Neuropsychology Flashcards

1
Q

Test test

What are the main categories of antidepressant?

A

TCAs, SSRIs, and MAOIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does TCA stand for?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants

One of the three main categories of antidepressant, along with SSRIs and MAOIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What class of antidepressants works by blocking the uptake of Serotonin and Norepinephrine?

A

TCAs

Fit with the catecholamine hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hypothesis may explain the effects of TCAs?

A

The catecholamine hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Hypothesis says that depression is caused specifically by low levels Norepinephrine?

A

The catecholamine hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the catecholamine hypothesis state?

A

That depression is caused specifically by low levels of norepinephrine

May explain the effectiveness of TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what two ways are TCAs generally less safe than SSRIs?

A

TCAs generally have

1) a higher toxicity (easier to overdose on), and
2) worse side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why must TCAs be prescribed with caution for individuals who have heart disease or are suicidal?

A

They have potential cardiovascular side effects and are highly toxic in overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

They generally have 1) a higher toxicity, and 2) worse side effects

A

How TCAs are generally less safe than SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which two classes of antidepressant are used for mainstream depression cases?

A

TCAs and SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which class of antidepressant is used for atypical depression cases?

A

MAOIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does MAOI stand for?

A

“Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What three symptoms of depression are TCAs especially effective for?

A

Hopelessness Anhedonia Physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What Hypothesis says that depression is caused by low levels of both Norepinephrine and Serotonin?

A

The permissive hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the Permissive Hypothesis state?

A

That depression is caused by low levels of both Norepinephrine and Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the Permissive Hypothesis differ from the Catecholamine Hypothesis?

A

Permissive: depression is caused by low levels of both Norepinephrine and Serotonin Catecholamine: depression is caused specifically by low levels of Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which Neurotransmitter is associated with ADHD?

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is the Catecholamine Hypothesis associated with TCAs?

A

Because TSAs uniquely target Norepinephrine It also targets Serotonin (which would support the Permissive Hypothesis), but SSRIs target Serotonin too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What Neurotransmitter is associated with Schizophrenia?

A

Dopamine i.e. the Dopamine hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What hypothesis is the basis of second-generation antipsychotics?

A

That schizophrenia is caused by an imbalance between dopamine and norepinephrine levels

As opposed to the Dopamine hypothesis, which focuses only on the former

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with both depression and chornic pain?

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who should TCA’S not be prescribed for?

A

People who have heart disease or people who are suicidal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug is prescribed for enuresis?

A

Imipramine (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What specific drug is used to treat OCD?

A

Clomipramine (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the three classes of antidepressants treats premature ejaculation?

A

SSRI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of antidepressant does not have anticholinergic effects?

A

SSRI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

confusion and memory impairment in older adults is a side effect of which antidepressant?

A

TCA’S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Examples of Anticholinergic side effects

A

dry mouth

constipation

urinary retention

blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TCA drug names typically end in…

A

“amines”

“tryptalines”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Three TCA drugs

A

Imipramine

Clomipramine

Amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

SSRI’s uniquely treat these three disorders

A

Social Phobia

Binge eating

Premature Ejaculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Within the antidepressant categories

TCA’s uniqely treats these three disorders…

A

Enuresis (imipramine)

Agoraphobia

Chronic Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

conduction apashia is caused by…

A

damage to nerve fibers (arcuate fasciculus) that connect Wernicke’s area to Broca’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Anomia is

A

inability to recall the names of familiar objects

(common with damage to Broca’s area or damage to the arcuate fasciculus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A person with conduction aphasia can and cannot

A

can comprehend language and speak fluently

cannot repeat what they have heard and has anomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Difficulties repeating what they have just heard is related to these areas of the brain…

A

Broca’s area and arcuate fasciculus (conduction aphasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Research has identified brain abnormalities for OCD, Tourettes, ASD in these two brain areas

A

frontal lobes and basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Exposure and Response Prevention is treatment for these anxiety related behaviors…

A

Specific Phobia,

Social Phobia,

Panic Disorder,

Agoraphobia,

Social Anxiety,

OCD,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Agoraphobia vs. Specific Phobia

A

Fear of not being able to escape vs. fear of the thing or situation itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Systematic desensitization is treatment for

A

young children with separation anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CBT used for treatment of

A

seperation anxiety for older children

GAD

Panic Disorder (via panic control therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

polythetic criteria

A

What the DSM-5 uses; Means you can have many but not all properties of a disorder to meet criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

OCD prevalence in children by gender

A

higher in males than female children

peak onset is age 6 to 15 in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

OCD higher in males or female children?

A

Males; they have an earlier onset (age 6-15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For females peak onset of OCD is

A

age 20 to 29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

OCD prevalence rate is ______ among adult males and females

A

equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Percentage of women who experience baby blues after pregnancy?

A

50-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Percentage of women who experience post partum depression?

