinded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

double blinded experimetns

A

both investigator, assessor and patient do not know subjects group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

confounding variables

A

internal validity decreases, alternative explanations for the data
gender, age, lifestyle things, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

types of questions: binary

A

yes or no, better or worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

continuous variables

A

on a range- percent improvement, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

categorical variables

A

SES, where do you live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

observational approach

A

cohort, cross sectional or case -control studies
no experiment/manipulation
no causality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cohort studies

A

subjects sorted into groups based on differences in risk factors (exposures) and then assessed at various intervals to determine how many subject sin each group had a certain outcome

count how many people get lung cancer with 20 people who smoke and 20 people who dont smoke over 40 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

cross sectional studies

A

attempt to categorize patients into different groups at a single point in time
prevalence of lung cancer in smokers or nonsmokers at a given point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

case control studies

A

look at how many subjects have a particular outcome to not, and then look backwards to see how many subjects in each group had exposure to a certain risk factor.
100 patients with lung cancer and 100 people without lung cancer are assessed for smoking hisotry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Hill’s criteria

A

observed relationships components that increase the likelihood of causality in the relationship

described as correlation for any observational study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

dose response relationship

A

as IV increases, increase in response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

consistency

A

relationship found in many settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

plausiblity

A

reasonable mechanism for the IV to impact the DV with support by literature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

specificty

A

change in DV is only produced by associated change in IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

coherence

A

new data and hypotheses are consistent with the current state of scientific knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

systematic error bias

A

does not impact precision, but skews data in one direction or another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

bias

A
a result of flaws in the data collection
systematic error (unidirectional) that occurs when selected subjects or collecting data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

confounding

A

error during analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

selection bias

A

subjects used for study are not representative of target population
people who volunteer vs. people who dont volunteer
gender in study, age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

detection bias

A

educated professionals using their knowledge in an inconsistent way. because prior studies indicate there is a correlation, researchers will expect to find one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

or observation bias, behavior of the study participants us altered because they recognize they are being studied
want to look good- exercise more than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

confounding

A

data analysis error
incorrect relationship is characterized
third party variables
alt explanations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

causality 3 things

A

temporal precedence, correlation (associated) and internal vliaidty (no 3rd v)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

observational relationships

A

no manipulation of the subjects environment. less conclusive and more subjective than experimental research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

ethics

A

beneficence, nonmalefience, autonomy, justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

beneficence

A

obligation to act in the pt best interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

nonmalefience

A

obligation to avoid treatnetrs or intverntions in which harm would outweigh benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

autonomy

A

responbsity to respect patients decisions and choices about own healthcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

justice

A

responsibility to treat similar patients with similar care, and distribute healthcare fairly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Belmont report

A

respect for persons, justice and benfieince

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

respect for persons

A

honesty between subjects and researcher
informed consent - know al the Risks, benefits, goals to make a knowledgeable decision if want to participant
no coercive influence
can withdraw consent at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

IRB

A

protection against unethical studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

vulnerable people

A

prisoners, women and children have special protection with research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

justice

A

morally relevant differences - diff between individuals that are ok to treat them differently (age)
NOT ok: race, ethnicity, sexual oretination- treat the same
important in selection subjects and executing research
no harm to any group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

beneficence

A

intent to cause a net positive change for both the study population and general population, minimizing potential harms - least invasive, painful or traumatic way
catheter or finger poke - equipoise- finger poke Is superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

compensatory influence

A

no impact the decision to participant, coercive influence is which subject loses autonomy to make the decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

population

A

complete group of every individual that satisfies that attributes of interest
humans- 7 billion people
American F between 18-20 YO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

parameter

A

information that is calculated using every person in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

sample

A

making generalizations about populations based on sample data
any group taken from a population that does not include ALL the people
random samples!! to ensure represenatative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

low generalizabilty

A

narrow conditions for sample selection that do not reflect target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

statistically significant

A

not as a result of random chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

internal validity

A

tendency for same experiment to produce the same results when repeated and provides support for causality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

external validity

A

ability to take the info generated and apply it to larger group. also called generalizabilty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

small sample isses

A

subject to more random variation than larger samples. if only 1 person is selected, may be an outlier. If larger sample, an outlier has less of an effect on results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

clinical significance

A

impact patients - notable change in health status as a result of research intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

protons

A

found in the nucleus
+1 charge
atomic number of an element= number of protons (Z)
all oxygens have the same amount of protons (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

neutrons

A
neutral, no charge. 
mass number (A)- sum of the protons and neutrons mass (which makes up most of the atoms mass)
a given element can have a variety of neutrons, so have different mass number (same atomic number tho)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

isotopes

A

atoms with the same atomic number but different mass numbers

determined by neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A/Z X

A

mass number/atomic number Element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

electrons

A

-1 charge.
very small mass.
move around nucleus at varying distances, corresponding to varying levels of electrical potential energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

electrons closer to nucleus have

A

lower energy levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

electrons farther from nucleus (higher electron shells) have

A

higher energy! strongest interactions with the surrounding environment and weakest interactions with the nucleus. Called valence electrons- more likely to bond with other atoms since dont feel nucleus electrostatic pull.
determine reactivity of the atom
donating or sharing increases stability in reaching highest energy level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

positively charged atom

A

cation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

negatively charged atom

A

anion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

charge is determined by

A

electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

atomic number is determined by

A

protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

heaviness of an element

A

atomic weight is constant for a given element, atomic mass or mass number vary from 1 isotope to another (because neutrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

atomic mass

A

mass of 1 proton= 1 amu= mass of 1 neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

atomic mass of an atom is nearly equal to

A

its mass number in amu, in sums of protons and neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

atomic weight

A

the weighted average of these different isotopes of an element
represents both the mass of the average atom of that element in amu and the mass of 1 mole of the element in grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

half life corresponds with

A

stability and proportions of these isotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

a mole is

A

a number of “things” (atoms, ions, molecules) that equal to Avogadros number (6.02 x 1023)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

example of atomic weight

A

atomic weight of C is 12.0 amu, which means that the average carbon atom has a mass of 1 amu and 6/02 x 10^23 C atoms have a combined mass of 12 g.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Planck relation

A

the energy of a quantum
E= hf
h= Plancks constant = 6.626 x 10^-34 J x s
f= frequency of the radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

angular momentum

A

L=mvr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

kinetic energy

A

1/2 m v ^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Bohr Model

A

angular momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

angular momentum

A

L = nh/2 pi
n= quantum number (+ integer)
h=plancks constant (6.626 x 10^-34)
angular momentum changes with regards to quantum number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

energy of the electron equation

A

E = -(R sub H)/n^2)
R sub H = Rydberg unit of energy= 2.18 x 10^-18 J/electron

energy of electrons changes with regards to quantum number
the energy of the electron increases- becomes less negative- the farther out from the nucleus it is located (increasing n)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

electrons jump when

A

the amount of energy exactly is equal to the difference between 1 orbit and another
like a staircase, not a ramp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

the orbit with the smallest, lowest energy radius

A

ground state (n=1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

excited state

A

when an electron moves to a sub shell of higher than normal energy - an orbit with a larger radii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Bohr model importance

A

explain atomic emission and absorption spear of atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

electrons can be excited with the addition of

A

heat or energy forms, bu brief and electrons will return to ground state, leading to emission of energy in the form of photons. these energy transition do not form a continuum, but rather are quantized to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

electromagnetic energy of photons equation

A
E= hc/lambda 
h= planks constant (6.626 x 10^-34)
c= speed of light in a vaccum (3.00 x 10^8 m/s)
lambda= wavelength of the radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

line spectrum

A

each line on the emission spectrum (frequency of light) corresponds to a specific electron transition. Because each element can have its electrons excited to a diff set of distinct energy levels, each possess a unique atomic emission spectrum (fingerprint for element)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Lyman series

A

hydrogen emission lines corresponding to transition from energy levels n > 2 to n= 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Balmer series

A

hydrogen emission lines corresponding to transition from energy levels n >3 to n=2
4 wavelengths in visible region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Paschen series

A

Hydrogen emission lines corresponding to transition from energy levels n >4 to n=3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

the energy associated with a change in the principal quantum number from a higher initial value ni to lower final value nf is equal to

A

the emerge of the photon predicted by plancks quantum theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Combining Bohr and PLancks calucations

A

E= hc/lambda= R sub H [1/ni^2 - 1/nf^2
the energy of the emitted photon corresponds to the difference in energy between higher energy initial state and the lower energy final state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

absorption spectrum

A

when an electron is excited to a higher energy level, it must absorb exactly the right amount of energy to make that transition. energy absorption at a specific wavelength to exciterse electrons of a particular element.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

each element has a unique

A

emission spectrum and absorption spectrum (correspond together because the difference in energy between levels remains unchanged )
absorb energy in forms of light and emit in forms of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Bohr’s model failed to

A

explain the structure and behavior of atoms containing more than 1 electron (only did Hydrogen)
did not take into account repulsion between many electrons surrounding the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

difference between Bohr’s model and modern quantum mechanical model

A

Bohr thought that electrons followed a clear defined circular pathway or orbit a fixed distance from the nucleus , whereas modern quantum mechanics showed that electrons move more rapidly and are localized within regions of space around the nucleus (orbitals). Impossible to determine where an electron is exactly at any point in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Heisenberg Uncertanity principle

A

it is impossible to simulateouly determine, with perfect accuracy, the momentum, and the position of the electon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Pauli exclusion principle

A

no two electrons In a given atom can possess the same set of 4 quantum numbers (n/l/ml and ms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

energy state

A

the position and energy of an electron described by its quantum number. the value of n limits l which limits ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

quantum number give info about

A

size, shape and orientation of the orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

quantum number n

A

principal quantum number. used in Bohr’s model and can take on any + integer number. the larger + number, the higher the energy eve and radius of the electron shell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

maximum number of electrons within a shell

A

2n^2

n- principle quantum number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

the difference in energy between two shells decreases as the distance from the nucleus increases due to

A

the energy difference is a function of [1/n^2 - 1/nf^2]
ex. difference between n=3 and n=4 shells are 1/9 - 1/16 is less than the difference between n=1 and n=2 shells (1/1- 1/4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

azimuthal (angular momentum) quantum number- l

A

refers to the shape and number of sub shells within a given energy level (shell). important implications with chemical bonding and bond angles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

the value of n limits l

A

for any given value of n, the range of possible values for l is 0 to (n-1).
ex. n==2 sub shells
l can be 0 or 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

spectroscopic notation

A
principal and azimuthal quantum numbers 
principal quantum number is a number (1, 2) and l turns into letters 
l=0: s 
l= 1: p
l=2: d
1=3: f
example. n=4 and l=2 
=4d
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

the energies in the sub shells increase

A

with increasing l values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

magnetic quantum number

A

ml. specifies the particular orbital within a sub shell where an electron is most likely to be found at a given moment in time. each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
integers between 1 and -1,including 0.
s sub shells, with l=0, limits ml to 0 because there is a single value o fm1 and only 1 orbital in s shells.
the p sub shell, l=1, ml can be -1, 0 or 1, because there are 3 values for m1 and three values in the p sub shell.
d sub shell has 5 orbitals (-2 to +2) and f has seven orbitals (-3 to 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

the shape of the orbital, like the number of orbitals is dependent on

A

the sub shell in which they are found in: s shells are spheres, p shells are dumbbells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

as atomic number increases, so does number of electrons

A

2p contains 3 orbitals. If each orbital contain 2 electrons than 6 electrons can be added during the course of filling 2p orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

spin quantum number

A

ms. spins in +1/2 or -1/2. whenever two electrons are in the same orbital, they have opposite spins- refereed to as paired. electrons in diff orbitals with the same ms values are parallel spins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

electron configurations

A

the pattern by which subshells are filled, number of electrons within each energy level and sub shell is designated by this.
use spectroscopic notation, first number denotes energy leveladn the letter is sub shell and subscript is number of electrons in subshell.

2p^4- 4 e- in the second p sub shell of the second energy level (1s and 2s are indicated to be full)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Aufbau principle

A

electrons fill from lower to higher energy sub shells and each sub shell is completed before electrons begin to enter the next one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

n+ 1 rule

A

rank sub shells by increasing energy. the lower the sum of the values of the first and second quantum number, n+ 1, the lower the energy of the sub shells.

lower n value, fill with electrons first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Hunds rule

A

in sub shells that contain more than 1 orbital, such as the 2- sub shell with 3 orbitals. This rule states that within a given sub shell, orbital are filled such that there are a max number of half filled orbitals with parallel spins. Would prefer own orbital before forced to double up with another. due to repulsions.

half filled and fully filled orbitals have lower energies and higher stability than other states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

chromium electron configuraton

A

Ar 4s^23d^4 but moving 1 e- from 4s to 3d all’s 3d to be half filled and be Ar4s^1 3d^5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

how many electrons each orbital can hold

A

s- 2
p- 3
d- 10
f-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

copper electron configuraton

A

Ar 4s^13d^10 rather than Ar4s^23d^9 as full d sub shell outweighs the cost of moving an electron out of th 4s sub shell.

never observed In p shells- not worth loss of stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

paramagnetic

A

unpaired electrons in atoms will oreint their spins in a ligament with a magnetic field and the material is weakly attracted to it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

diamagnetic

A

toms that have only paired electrons will be slightly replied by magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

valence electrons

A

outermost energy shells electrons- easily removed and available for bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

IUPAC step 1

A

identify the longest carbon chain containing the highest-order functional groups, also called the parent chain, If there are two or more chains of equal length, then then the more substituted chain gets priority as the parent chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

IUPAC step 2

A

number the chain. Number 1 is closest to the highest priority functions group. If all the same priority, numbering the chains should make the numbers of the substituted carbons as low as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

oxidation state

A

the more oxidized the carbon is, the higher priority it has in the molecule. oxidation state increases with more bonds to the herteroatoms (any atom but H and C) and decreases with more bonds to H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

rings- double and triple bonds

A

everything is the same- numbering from greatest sub. if there is a tie between assigning priority in a molecule with a double and triple bond, double bond takes precendence (not normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

IUPAC step 3

A

name the subsitutuents. Substituents are functional groups not apart of the parent chain. Name will be placed at the start of the cmpd name as a prefix, followed by name of the longest chain. only the highest priority functional groups will determine the suffix for the cmpd and must be apart of the parent chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

CH3, CH3Ch2, CH3CH2CH2

A

methyl, ethyl, n-propyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

if there are multiple subsitutents of the same type, use these prefixes:

A

di-,tri-, tetra0, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

IUPAC step 4

A

give C number designation and use prefixes

2,3-dimethyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

IUPAC step 5

A

complete the name. alphabetical order sub!!! prefixes like di-, tri- are ignored when alphabetizing. numbers are separated by commons, and form words with hyphens.
example- 4-ethyl-5-isopropyl-3,3-dimethyloctane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

hydrocarbons

A

only C’s and H’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

alcohols

A

C’s, H’s and OH!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

alkane

A

simply hydrocarbons with the formula CnH2n+2.
methane- 1C
ethane-2C
propane-3C
butane-4C
meth isn’t ethical or propiate BUT
pent, hex, hept, oct, non, dec, undec, dodec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

halogens

A

common sub on alkanes. alkyl halides are indicated by prefix: fluoro, chloro, bromo, iodo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

-ene, -yne

A

double and triple bonds. usually is named like a sub and numbered by lowest C.
example: 2-butene, or but-2-ene
1,3-butadiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

alcohols

A

named by replacing -e at the end of the name with -ol. -OH gets the lowest possible number, even when there is a multiple bond present due to its higher oxidation state. If alcohol is not highest sub group, then it is called hydroxy-.
ex. ethanol
5-methyl-2-heptanol
hept-6-en-1-ol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

alcohols with 2 hydroxyl gross are called diols or glycols

A

and are indicated with the suffix -diol. ex. ethane-1,2-diol has hydroxy group on each C. diol is added at end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

diols with hydroxyl groups on the same carbon

A

geminal diols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

diols with hydroxyl groups on adjacent carbons

A

vicinal diols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

2-propanol

A

isopropyl alchol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

ethanol

A

ethyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

aldehydes and ketones both contain a

A

carbonyl group, C=O. with no leaving groups connected to the carbonyl carbon- only connected to the carbon chain or aldehydes with a H. if there is a higher priority group, name ketone and aldehydes with prefix oxo- or keto- for ketones only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

aldehydes

A

chain terminating- end of parent chain. generally attached to carbon 1 bc takes priority. Replace -e with -al.
ex. butanal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

ketones

A

found in the middle of carbon chains. replace -e with -one. give lowest possible number
ex. 2-penanone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

methanal, ethanal, propanal

A

formaldehyde, acetaldehyde, propionaldehyde.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

propanone

A

always ketone on C2.

acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

carbon adjacent to the carbonyl carbon

A

alpha. successive C’s are beta, gamma, and delta. on ketone, both C’s are considered alphas in the carbonyl carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

ketones and aldehydes both take precedence over:

A

alcohols and hydrocarbon chains, and the functional group that is the highest priority determines the suffix. aldehydes usually do suffix because they are terminating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

carboxylic acids

A

both a carbonyl group (C=O) and a hydroxyl group (-OH) on a terminal carbon. terminal functional groups like aldehydes. Oxidized carbon!!! (3bonds to it)so HIGHEST PRIORITY GROUP EVER! replace -e with -oic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

formic acid, acetic acid, propionic acid

A

methanoic acid, ethahnoic acid, propanoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

esters

A

common carboxylic acid dervitaitves. hydroxyl group (-oh) is replaced with an alkoxy group (-OR, where R is a hydrocarbon chain). based on carboxyl naming. first term is how many C are in the hydrocarbon chain
ethyl, methyl, propyl, etc.
second term is the parent acid, with -oate replacing -oic acid.
methyl butanoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

amides

A

carboxylic acid derivative. the hydroxyl group is replaced by an amino group (n containing group). N can be bonded to 0, 1 or 2 alkyl groups (C, H). Suffix is amide. Sub are started with capitol N in front to indicate they are bonded to N- not numbered and prefixed.
N-ethyl-N-methylbutanmide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

anhydrides

A

carboxylic acid derivative (from 2 actually and water is removed. Cyclic molecules. replace acid with anhydride in the name of the corresponding carb acid if the anhydride is formed from only one type of carb acid. if the anhydride is not symmetrical, both carb acids are named without suffix acid and before anhydride is added.
ex. ethnoic propanoic anhydride
ethnoic anhydride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

functional group proriorty list

A

carb acid (oic acid), anhydride (anhydride), ester (oate), amide (amide), aldehyde (al), ketone (one), alcohol (ol), alkene (ene), alkyne (yne), alkane (ane)

suffix ^^^^

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

mendelevs table was arranged by atomic weight, but modern periodic table is arranged by

A

atomic number (number of protons in an element)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

A elements

A

representative elements- groups 1A-VIIIA- valance elcectrons in the orbitals of either s or p sub shells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

B elemtns

A

nonrepresenative elements (transition elements - valence electrons in the s and d subsehlls) and the lanthanide and actinide series (s and f sub shells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

metals are

A

lustrous (shiny), high MP and densities, malleability (can be deformed without breaking), ductility (pulled into wires),low EN, large atomic radius, small ionic radius, low ionization e, low electron affinity, good conductors - two or more osdiations states - loosely held to atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

nonmetals are

A

upper right side of table. no metallic luster, high ionization energy, electron affinity, EN and small atomic radii and large ionic radii. poor conductors cuz cant give up e-.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

metalloids

A

both metals and nonmetals.brittleness but good conductivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

effective nuclear charge

A

a measure of the net positive charge experienced b the outermost electrons. pull toward the center. increases from L to R of the periodic table . Zeff. constant in given group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

principal quantum number

A

down the elements of a given group, increases. valence electrons are separated from the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

octet rue

A

tend to be most stable with 8 electrons in valence she

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

atomic radii

A

equal to 1/2 the distance between centers of 2 atoms in contact with one another. decreases from L to R across a period. atomic radius increases down a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

ionic radii

A

metals lose e- and become +, nonmetals gain e- and become -. metalloids go based on side they fall on. nonmetals close to metalloid line possess a larger ionic radius than counterparts. metals close to metalloid line have more ee- to lose, and experience a less drastic reduction in radius during ionization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

ionization energy

A

energy required to remove an electron from gas/- input of heat- endothermic. high Zeff, more close to nucleus, harder to remove. increases from L to R and bottom to top.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

electron affinity

A

energy dissipated by gas species when it gains an electron . opposite of ionization E. exothermic process. the stronger the electrostatic pull (higher Zeff) between the nucleus and valence e-, greater the E release will be when the atom gains an e-. increases across period from L to R, decreases from top to bottom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Electronegativity

A

measure of thr attractive force that an atom will exert on an electron in chemical bond. greater EN, more it attracts e- within that bond. lower ionization E, lower EN. first 3 nobel gases are exceptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

high reactivity to water

A

groups 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

six valence electrons

A

6 and 16 groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

contain at least 1 metl

A

groups 1-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

multiple oxidation states

A

all groups. notably 3-12 (transition metals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q
  • oxidation states
A

all groups, notably 14-17 (nonmetals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

possess a full octet in neutral state

A

group 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

group 1

A

alkali metals. Zeff low. low densities. low ionization E, low electron affinity, low EN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

alkaline earth metals

A

group 2. slightly higher effective muscular charge and slightly smaller atomic radii.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

active metals

A

group 1 and 2- so reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

chalcogens

A

group 16/ eclectic group of nonmetals and metalloids. reactive. 6 e- in valence shell and small atomic radii and large ionic radii. Ozugem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

halogens

A

group 17 are highly reactive with 7 e- valence. want to complete octet. gas to solids and liquids. high EN and electron affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

noble gases

A

group 18. inert gases. limited reactive because 8 valence e-. low BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

transition elements

A

groups 3-12. metals with low electron affinity, low ionization E, low EN, high MP and BP . malleable and good conductors. ‘different oxidation states because capable of losing diff #s of electrons from the s and d orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

if a newton is the product of a kilogram and m/s, units for pounds are

A

Force will obey the sam relationship with mass and ace elation, so always m/s. one pound = slightly x ft/secons square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

smallest to largest

A

angstrom, cm, inch, foot, mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

scalars

A

numbers that have magnitude only, on direction- distance, speed, energy, pressure and mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

A + B and B + A

A

vectors look the same - no difference in R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

A- B and B-A

A

have the same R but in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

scalar is calculated by 2 vectors by using the dot product

A

A x B = ABcos theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

vector is calculated by 2 vectors by using the cross product

A

A x B = ABsintheta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

displacement

A

has magnitude and direction- net change from initial to final direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

velocity

A

rate of change of displacement over time. speed is rate of distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

insanteous speed of an object will always be equal to the magnet of the objects

A

instaneous velocity, which measures the average velocity as the change in time approached 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

average velocity

A

displacement vector over time- vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

average speed

A

scalar. the rate of total distance traveled over a change time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

v= d/t

A

equation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

total distance traveled can Never be less than the total displacement

A

because displacement is the most direct route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

displacement

A

velocity over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Equation - gravtional force

A
Fg= Gm1m2/r^2
G= 6.67 x 10^-11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

friction equation

A

Friction = muFn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Weight equation

A

Fg= mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

acceleration equation

A

a= v/t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

direction of the friction force always opposes

A

movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

if there is no net force acting on an object,

A

then the objects not expericnign an acceleration and has a constant velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Force on you by earth and force of you on earth is

A

equal! forces are reipiorcal in magnitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Newtons first law

A

F= ma= 0. A body either at rest or in motion with constant velocity will remain that way unless a net force acts on it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Newtons second law

A

F= ma. An object of mass m will accelerate when the vector sum of the forces results in some nonzero resultant force vector. Accleraiton results from sum of force vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Newtons third law

A

Fab= -Fba
to every action there is an equal opposite reaction. For every force exerted by A on B, there is an equal but opposite force on B on A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

equations

A
V= Vo + at
x= Vot + at^2/2
V^2= V^2o + 2ax
x=vt
Fc= mv^2/r
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

the only force in free fall and projectile motion

A

gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

free fall

A

object falls with constant acceleration, without air resistance. not reach terminal velocity. 9.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

projectile motion

A

2 dimensions, x and y. . objects in motion on earth experience force and accleriton due to gravity only in y axis, Vx remain constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

greattes horizational displacement at angle

A

sin and cos are at 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

greatest vertical displacemnet at angle

A

launched vertically?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

translational equilibrium

A

forces cause objects to move without any rotational. vector sm of all the forces acting on a object is 0, constant speed and direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

rotational equlibirium

A

occurs when forces are applied against an object to cause an object to rotate around a fixed point- torque
T= F x r- Frsintheta
sum of all torques is 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

equation

A

v= frequency x wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

period

A

number of seconds per cycle- T= 1/freq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

angular frequency

A

measures in radians per second

= 2 pi frequency or 2pi/T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

wave speed

A

is the rate at which a wave transmit the E or matter it is carrying. parodic of frequency and wavlength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

frequnecy

A

measure of how often a waveform passes a given point in space. Hz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

angular frequency

A

same as frequency but in radians per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

equilibrium position

A

point with 0 displacement in an oscillating system,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

amplitude

A

max displacement of a wave from equilibrium position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

traveling waves

A

have nodes and antinodes that move with wave propganda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

standing waves

A

defined nodes and antinodes that do not move with wave propgandtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

sound waves

A

longutidal waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

principle of supoerposition

A

when waves interact, the displacemnt of the resultant wave at any point is the sum of the displacement of the two waves interacting together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

sound is produced by

A

mechanical vibrations generated by solid objects or fluids. sound is longutidal waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

ampltiud oof sound wave is related to its sound level

A

or volume. frequency of wave is related to its pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

open both sides

A

wavelength = 2L/n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

closed on side

A

wavelength = 4L/n

283
Q

string

A

wavelength= 2L/n

284
Q

isomers

A

same moclulear formula, different structures

285
Q

structural isomers

A

share their molecular formula, meaningg that their molecular weights must be the same
different physical and chemical properties
different ways to draw C6H14
conformational isomers

286
Q

physical properties

A

dont change the composition of matter- MP, BP, solubilit, door, color and density

287
Q

chemical properties

A

reactivity of the molecule with other mc and result in a change in composition

288
Q

stereoisomers

A

same chemical formula AND same atomic connectivity- same structural backbone. Differ in how these atoms are arranged in space

289
Q

conformational isomers

A

differentiations in rotation around a single sigma bond. When double bonds hold mc in specific positions, single bonds are free to rotate. Varying degrees of rotation can create different levels of strain

290
Q

conjugational isomers

A

can be interconverted only by breaking bonds

291
Q

staggered/anti conformation

A

when 2 big molcules are 180 degrees away from each other and there’s no overlap so steric are decreased

292
Q

gauche conformation

A

from anti to gauche, pass through eclipsed conformation where 2 big groups are 120 degrees apart. when two groups directly overlap with each other (same plane, same side- totally eclipsed)

293
Q

two forms of confirational iosmers

A

enatioomers and diastereomers

294
Q

chiral

A

mirror image cannot be superimposed on the OG image-lacks symmetry. looks at hands.
chiral center- C- lack a plane of symmetry

295
Q

enatiomers

A

two molecules that are non superimposale mirror images of one another. same connectivity but opposite configurations at every chiral center in the molecule. have identical physical and chemical properties except topical activity and reactions in chiral environments
RS, SR

296
Q

diastereomers

A

chiral and share the same connectivity, but not mirror images because differ at some chiral centers. occur when a molecule has two or more stereogenic centers and differ at some , but not all of these centers.
RR, RS
SR, SS
SS, RS

297
Q

C atom with 3 different subsitutrants

A

plane of symmetry and is achiral

298
Q

optical activity

A

rotation of the plane polarized light by a chiral molecule.

299
Q

racemic mixture

A

when both positive and negative enantiomers are present in equal concentrations, cancel each other out and no optic activity occurs.

300
Q

cis trans isomera

A

specific type of diasteromers in which subtituents differ in their position around an immovable bond, like a double bond. Cis if same said, opposite side is trans

301
Q

meso compounds

A

a molecule with a chiral center that has a plane of symmetry- not optically active

302
Q

Cahn-Ingold-Prelog Priority rules

A

priority is assigned based not eh atom bonded to the double bonds carbons- higher the atomic number, higher the priority. Used for EZ nomenclature, with double bounds

303
Q

Z

A

two highest priority sub on each C are not eh same side of the double bond

304
Q

E

A

opposute sides of the double bond

305
Q

RS

A

used for chiral (streogenic) centers in mc

306
Q

nomenclature of Chiral

A

assign priority- right down numbers
arrange in space- lowest priority (H) back of mc
invert stereochem- any time two groups are switched on a chiral C, the stereochemistry is inverted
draw a circle- S= counterclockwise
R (to the right)- clockwise

307
Q

fisher projections

A

horizontal lines indicate bonds that project out front eh plane (wedges) and vertical lines indicate bonds going into the plane (dashes)
same steps as above, but after make 1 switch. swap the lowest priority group with one of the groups on the vertical axis. Then turn it 180.

308
Q

ionic bonding

A

electrons are transferred from 1 atom to another and the resulting ions are held together by electrostatic interactions

309
Q

coavlent bond

A

electrons are shared between atoms

310
Q

bonding occurs in the

A

outmost shell of electrons

311
Q

the quantum numbers describe

A

the shape, size number and origination of atomic orbitals an element posses
n— energy level of a given electron- size. smaller #= closer e is to nucleus and lower its E.
L- ranges from 0 to n-1.
0=s
1=p
2=d
3=f

ml- orbitals - from -L to +L
shape
each orbital can hold 2 electrons, which are described by ms: 1/2 and -1/2

312
Q

bonding orbital

A

if the signs of the wave functions are the same

313
Q

antibonding orbital

A

If the signs are different a high E (less stable) bond is produced

314
Q

when a molecular orbital formed by head to head or tail to tail overlap

A

sigma bond! All sigma bonds are single bonds

315
Q

when two p orbitals line up parallel , their electrons clouds overlap

A

create a pi bond. cannot exist without a sigma bond

316
Q

pi bond to sigma bond

A

double bond

317
Q

sigma bond and 2 pi bonds

A

triple bond- hinder rotation

318
Q

the more bonds that are formed between atoms

A

the shorter the overall bond length is. double bond is shorter than a single bond. Hold atoms more closely together and stronger- require more E to break.

although pi bonds individually are weaker to break than sigma bonds- breaking a sigma bond may require more E so double may break to a single.
triple bond>double>sims>pi

319
Q

bonding orbitals are more stable than antibonding

A

so anti has higher E than bonding

320
Q

hybrid orbitals

A

fome day mixing different types of orbtals

321
Q

how much “s” chatacter

A

ex. sp^3

3 p’s and 1 s so 25% s.

322
Q

Carbon is most often bonded with

A

sp3 hydribitazation

323
Q

sp2

A

alkenes! 3rd p orbital is left unhydrbizaed and participates in pi bonding. three sp2 orbitals are located 120 degrees apart, separate. two will participate in C-H bonds and the other will do C=C with a sigma bond (with the pi bond above)

324
Q

sp

A

to form a triple bond, two p orbitals to form pi bonds and third p orbital will combine with s to form two sp orbitals. 180 degrees Can form triple bond or two double bonds in a row like CO2

325
Q

resonace

A

electrons in molecules that have conjugated bonds- alternating single and multiple bonds- aligns with unhybridized p orbitals down backbone. pi orbitals can delocalize through this p orbital system adding stability to the mc.

326
Q

octet rule

A

states that an atom tends to bond with other atoms so that it has 8 electrons in its outermost shell

327
Q

incomplete octet

A

these elements are stable with fewer than 8 electrons in their valence shell and include H (stable with 2), helium (2) , lithium (2) , beryllium (4) and boron (6)

328
Q

expanded octet

A

any element in period 3 and greater can hold more than 8 electrons, like phosphorous (10), Sulfur (12) chlorine (14)

329
Q

odd numbers of electrons

A

any molecule with an odd number of valence electrons cannot distribute those e to give 8 to each atom, like NO (11)

330
Q

always do octet rule

A

O, N, C, F, Na, Mg

331
Q

ionic bonding

A

one or more electrongs from an atom with low ionization energy, like. a metal, are transferred to an atom with high electron affinity, a nonmetal
NaCl
electrostatic charges hold groups together
crystal lattice structure

332
Q

covalent bonding

A

electron pair is shared between 2 atoms, nonmetals with similar EN. The degree to which their pair of electrons is shared equally or unequally determines the degree of polarity (dipole)
if shared equally- non polar
if not- polar

333
Q

cation

A

atom that loses electrons

334
Q

anion

A

gains electrons

335
Q

ionic bond

A

cation and anions, attraction

formed with nonmetal and metal

336
Q

ionic properties

A

high MP and BP, dissolve in water and polar substances, conductors of Electricity, crysatizze dilative to bring together opposite charge and all away repulsive forces

337
Q

coavlent

A

when 2 atoms of similar tendery to attract electrons form a compound, energetically favorable then completing a full transfer
weak interactions so lower MP and Bp, poor conductors of electricity

338
Q

formation of 1 covalent bond may not be sufficient to fit the valence shell so

A

atoms form bonds with more than 1 atom
single
double
triple cov bond

339
Q

bond order

A

number of shared electrons (single =1 , double =2)

340
Q

bond length

A

average distance between two nuclei of atoms in a bond

as number of shared electrons pair increases, the two atoms are pulled together, decrease in bond

341
Q

bond energy

A

energu required to break a bond by spectating its component into their isolated gas atomic state- more e- share, more E to break the bond- triple bonds have the greatest energy= stronger bond

342
Q

polarity

A

differences in EN

dipole

343
Q

non polar covalent bond

A

no seperation of change across the bond
equal or near equation
F2, N2

344
Q

polar covalent bonds

A

uneven sharing

345
Q

non polar cov bonds will form with

A

En= 0 - 0.5

346
Q

polar cov bonds will form with

A

En- .5-1.7

347
Q

ionic bonds with form

A

En- 1.7 or higher

348
Q

strongets to weakest intermolecular forces

A

H bond> dipole> LDF

349
Q

H bond

A

H with EN

350
Q

molecule

A

two or more atoms held together by a covalent bond
Co2 - diff elements
N2- same element

351
Q

molecular weight

A

sum of atomic weights for al the atoms in a molecule - amu per molecule

352
Q

formula weight

A

adding up all the atomic weights of a ion according to empirical formula

353
Q

mol weight of SOcl2

A

S: 1 x 32.1 amu= 32.1
O: 1 x 16
Cl: 2 x 35.5 = 71

total = 119.1 amu

where do u find atomic weights?

354
Q

mole

A

any substance equal to the number of particiles found in 12 g of c

355
Q

avogadros number (Na)

A

6.022 x 1023

356
Q

molar mass

A

mass of one mole of a camped is molar mass : g/mol

357
Q

equvilants

A

how many moles of the things we are interested in looking at will 1 mole of a given cmpd produce?
= mass of cmpd/ gram eqvulant weight
gram equiv weight = molar mass/ n

358
Q

law of constant composiiton

A

any pre sample of a given compound will contain eh same elements in an identical mass ratio

water- for every 1 g of H there will be 8 g of O because there is 2 H and 1 O

359
Q

empirical formula

A

only the ratio and may not give actual number of atoms

360
Q

molecular formula

A

gives the actual number of atoms of each element in the compound

361
Q

percent composition

A

mass of elect in form/molar mss x 100

362
Q

combination rxn

A

two or more rectants form 1 product

363
Q

decomposition Rxn

A

a singel reactant breaks down into 2 or more products

364
Q

combustion reaction

A

requires fuel- hydrocarbon and oxygen (oxidant)- produce CO2 and water

365
Q

single displacement rxn

A

when an atom of ion in a compound is replaced by an atom or ion of another element
Cu + AgNO3 –> Ag + CuNO3x

366
Q

double displacement

A

elements from 2 differ compounds swap places with each other to form 2 new comounds
CaCl2 + AgNo3 –> CaNo3 + AgCl

367
Q

neutralization reactions

A

acid reacts with a base to form a salt and water

a type of double displacemnet reactions

368
Q

limiting reagent

A

limits amount of product that can be formed int eh reaction

369
Q

percent yield

A

actual/theoreetical x 100

370
Q

electrolytes

A

solid ions are poor comducots because the charged particles are rigidly set in place
needs to be aqueous solution with ions floating around
HCL in water- highly dissociate = high conductors
weak electrolyte- ionizes incompletely and only some solute is dissolved- acetic aid, Hg2I2, weak acids, ammonia, weak bases, bipolar gases, glucose, Co2, O2

371
Q

Energy

A

a systems ability to do work

372
Q

Kinetic energy

A

energy of motion

k= 1/2 mv^2

373
Q

energy is in

A

Joules (kg/m^2/s^2)

374
Q

if the speed doubles the kinetic energy will

A

quadruple

375
Q

potentential energy

A

given objects position in space

376
Q

gravitational potential energy

A

PEg= mgh

377
Q

elastic potentil energu

A

PEel= 1/2 kx^2
k- spring constant - stiffness
x- displacement

378
Q

sm of objects potential and kinetic energy= total mechanical energy

A

E= U + K

379
Q

conservative forces

A

path independent and that do not dissipate energy- gradational and electrostatic
constant mechanical energy
remains constant
back to initial position - from a to b to a
full circle

380
Q

nonconservative forces

A

decrease mechanical E of system- E is dissipated
more E is dissipated with longer path
friction, air resistant,

381
Q

work is not a form of eneregyc, but a process by which E is transferred from 1 system to another

A

other way to transfer is by heat
w= F x D
work is in J

382
Q

work equations

A
W= Fdcostheta
W= P delta V -- isobaric process- pressure is constant
W= delta K
383
Q

volume stays constant and pressure changes

A

isochoiric process

384
Q

power

A

rate at which E is transferred from 1 system t another
P= W/t = delta E/t
measured in Watt

385
Q

work energy thereoym

A

Kf- Ki = delt K= W net

386
Q

as the length of the inclined plane increases, the amount of force necessary to perform the same aount o work

A

decreases (movign the same object the same displacement)

387
Q

the six simple machines are inclined plane

A

wedge,e wheel and ankle, level , pulley and

388
Q

no heat flows between 2 objects in thermal equilibrium

A

thermal contact and same temp

389
Q

chemical kinetics

A

the study of reaction rates the effects of reaction conditions on these rates, mechanisms applied

390
Q

Gibbs free energy

A

spontaneous and nonspotaneous reactions

whether a reaction will occur by itself or will it need outside assistance

391
Q

rate deterring step

A

slowest step in any proposed mechanism- acts as a kinetic bottleneck - preventing the overall reaction from proceeding any faster than the slowest step.

392
Q

activation energy

A

the minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to occur.

393
Q

collision theory

A

the rate of a reaction is proportional to the number of collisions per second between the reacting molecules.

but not all collisions create a reaction- need to collide with correct origination adn energy to brea old bonds and form new ones. Activation energy barrier needed to be overcome.

rate= Z x F
z=total number of collisons
F- fraction of collisions that are effective

394
Q

arrehenius equation for rate

A

k= Ae ^(-Ea/RT)

k= rate constant 
A-= frequency 
T= temp
-E= activation energy 
A= frequency factor
395
Q

when molecules collide with energy equal to or greater than teh activation energy they form a

A

transition state in which old bonds are weakened and the new bonds begin got form.
transition state dissociates into products , fully forming the new bonds.

396
Q

delt G reaction

A

the difference between teh free energy of the produces and the free E of the reactants

397
Q

-delta G

A

exergonic - energy is given off

398
Q

positive delta G (free energy)

A

endergonic- energy is absorbed

399
Q

factor affecting reaction rates

A

greater concentration of reactants- greater number of effective collisions per unit time- increase of frequency factor
as temp increases so does reaction rate
depends on medium (aqueous , solvents (ethanol)
catalysts - increase reaction rate without being consumed- can increase frequency of collisions with reactions, change origination, etc.

400
Q

rate law

A

rate =k [A]^x [B]^y

401
Q

zero order reaction

A

rate of formaion of product C is independent of changes in concentration of any of the reactants, A and B
constant action rate = to the rate constant k
rate = k [A]^0 [B]^0
when temp lowered- rate decreased
concentrations doubled- unaffected rate
catalyst added- rate increases

402
Q

first order reaction

A

a rate that is directly proportional to only one reactant , such that doubling the concentration of that reactant results in doubling of the rate of formation of the product.

rate - k [A]^1 or
rate - k [B]^1

when temp lowered- rate decreased
concentrations doubled- rate doubled
catalyst added- rate increases

403
Q

second order reactions

A

rate that is proportional to either the concentration of 2 reacts or to the square of the concentration of a single reactant

rate = k [A]^1 [B]^1
rate - k [A]^2
rate - k [B]^2

when temp lowered- rate decreased
concentrations doubled- rate multiplied by 4
catalyst added- rate increases

404
Q

carbonyl

A

in aldehydes and ketones, s well as esters, carboxylic acids, amides, anhydrides
double bondbetween a carbon and an oxygen
nucleophile or electrophile

405
Q

ketone

A

2 alkyl groups bonded to the carbonyl

never a terminal group

406
Q

ALDEhyde

A

1 alkyl group and one hdyrogen bonded to carbonyl
terminal group
replace the -e at the end of the alkane with the suffix -al.
methanols, ethanol, propanal, butanal, pentanal

407
Q

methanol

A

formadelhyde (1C)

408
Q

ethanol

A

acetaldehyde (2C)

409
Q

aldehydes as functional groups have prefix

A

oxo-

410
Q

ketones are named by replacing the

A

-e with -one
two alkyl groups named alphbetcually and then followed yb ketone
as subsistuntes, use prefix oxo- or keto-
2-propanone (dimethyl ketone, acetone)
2-butanone (ethylmethylketone)

411
Q

physical properties of aldehydes and ketones

A

governed by the carbonyl group.
dipole is stronger wut carbonyl because double bonded oxygen is more electron withdrawing.
increased intermolecular attractions with an elevation in BP (less than alc tho because no H bonding)

electrophile- due to electron withdrawing of carbonyl O, partial positive on C.
aldehydes more reactive to nucleophiles because have less steric hinderance

412
Q

order of names

A

meth eth prop but

413
Q

forming an aldelhyde

A

oxidation of primary alc but can only be produced using weaker oxidizing agents like PCC

414
Q

ketones formed

A

by the oxidiadation of secondary alcohol

415
Q

nucleophile attack on carbonyl C

A

nucleophile attacks and forms a covalent bond with the C, breaking pi bond in carbonyl. elections from pi bond are pushed Onto oxygen which accepts extra e- due to electron. Breaking the pi bond forms a tetrahedral intermediate. Need a good leaving group to reform (with aldehydes and ketones- dont reform). Can pick up H from solution and make alc. Good leaving groups are present with carboxylic acid and double bond can reform pushing off the leaving group.

416
Q

geminal diols

A

in the presence of water . The nuceoleophilic oxygen in water attacks the electrophilic carbonyl Carbonyl C, pushing electrons up from the double bond and attaching water on. Water loses its one H to the top O and so now 2 alcohol

417
Q

aldehydes and ketones treated with alchols

A

hemiacetal or hemiketal.
retention of the hydroxyl group.
Attacks (ROH) and oxygen loses double bond. Grabs alcohol H and so there’s 1 Alc and 1 OR group.

2 equivalents- proceed to competition with 2 OR groups instead of just 1 (get rid of alc)
SN1 reaction
OH proontated and lost as water in acidic conditions.
form acetals and ketals - protecting groups

418
Q

nitrogen and nitrogen based functional groups act as good

A

nucleophiles due to teh lone pair of electrons on nitrogen, react radoly with electrophilic Carboxyl on aldehydes and ketones.

419
Q

imine

A

ammonia adds to the C atom adn water is lost
N atom double bonded to to a C atom
in Carbonyl - ketones and aldehydes
example of condensation reaction because small molecule is lost during formation of a bond between 2 molecules.

also a nucleophilic subsection reaction

420
Q

immines and other N groups can undergo tautomeization to form

A

enamines, which contain both a double bond and a N containing group

421
Q

when HCN (triple bonds and electroneg N atom)reacts with an aldehyde or ketone

A

cyanohydrin is produced, which is a stable product (C-C bond)

422
Q

oxidation and reduction spectrum

A

aldehydes are more oxidized than alcohol, but less than carboxylic acids. Ketones are as oxidized as secondary carbons can get.

423
Q

when aldehydes are further oxidized

A

form carboyxlic acid

with KMnO4, CRO3 Ag2O, H2O2

424
Q

carboxylic acid

A

r group to a double bond oxygen adn carbonyl C to an alcohol group.

425
Q

hydride reagents

A

aldehydes and ketones undergo reduction to form alcohol. LiAlH4 and NABH4

426
Q

alpha carbon

A

adjacent to the carbonyl carbon adn the hydrogens connected to alpha C are termed alpha hydrogens.
easy to deprornoate alpha carbon of an aldehyde and ketone because oxygens pulls some electron density away fro the C-H bonds making them weak

427
Q

acidity of alpha hydrogens

A

by resonance stabilization of the conjugate base and also inductive effects. The electronegative oxygen atom pulls electron density away from C-H bonds, weakening it. Once deprotonaed, resonance stabilization of the neg charge between alpha C , carbon C and electron withdrawing carbonyl oxygen increases the stability of this form

428
Q

the alpha. hydrogens of aldehydes and more acidic than those of

A

ketones. due to electron donating char of the second alkyl group in ketones. This extra alkyl group destabilizes the carbanion (intermediate with lone pairs instead of H) and disfavors loss of alpha H in ketones compared to aldehydes . Pentanal is stronger acid than pentagon and will have a lower pKA

429
Q

aldehydes are more reactive to nucleus than ketones

A

due to steric hinderance in ketones- arise from additional alkyl groups that ketones contain (in teh way more so than the aldehyde H)
ketones create a higher E intermedate so less likely to proceed

430
Q

enol

A

C to C double bond and an alcohol. Due to teh acidity of the alpha H, aldehydes and ketones exist in solution as a mixture of 2 isomers- keto and enol form

431
Q

tautomers

A

the 2 isomers (keto and enology) differe in placement of proton and double bond. Far more keto than enols because thats where equilibrium lies.

432
Q

enoization/tautomerization

A

interconverting the keto to enroll tautomer.

433
Q

enoate carbanians act as

A

nucleophiles- Michael addiition

carbanan attacks an alpha beta unsaturation carboxyl compound

434
Q

kinetic enolates

A

form rapidly and can interconvert with teh thermodynamic form – favored by fast, irreversible reactions such as with a strong statically hindered base and low temp
less stable
double bond to the less sub alpha C

435
Q

thermodyanmic enolate

A

favored by slower reversible reactions with weaker or small bases and higher temperatures

436
Q

enamines

A
tautomers of imines (C=N bond)
N may be bound to another alkyl group 
through tautomerization (movement of a hydrogen nd a double bond) , imines can be converted into enamines
437
Q

aldol condensation

A

generally the same as a nucleophilic addition to a carbonyl , but an aldehyde or ketone acts both as a electrophile (in its keto form) and a nucleophile (in its enolate form) - results in C-C bond.

438
Q

retro adol reaction is the

A

reverse of an aldol reaction where instead of a bond btween alpha and beta C of a carbonyl , it is broken. This can be favored by the addition of base and heat.

439
Q

aldol condensation Is a ___ reaction

A

condensation. 2 molecules are joined to form a single moelcule with the loss of a small molecule

440
Q

dehydration rection

A

molecule of water is lost

441
Q

nucleophile-electrophile reaction

A

in which a nucleophile pushes an electron pair to form a bond with an electrophile.

442
Q

lewis acid

A

electron acceptor in the formation of a covalent bond
tend to be electrophiles
vacant p orbital where they can accept electron pair

443
Q

lewis bse

A

electron donor in the formaiton of a covalent bond
nucleophilies
have lone pairs that can be donated- negative charges

444
Q

coordinate covalent bonds

A

covalent bonds in which both electrons in the bond came from teh same starting atom (Lewis base)

445
Q

bronsted lowry acid and base

A

acid that can donate a proton

base- accept a proton

446
Q

amphoteric

A

water- act as bronsted lowry acid and base

447
Q

electrostatics

A

study of stationary charges and the forces that are created by and which act upon these charges.

448
Q

matter

A

electrically neutral

449
Q

unit of charge

A
coloumb 
e = 1.6 x 10-19 C
both proton adn electron have this charge, but proton is posotive and electron is negative
proton has greater mass
electrons greater acceleration
450
Q

insulators

A

will not easily distribute a charge over its surface and will not transfer the charge to another neural object or another insulator.
electrons closely linked with nuclei
nonmetals
glass, hair, water

451
Q

conductors

A

charges will distribute evenly upon teh surface of the conductor. Able to turner and transport charges and are often used in circuits
metals
blood, copper, iron

452
Q

coulombs law

A

Fe = kqq/r^2

k=9x10^9

453
Q

every electric charge sets up a surrodnign electro field

A

electric fields exert forces on other charges hat move into the space of the field.
E = kQ/r^2 = Fe/q

454
Q

electric field midway meteen 2 negative charges

A

would be 0 because they are the same charges and cancel out midpoint

455
Q

negaive electrostatic force

A

points from 1 charge to the other (attaractive)

456
Q

positive electrostatic force

A

points from 1 charge away from the other (repulsive)

457
Q

direction of the electric field given as teh

A

direction that a positive test charge would move in teh presence of a source charge. Positive- point outward and negtauve- point inward

field lines- used to draw this- closer tg = stronger

458
Q

electric potentil energy

A

E = kQq/r
depends on teh relative position of one charge with respect to another charge
if both charges the same (+ and + or - and -) then potential energy will be positive

459
Q

negative charge and positive

A

unlike charges, more attractive, closer= more stable, negative potential energy

460
Q

2 positive charges

A

repulsive, potential energy is positive , repel adn therefore closer they are- less stable

461
Q

if both particles have teh same charge

A

electric potential E decreases as distance increases. if iopposite charges - increases PE as distance increases

462
Q

electrical potential E is Couloumbds law multiplied by

A

distance

463
Q

Volts = kQ/r

A

yes

464
Q

electropotential

A

ratio of a charge’s electrical potential energy to the magnutide of the charge itself

465
Q

voltage/potential difference

A

measure in the change of electric potential between 2 points, which provides an indicator of the tendency toward movement in one direction or the other

466
Q

charg will minimize potential energy

A

yes

467
Q

equpotential line

A

potential at every point is the same . sets of points and fdifference between them is the same
no voltage or acceleration
potential difference

468
Q

electric dipole

A

separation of charge within a molecule such that there is a permeant or temporary region of equal adn opposite charge at a particular distance
V= kd/r^2

469
Q

electric field

A

need a charge

470
Q

magnetic field

A

charge that also moves

471
Q

magnetic force

A

external electric field acting on a charge moving any direction except parallel to the external field

472
Q

condensation reaction

A

two molecules into one with teh loss of water

carboxylic acids are formed this way

473
Q

carboxylic acids

A

amides, esters and anhydrides

replace the OH on the carboxyl group with another leaving group

474
Q

amides

A

RCONR2 formula- just NH
replace -oic acid with -amide
substituetns on teh nitrogen atom are listed as prefixes and their location is specified with the letter N. synthesized with carboxylic acids adn ammonia/amide
loss of H from the nucleophile

ex. N,N-dimethylethanamide

475
Q

cyclic amides

A

lactans

beta- bond between b carbon and teh nitrogen

476
Q

ester

A

dehydration synthesis products of other carboxylic acid derivatives and alcoholics
esterifying group(sub bonded to O) as a prefix
-oate relates -oic acid
ethyl ethanoate

triglycerides - storage form of fats in the body: esters of long chain carboxylic acids

477
Q

cyclic esters

A

lactones

478
Q

sponification

A

the process by which fats are hydrolyzed under basic conditions to produce soap

479
Q

anhydrides

A

condensation of dimers of carboxylic acids
RC(O)OC(O)R
symmetrical anhydrides- name acid instead of anhydride at end (ortho-phthalic acid)
formed y heating carboxylic acids and driven forward by increased stability of newly formed rings (5 or 6 ring)
high BP
alcohols can act as nuc to anhydrides to form esters and carboxylic acids
anhydrides can be reverted back to caroboxylic acid by exposing them to water

480
Q

steric hinderance

A

describes when a reaction doe snot proceed due to teh size of the sub
affect ability of the nuc to access the carbonyl carbon thus affects reactivity

481
Q

induction

A

distortion of charge across sigma bonds
dipole
electrons attracted to atoms that are more electroneg, generating a dipole
carboxylic acids groups to nuceophooc attacks

482
Q

carboxylic reactive groups

A

anhydride, esters, amides
anhydrides are stable with resonance and electron withdrawing O is very electrophilic
amides- electrons donating amino group

483
Q

conjugation

A

presence of alternating single and multile bonds

484
Q

lactams and lactones are more reactive to hydrolysis because they

A

contain more strain

torsional strain from eclipsing interaction and angle strain from compressing sp3 angle

485
Q

in the formation of amide from ammonia and an anhydrde

A

nucleophile - ammonia
electrophile- one of the carbonyl C of the anhydride
alc also nuclei to anhydrides

486
Q

tranesterifcation

A

exchange of one esterfying group for another in an ester
reaction requires an alchol as a nucleus
ethyl group of the alc replace the isopropyl butonate

487
Q

strongly acidic conditions catalyze amide hydrolysis by

A

protonating the oxygen in teh carbonyl

increases the electrophilcity of the Carbon, making it more susceptible to nuclear attacks

488
Q

snucleophilic acyl substation attack of teh carbonyl carbon results in the

A

displacement of a LG
formation of amides from nuc sub reactions between ammonia and any carboxylic acid- - also a cleavage reaction because splits anhydride

489
Q

strongly basic conditions catalyze amide hydrolysis by

A

increasing the concentration of -OH, which can act as a nuc on amide carbonyl

490
Q

amino acids

A

contain an amino group (NH2) and a carboxyl group attached to a single carbon atom (alpha C)
other 2 sub are a H atom and a R group
alpha C is chiral (stereogenic center) besides for glycine because r group is H

491
Q

amino acids are chiral so they are

A

optically active and L isomers

have S configuration except for cusstein which is R

492
Q

amino acid characteristics

A

acidic carboxyl group and basic amino group are amphoteric molecules
act as both acid and bases! amino groups can take on positive charge by being protonated and carboxyl groups can take on negative charge when deprotonated.

493
Q

when an amino acid is put in positive and negative charges

A

take on both and form a zwitterion

494
Q

amono acids are grouped into 5 categoties

A

non polar aromatic, aromatic, polar, negatively charged (acidic) and positively charged (basic)

495
Q

non polar aromatic

A

side chains saturated by hydrocarbons like alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine and also glycine and proline and met

496
Q

aromatic amino acids

A

tryptophan, phenylalamine, tyrosine

497
Q

nonpolar amino acids

A

hydrophobic
can be aromatic or not
interior or proteins

498
Q

polar amino acid

A

terminal groups containing oxygen, N, sulfur- serine, threonine, asp , glutamic, cysteine

499
Q

negtaively charged amino acids

A

aspartic acid and glutameric acid terminal carboxylate anions in their R groups

500
Q

positively charged amino group

A

arg, lysine, his have a protonated amino group in their R groups

501
Q

polar acidic and basic amino acids are all

A

hydrophilic and tend to form H bonds with water

502
Q

amino acids undergo condensation reactions to form

A
peptide bonds (through polypeptides) are the base unit of proteins
hydrolysis of pteptide bonds is catalyzed by a strong acid or base
503
Q

C-N bond of an amide is

A

planar because it has a double bond characteristic due to resonance. Double bonds exist in a planar configuration and restrict movement.

504
Q

stecker synthesis

A

one starts with an aldehde, ammonium chloride and potassium cycanide. Carbonyl oxygen is protonated, increasing electrophilicty of teh carbonyl carbon. Ammonia attack carbonyl C to form an immine which is susceptible for a nuc attack and CN- anion from KCN attacks forming Nitrile group (-C triple bond to N)
final molecule is a aminonitrile- NH2 (amino group) and a nitrile group.

water used to hydrolyze aminonitrile to form the amino acid

a condensation reaction (formation of imine from a carbonyl containing cmpd and ammonia with loss of water) followed by nuc addition(adition of nitrile group) followed by hydrolysis

505
Q

Gabriel Synthesis

A

proceeds through 2 SN2 reactions, hydrolysis and decarboxylation
begins with potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate , followed by an alkyl halide. Water is then used to hydrolyze the resulting cmpd to form teh amino acid. acid and bases as catalyst.

506
Q

phosphoric acid

A

forms the high energy bonds that carry E in ATP
inrognaic phosphate or phosphate group AKA

ha a very negative charge. when bonded to other phosphate groups in a nucleotide triphosphate, this creates repulsion with adjacent phosphate groups , increases E of the bond
can be resonance stabeized

507
Q

organic phosophates

A

C containing molecules with phosphate groups like DNA, ATP, GTP

508
Q

the 3 H in phosphoric acid have very different pkA values - allows phosphoric acid to

A

pick up or give off protons in wide pH range/ good buffer

509
Q

extraction

A

the transfer of dissolved compound (desired product) from a starting solution into a solvent in which the product is more soluble
like dissolves like- polarity
step 1: 2 solvents are immiscible (2 layers that do not mix), different polarities or basic base properties so that a compound of interest ins dissolve more easily In one than the other
repertory funnel - denser layers sink to the bottom (organic layer on top) and drain inorganic from the bottom. Keep adding teh solute (water), shake, settle, exact - multiple extractions is best

desire product + water- rotary evaporator evaporates water

510
Q

acid and bases

A

dissovle more easily in opposite acid base char. ex. acid dissolves more easily in base as it creates a conjugate base and highly charged (soluable)

511
Q

distillation

A

takes advanatge of BP in order to seperate solutions of miscible liquids by evaporation adn condensation

lower BP- vaporize first - condenses as liquid and drips down into a vessel (distillate). heating temp kept low so that the liquid with teh high BP will nt be able to make it distillate container

512
Q

filtration

A

isolates a solid from a liquid

residue (left behind-solid) adn filtrate (liquid)

513
Q

recrystallization

A

further purifying crystals in solution
dissolve product in hot solvent and let it recrystaize as it cools - desired product will recrysalize at this specifi chigh temp and imurities will remain liquid

514
Q

simple distillation

A

described above.

between temp 150 C and 25 C

515
Q

vaccum distillation

A

distil a liquid with a BP over 150 C
vaccumn lowers ambient pressure, decreasing the temp that the liquid must reach in order to have a good vapor pressure to boil
can distill compoudsn with high BP at lower temp

516
Q

fractional distilzation 1

A

seperate 2 lipid with similar BP (less than 25 degrees apart_

517
Q

chromatogaphy

A

key: more similar a compound is to its surroudnings (polar, charge, ) more it will stick to and move slowly through its surroundings

518
Q

ion exchange chromatgraphy

A

the column is given a charge, which attarcts molecules with teh opposite charge

519
Q

size exclusionc hromatgraphy

A

small pores are used- smaller moleucles are trapped while larger molecules pass through teh column

520
Q

affinity chromatography

A

spceific receptors or antibodies can trap the target of teh column; target must then be washed out using other solutons

521
Q

gas chromatography

A

mpbiel and sationary phase with gas instead of liquid
stationary - metal (where the sample is placed) ad then it is run through a stationary phase (liquid or gas) and will displace or elute teh sample adn will adhere to the stationary phase at differing strengths substances migrate at different speeds- isolate them (partionining)

522
Q

mass spec

A

molecular eight determination: ionization and fragmentation of compounds in an magnetic field and separates based on mass to charge ratio

523
Q

high performance liquid chromatography

A

HPLC.used to be with high pressure but now performed with a solvent and temp gradients, specific separation

524
Q

carboylic acids

A

nucleophiles, electrophiles, acids (give away protons)
very stable and acidic
hydrogen bnding - so High BP an intermolecular forces
-oic acid
highest priority functional group

525
Q

cyclic carboxylic acids

A

suffix carboxylic aci

526
Q

carboxylic acid properties

A

simila to aldehydes and ketones
but another acidic H to participate in runs and hydrogen bond
polar- contain carbonyl group
hydrogen bond bc contain H bonded to electroneg hydroxyl O
form dimers because of high intermolecular attraction- connected via hydrogen bond
acidic so negative charge
haev a stable conjugate base, easier for proton to leave, stonger acid

527
Q

electron withdrawing sub makes the anion

A

more syable and therefore increase acidity
electron donating sub destabilize the anion and casue the carboxylic acid to be less acidic- closer sub us to carboxylic acid, stronger effect

528
Q

photoelectric effect

A

when light with a sufficient high frequency is incident on a metal on a vacuum, the metal atoms emit electrons, producing a net charge (current)

529
Q

light beams of greater intensity produce

A

a larger current , larger electrons liberated from the metal

530
Q

when the lights frequency is above the threshold frequency, the magnitude of the resulting current is directly proportional to

A

the intensity (amplitude) of the light beam

531
Q

threshold freqency

A

minmum frequency to cause ejection of electrons. depends on type of metal.
all or none response. if less than threshold, no response

532
Q

Photons

A

light quanta

533
Q

energy of photons equation

A

E= hf
E- energy of photon go light
h- planks constants (6.626 x10^-34)
f- frequency of light

534
Q

wavelength and frequency equation

A

c = wavelength x frequency
c- speed of light - 3 x 10^ 8
waves with higher frequency have shorter wavelengths

535
Q

when electrons are ejected, excess energy is connected to kinetic energy

A

Kmax = hf-W

W- work

536
Q

work

A

minimum energy required to eject an electrtron. any excess turns into kinetic e

W= hf(t

f(t)- threshold freqneyc

537
Q

Bohr model of an atom

atomic absorption

A

electron energy levels are stable and discrete, corresponding to specific orbits. An electron can jump from a lower E state to a higher E state by absorbing a photon of light of right frequency to match teh difference between orbits (E= hf)

538
Q

when an electron falls from higher E state to lower E state

A

emits photon with energy equal to teh energy difference between 2 orbits

atomic emission

539
Q

IV spectra

A

used to find chemical structure because different bonds will absorb different wavelengths of light

540
Q

UV vis spec

A

looks at absorption of light in teh visible and UV range.

541
Q

change in molecular structure can cause shifts in absorption patterens

A

acid state- clear
basic state - bright pink- absorb all bu the longer wavelengths of visible light

can be protonated or deprotonated, double bond or aromatic

542
Q

fluroence

A

excites with UV radiation, glow with visible light. Photons of UV light have high freuqnwcy (shorter waveengths). after being excited to a higher state by UV, electron in the fluorescent substance returns to its OG state and involves less energy as it goes down- photon is emitted with a lower frequencyy the UV. if within the visible range, glow

543
Q

energ ydifference between ground state e and higher level e determines

A

the frequency of light a particualr material absorobs (absorption spectra)

544
Q

mass defect

A
the mass of the nucleus is slighter smaller than just addign protons and neutrons. 
E = mc^2
E= energy
m- mass
c- speed of light

result of matter beign converted to energy (binding energy).
have a strong nuclear force, attacrt neutrons and protons together evenn tho repulsive.

545
Q

fourfundamental forces of nature

A

strong and weak nuclear forces

electrostatic forces, gravitation

546
Q

mass defect adn biding e

A

transformation of nuclear mass to E with a resultant loss of matter
E= mc ^2

547
Q

nuclear reactions

A

fusion, fission and radioactive decay- combing or splitting of nuclei of atoms
intermediate sized atoms are most stable, when small atoms combine or large atoms split there is a lot of E released.

548
Q

isotopic notation

A

elements are preceded by tehir atomic number as a subscript and mass number as a superscript
A - mass number- protons plus neutrons
X
Z- atomic number- number of protons

549
Q

fusion

A

small nuclei combine to form larger nucleus

(hydrogen helium) - increase in nuclear mass during rection

550
Q

fission

A

large nucleus splits into smaller nuclei.

(actinides, lanthanides)- decrease in nuclear mass during a reaction

551
Q

radioactive decay

A

spontenous decay of certain nuclei accompanioned by the emission of specific particles

552
Q

isoltop decay

A

X (parent nucleuse) goes through nuclear delay to form Y (daughter nucleus) + emitted decay particle
mass numbers and Tomic numbers must be the same on both sides of the equation- balance!

553
Q

alpha decay

A

emission of alpha paticle
massive cmpared to the beta particle, double the charge
emission of alpha particle means that the atomic number of the daughter nuc will be 2 less than that of parent and parent number will be 4 less.
-4- A
X (alpha) (He)
-2- Z

554
Q

beta decay

A

emission of beta particle, or an electron. when a neutron decays into a proton.
rlly penetrating that alpha radiation
positron- mass of e but + charge
emitted: z = -1 (so add one to Z of parent) adn A=0– may emit antineutrino
opposite when protn to neuron (+1 so minus 1 to Z)
may emitneutrino in beta positive

555
Q

gamma decay

A

gamma rays emitted, which are high energy / high frequency photons. carry no charge and simply lower the E of the parent nucleus without changing mass or atomic number.

556
Q

electron capture

A

capture an inner electron that combines with a proton to forma neutron. Atomic Number is -1 (Z) than the original. reverse of beta decay
absorbs e-

557
Q

half life

A

time it takes for half of the sample to decay

558
Q

gamma radiation produces electromagnetic radtion

A

rather than nuclear fragments, it can be detected on an atomic absorption spectra.

559
Q

reactions that involve the transfer of electrons from one chemical species to another

A

oxidation reduction (redox) reactions

560
Q

oxidation

A

loss of electrongs

561
Q

reduction

A

gain of electrons

562
Q

oxidzing agent

A

causes another atom in a redox reaction to undergo oxidation and itself its reduced

563
Q

reducing agent`

A

causes the other atom to be reduced and it self is oxidized.

564
Q

OIL RIG

A

oxidation I sloss, reduction is gain

565
Q

almost all oxiizing agents contain oxygen or another EN element

A

like a halogen
O2, H2So4
KMnO4 +

566
Q

reducing agents

A

contain metal ions or hydrides (H-)
CO, C, B2H6
NADH

567
Q

alcohols

A

ROH
-OH funcitonal group is hydroxyl
replace -e with -ol
if highest priority, alcohol receive lowest possible number. If not, named as subsitutient with hydroxy- prefix

568
Q

phenols

A
alcohol rings
hydroxyl Hydrogens are rlly acidic due to resonance within the phenol ring
w groups on adjacent C- ortho 
seperate C- meta
opposite sides of ring- para
569
Q

physical properties of alc

A
hydrogen bonding (H attached to EN molecules like O, N, F) as a reuslt of extreme polarity
higher MP and BP
570
Q

hydroxyl H of phenols are more acidic tha those of other

A

alchols- due to teh aromatic nature of the ring and resonance stabilization of the negative charge on O

571
Q

alcohols with highest BP

A

more hydroxyl moleucles, more H bonding

long chain has increased LDF forces ad therefore lower BP

572
Q

electron withdrawin sub

A

increase acidity as electron donating groups decrease it

573
Q

oxidation of primary alc to aldehydes

A

PCC. stops here bc PCC lacks the water necessary to hydrate the otherwise easily hydrated aldehyde
with other oxidizing agents, aldehydes are rapidly hydrated to form geminal diols (1,1-diols) which for carboxylic acids after oxidized again

574
Q

secondary alc can be oxidized to ketones by

A

PCC or any stonger oxidizing agent

575
Q

tertiary alc cannot be oxidized becasue they are already as oxides as they can be

A

without breaking a C-C bond

576
Q

oxidation of primary alc with chromium VI (Na2Cr2O7 and K2Cr2O7) will produce

A

carboxylic acid and secondary alcohol to ketones

577
Q

CrO3- Jones oxidation

A

oxidizing primary alc to carboxylic acids and secondary alc to ketones

578
Q

hydroxyl groups are poor LG of

A

nuc sub reactions
if protonated or reacted with to form better LG
mesylate is a compound containing the functional group -SO3Ch3
Teslates: -So3C6H4Ch3- forming ester
also help with protecting groups

579
Q

aldehydes or ketones can be reacted with 2 equvi of alcohol or diol to form

A

acetal or ketal- less reactive than aldehydes and ketones and thus proetct the functional group from reacting

580
Q

treatment of penols with oxidizing agents

A

produce quinones
resonance stabilized electrophiles
sometimes aromatic

581
Q

DKA

A

diabetic ketoacidosis
can arise from th result of the bodies metabolism of FA when insulin production shut down. FA are then metabolized into ketone bodies as an alt E source to glucose, some ketones producted are ketone acids and

582
Q

irreversiable

A

reaction proceeds in 1 direction

determined by the Rate limiting reagent

583
Q

reversible

A

forward or reverse
do not usually proceed through completion because products can react to form Reagan’s
forward= reverse

584
Q

dyanmic equilibrium

A

forward and reverse reactions ae occuring

585
Q

static equilbium

A

going a the same rate reactions in forward and back so no change in the concentration of the products or reagents

586
Q

entropy

A

measure of the distribution E throughout a system or between a system and its environment

587
Q

law of mass action

A

Keq= {C^C][D^D]/[A^A][B^b}

is the system is at equilbiurm

588
Q

reaction quotient Q

A

same equation as K, but measures concentrations at any point in time
QKeq froward reaction has succeeded and reagents are lower concentration

589
Q

Q and Keq

A

Q< Keq: forward reaction has not yet reached equilibrium
greater concentration of reactants
Q= keq: dynamic equilibrium and forward and reverse are equal
Q> Keq: forward reaction exceed equilibrium and product is more

590
Q

the concentrations of pure liquids and l=solids do not appear

A

in teh equilibrium expression because based on activities of compounds not concentrations

591
Q

equilibrium constant

A

is temperture dependent

592
Q

larger Keq

A

other R the eqilibrium is

593
Q

reverse reaction of equilibrium is

A

1/keq

594
Q

Keq

A

= [products]/[reactants]

595
Q

le chatliersqif stress i

A

s applied ot the sstem, the sstem shifts to relieve that applied stressed

596
Q

at lower temp with a smaller heat transfer

A

a kinetic product forms

597
Q

at higher temp with a larger heat transfer

A

thermodynamic prodict

598
Q

density =

A

mass over volume (m/v)

kg/m^3 units

599
Q

denisty of water

A

1 g/cm^3 = 1000 kg/m^3

600
Q

Weight (Fg) =

A

density x volume x 9.8 (accelrtion due to gravity)

601
Q

specific gravity

A

SG = density/1 g/cm^3/1 000 kg/m^3

602
Q

pressure =

A

Force/Area

Pa= N/m^2

603
Q

conversions between pressures

A

1.013 x 10^ 5 Pa = 760 mmHg = 760 torr= 1 atm

604
Q

absolute hydrostatic pressure

A

total [ressure exerted on an object that is submerged in a fluid (liquids and gases)
P= P0 + density(9.8)(z)
z= depth
P0= ambiant pressure, pressure on the surface, mopstly atm

605
Q

guage pressure

A

difference between teh absolute pressure inside somewhere and the atmospheric pressure outside the place
P gauge = P-Patm

606
Q

density is directionless

A

therefore scalar

607
Q

cohesion

A

attractrive force experienced by molecules ofr a fluid of the same

608
Q

ahdesion

A

attractive forces experienced by molecules of a fluid for a sdifferent molecule

609
Q

adhesive adn cohesive forces are equal

A

no meniscues form and liquid surface is flat

610
Q

molarity

A

the number of moles of solute per liter of solution: 1 M = 1 mol/L

611
Q

mol

A

item times avos number: 6.022 x 10^23

612
Q

molarity times volume (in liters) equals

A

the number of moles of a substance that are present (mol = M × V).

613
Q

millimolar (mM), micromolar (µM), and nanomolar (nM) concentrations

A

1 × 10-3 M, 1 × 10-6 M, and 1 × 10-9 M

614
Q

adding salt to water causes BP of water to

A

increase, requiring a greater average kinetic energy of the liquid to produce a vapor pressure equal to the external pressure.
lowering melting point

615
Q

boiling water

A

pressure of the atmosphere = pressure to vaporize

616
Q

Vapor pressure

A

the pressure of the vapor phase that exists (to some degree) immediately above the surface of any liquid. A higher vapor pressure indicates that a larger number of solvent particles were able to escape the liquid and enter the gas phase. When vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure exerted on the liquid’s surface, the liquid will boil.

more solute particles causes a reduction in vapor pressure

617
Q

BP = vapor pressure reduction

A

the lower the vapor pressure, the more energy that will be required to increase that vapor pressure to a level that matches the atmospheric pressure. In other words, the more solute particles present, the lower the vapor pressure, and the higher the boiling point.

618
Q

freezing point depression

A

solute molecules disrupt the lattice structure of the frozen solvent, so more added solute corresponds to more “difficulty” freezing and a lower freezing point.

619
Q

why solid ice is more dense than liquid

A

The bent structure of the water molecule and ratio of covalently-bonded hydrogens to lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom maximizes the hydrogen bonding that occurs in the solid phase, producing a hexagonal structure with large empty spaces.
negative slope bc solid less dense than liquid

620
Q

SO32-

A

sulfite

621
Q

SO42-

A

sulfate

622
Q

Ionic compounds

A

one or more cations (positively-charged ions) paired with one or more anions (negatively-charged ion
no net overall charged

623
Q

in β-minus decay, a neutron is converted to a proton as an electron is emitted.

A

define

624
Q

Boiling chips

A

provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating

625
Q

vacuum distillation

A

lower the boiling points of the substances to be distilled.

626
Q

aldehydes have lwer boiling points than hydrogen bonding

A

aldehydes end in -al , hydrogen bonding/carb acid end in -oic acid

627
Q

Formal charge =

A

of valence electrons - sticks - dots

628
Q

N has

A

5 valence electrons

629
Q

The preferred ion configuration of many elements

A

the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same valence electron configuration as this noble gas.
complete octet

630
Q

The attractive force of this positively-charged nucleus on the atom’s negatively-charged valence electrons is termed the effective nuclear charge (Zeff). `

A

As the number of protons in the nucleus increases from left to right across a period (or row) of the table, Zeff also increases, since each additional proton adds positive charge to the nucleus.

631
Q

the atoms with the largest radii

A

bottom left

632
Q

ionic radius

A

cations (positive ions) tend to have smaller ionic radii than the atomic radii of their corresponding uncharged elements. This is because an uncharged atom must lose one or more electrons to become positively charged. On the other hand, for anions (negative ions), the ionic radius is typically larger than the corresponding atomic radius, since these species must gain electrons, and thus become slightly larger, to take on their negative forms.

633
Q

torque

A
frsin theta
perpendicular sin (90)= 1
634
Q

calculations

A

v = (6 mm) / (0.2 s) = 30 mm/s = 3 x 10-2 m/s

635
Q

Competitive inhibitors increase the Km of their associated enzymatic reactions without altering the Vmax value,

A

fact

636
Q

km

A

Km is the substrate concentration required to reach Vmax/2

637
Q

Competitive inhibition is when the inhibitor directly competes with the substrate for the active site on the enzyme.

A

This increases Km since it now takes more substrate to ensure half of the active sites are occupied. If enough substrate is supplied, it will outcompete the inhibitor; therefore, Vmax does not change, although more substrate is needed to reach it.

638
Q

noncompetitive inhibition,

A

Vmax is decreased. Since these inhibitors do not compete with the substrate, their activity is unaffected by substrate concentration. Since the inhibitor always affects a consistent proportion of the available enzyme, Vmax is reduced.

639
Q

Uncompetitive inhibition

A

thereby decreasing Vmax. Km also decreases to exactly the same degree as Vmax.

640
Q

N2

A

a very inert gas (Noble) and therefore unreactive

641
Q

power

A

v^2/r

642
Q

paraell

A

1/r + 1/r

643
Q

terpenes

A

think hormones

644
Q

IR peaks 1700-1750

A

C=O

645
Q

Ir peaks 3200 3500

A

-OH

646
Q

homotropic regulation

A

when a molecule serves as a substrate for its target enzyme, as well as a regulatory molecule of the enzyme’s activity. O2 is a homotropic allosteric modulator of hemoglobin. The four subunits of hemoglobin actually bind to oxygen cooperatively, meaning the binding of oxygen to one of the four subunits will increase the likelihood that the remaining sites will bind with oxygen as well. This is the cause of the sigmoidal curve shown in the figure.

647
Q

indicator in pH

A

usually near ht desired pH

weak acid and strong base- around 9! or greater than 7

648
Q

THIOL

A

R-SH

649
Q

amide

A

[R(C=O)NR]

650
Q

amine

A

(R-NR2)

651
Q

ester

A

R(C=O)OR’

652
Q

sulfoxide

A

[R–S(=O)–R’]

653
Q

solid to liquid to gas

A

endothermic

absorbing heat

654
Q

gas to liquid to solid

A

release heat, making them exothermic reactions

655
Q

isomers

A

he same molecular formula) but different structural or spatial arrangements of these ingredients.

656
Q

chain isomers

A

diff Skelton arrwangement

657
Q

functional isomers

A

isomers where the molecular formula remains the same, but the type of functional group in the atom is changed. For example, a compound with an oxygen atom in addition to several carbon atoms and the corresponding number of hydrogens could be an alcohol with an –OH group, or an ether with a C–O–C group.

658
Q

Positional isomers

A

given functional group in different locations (e.g., 1-pentanol vs. 2-pentanol).

659
Q

Stereoisomers

A

involve different ways that substituents can be positioned. Cis (Z) -trans (E) isomerism

660
Q

work

A

W = F⋅d⋅cos(θ)
delta KEf - KeI
which can equal PE ?

661
Q

power=

A

work/time

662
Q

Watt =

A

J/s

663
Q

1 Kw

A

1000 J/s

664
Q

(P = Fv)

A

constant force times constant velocoty

665
Q

P = IV)

A

current and velocity

666
Q

E = hc/λ,

A
h = Planck’s constant (6.62 x 10-34 J•s) 
C = speed of light = (3 x 108 m/s)
E = given =
667
Q

Cupric

A

“Cupric” tells us that we are using the Cu2+ (or copper [II]) cation.

668
Q

highest Ka

A

A higher Ka is associated with stronger acidity.
dding electron-withdrawing functional groups (like fluorine atoms) provides inductive stabilization of the conjugate base by pulling electron density away from the negatively-charged position (shown below). This stabilization increases the acidity of the original compound. Inductive effects increase if the electron-withdrawing groups are closer to the acid and if more of them are present.

669
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

phosphorylate ADP into ATP is final step
is the process in which ATP is formed as a result of the transfer of electrons from NADH or FADH 2 to O 2 by a series of electron carriers. This process, which takes place in mitochondria, is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms

670
Q

V = 2πr/T

A

yep

671
Q

Fc = mv2/r

A

yes

672
Q

suciice inhibitor

A

suicide inhibitor acts as an irreversible enzyme inhibitor.
occurs when an enzyme binds the inhibitor (structurally a substrate analogue) and forms an irreversible complex with it, usually through a covalent bond. This can involve the inhibitor being chemically modified by the enzyme during the normal course of catalysis to produce a reactive group that is specifically responsible for the formation of the irreversible inhibitor-enzyme complex.

673
Q

only amino acid that is chiral is

A

glycine (G)

674
Q

thin layer chromatography with a silica plate

A

polar substance will move slower on the plate due to polar-polar interactions between the substance and the plate. This means that the Rf value of a polar substance will be smaller than that of a nonpolar substance since the substance will move less on the plate compared to the solvent front than a nonpolar substance would.

675
Q

imine

A

C=N

676
Q

benzenes are

A

Benzene, the aromatic hydrocarbon shown below, is very stable (inert) in the presence of acids and bases and will not react with the reagents.

677
Q

speed =

A

max flow rate x area

example- -screenshot

678
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

is the enzyme that mediates pyruvate decarboxylation. This step is the critical link between anaerobic and aerobic respiration. With this link broken, cells would be limited to anaerobic respiration. Thus, a decrease in aerobic respiration makes sense in this context
acetyl COA is product and NADH

679
Q

geometric isomers

A

each of two or more compounds which differ from each other in the arrangement of groups with respect to a double bond, ring, or other rigid structure.

680
Q

epimers

A

an epimer is one of a pair of diastereomers. The two epimers have opposite configuration at only one stereogenic center out of at least two. All other stereogenic centers in the molecules are the same in each.

681
Q

anomers

A

An anomer is an epimer at the hemiacetal/hemiketal carbon in a cyclic saccharide, an atom called the anomeric carbon.

682
Q

imide

A

n organic compound containing the group —CONHCO—, with double bonded Oxygens at end

683
Q

urea

A

Nh2 on either side of the carboxylic acid

684
Q

acetate

A

Ch3 to a carboxylic acid to a oxygen

685
Q

ether

A

r-o-r

686
Q

ester

A

r to carboxylic acid to oxygen to r

687
Q

uv spec

A

measures conjugation

double bonds

688
Q

conjugation

A

Conjugation refers to the presence of alternating double bonds within the structure of an organic molecule. From its name alone, we can see that 1,3,5,7-octatetraene has such a structure.

689
Q

ammeter

A

measures current

690
Q

Moving from a lower to a higher energy level is associated with absorption of energy,

A

emission is associated with moving from higher to lowe

691
Q

The question stem states that free radicals can cause cancer, which is a result of poorly regulated cell growth and division. Cancer is generally a product of mutations in DNA that disrupt these processes. Therefore, we must choose the answer that targets DNA.

A

nucleic acids

692
Q

gamma particle

A

has no mass

693
Q

alpha partlce

A

has the most mass with 2 protons and 2 neutrons

694
Q

SDS page

A

SDS-PAGE is an electrophoretic technique which involves the binding of the anionic detergent SDS to a polypeptide chain. SDS binding denatures and imparts an even distribution of charge per unit mass to the protein, resulting in fractionation by approximate size alone during electrophoresis.

695
Q

D and L are

A

releative configurations

696
Q

R and S

A

absolute configurations

697
Q

weak acid

A

HF due to covalent bonding

698
Q

galvanic cells

A

The passage states that the cell is meant to act like a galvanic cell, meaning that it proceeds in a spontaneous fashion. Since galvanic cells always have cell potentials that are greater than 0, we can eliminate any negative options

699
Q

calcium carbonate

A

CaCO3

700
Q

Phosphorous acid

A

H3PO3

701
Q

Phosphoric acid

A

H3PO4

702
Q

perphosphoric acid.

A

H3PO5

703
Q

hypophosphorous acid.

A

H3PO2