A

10-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Insulin is released by the

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hypoinsulin causes

A

diabetes mellitus (excessive blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diabetus mellitus symptoms included

A
  1. increased appetite with weight loss
  2. confusion and mental dullness
  3. susceptibility to infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cushing’s disease symptoms include

A
  1. emotional lability
  2. memory loss
  3. depression
  4. obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cushing’s disease is caused by…

A

secretion of too much cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hyperthyrodism can mimic these psychogenic symptoms

Hormones

A

mimic anxiety and hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hyperthyroidsim (grave’s disease) is characterized by…

A
  1. accelerated heart
  2. agitation and nervousness
  3. fatigue and insomnia
  4. elevated body temp and heat intolerance
  5. increased appetite with weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hypothyroidism is characterized by…

A
  1. Slowed heart rate
  2. depression, lethargy, decreased libido
  3. impaired concentration and memory
  4. reduced appetite and weight gain
  5. lowered body temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Adolescent-onset is when a teen has no symptoms of CD before the age of _____?

A

10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Schizophrenia brain abnormalities involve the…

A

increased volume lateral and third ventricles

smaller amgydala and hippocampus

hypofrontality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ADHD brain abnormalities involve the…

A

PFC

Cerebellum

Caudate nucleus

Putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

ASD brain abnormalities involve the…

A

cerebellum

corpus collossum

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

“Recent” memories vs. remote memories in retrograde amnesia

A

Remote memories are intact while recent memories of learned information are not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Anterograde amnesia is the ability to remember

A

newly learned information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Thiamine deficiency

A

Common in Korsakoff’s syndrome; cause anterograde retrograde (recently learned info) amnesia

syn. is Alcohol-Induced Neurocognitive Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Damage to the temporal lobe causes…

A

severe anterograde amnesia,

auditory perception (not understanding what someone says),

changes in sexuality,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

benzodiazepines end in …

A

“pam” (ex diazepam)

used to treat anxiety disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Medications considered most effective at treating OCD

A

TCA’s and SSRI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Treatment for Parkinson’s disease involves medication that does what to involved neurotransmitters?

A

block excess acetylcholine

increase levels of dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by

A

loss of dopamine in the substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Before symptoms are present, Huntingtons disease can be idenitified by

A

MRI; reduced basal ganglia volume

PET scan of reduced metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Weber’s Law

A

Just noticeable difference is porportional to orginal stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fechner’s law

A

Logarithmic relationship between psychological sensation and magnitude of physical sensation

more accurate then Weber’s law for extreme intensities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Steven’s power law

A

There is a exponential relationship between psychological sensation and mag. of physical stimulus AND exponent varies based on different stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Second line treatment for ADHD

A

imipramine (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

apraxia

A

inability to execute purposeful movement

caused by damage to frontal or parietal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

akathesia

A

motor restlessness and inability to sit still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

aphasia

A

deficit in using or understanding language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

agnosia

A

???

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

anomia

A

inability to recall the names of familiar objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ataxia

A

incoordination accompanied by slurred speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Frontal lobe damage is characterized by…

A

deficits attention, concrete thinking, free recall,

perseveration and stereotypy,

personality changes,

issues with arithmetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Partial seizures commonly occur in which part of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Petit mal (absence seizures) occur in which part of the brain?

A

Thalamus (relay center for the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Damage to the Broca’s area results in…

A

expressing language

repeating what was said

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

cannot repeat what one has heard

87
Q

Wernicke’s, Broca, and conduction aphasia all involve issues with…

A

repeating what is said

88
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia is characterized by

A

impaired comprehension of language

fluent aphasia (clear speech that does not make sense)

dysnomia (inability to name objects)

89
Q

alternative medication to antipsychotics for treating Tourette’s?

A

antihypertensive

clonidine and guanfacine

90
Q

basal ganglia

A

controls voluntary movement

part of extrapyramidal system

91
Q

Broca’s area is located

A

Left frontal lobe

92
Q

Explicit (Declarative) Memory

A

Long term memory that requires conscious thought

93
Q

Implicit memory

A

long term memory that does not require conscious thought

learned by repetition (ex tying your shoes)

94
Q

Two types of explicit memory

A

Episodic (autobiographical/movie of our life)

Semantic (textbook learning)

95
Q

Two types of implicit memory

A

procedural

priming

96
Q

Prospective memory

A

remembering to do something in the future

97
Q

ERT (estrogen replacement therapy) can help with …

A

vaginal dryness

mood

risk for osteoporosis, Alzheimers, and heart disease

98
Q

High levels of serotonin are associated with

A

anxiety and appetite supression

starving gives low levels of serotonin which creates a sense of calm and control

99
Q

Low levels of serotonin are associated with…

A

Depression and Binge eating

100
Q

An effective treatment for panic attacks is…

A

antidepressants

101
Q

Damage to the left frontal lobe means

A

reduced speech

depression

apathy

102
Q

Damage to the right frontal lobe means..

A

disinhibition

happy indifference

jocularity

103
Q
A

The three-part division of the brain that is based on how the brain develops from different brain vesicles in an embryo

The hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain scheme​

104
Q

What three-part division of the brain is based on how the brain develops from different brain vesicles in an embryo?

A

The hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain scheme

105
Q
A

The brain regions that make up the forebrain

Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus

These form from the telencephalon and the diencephalon, respectively

106
Q

What brain regions make up the forebrain?

A

The Cerebrum, Thalamus, and Hypothalamus

These form from the telencephalon and the diencephalon, respectively

107
Q
A

The midbrain

  • Forms from the mesencephalon*
  • Make up of the tectum and tegmentum*
108
Q

What brain regions make up the hindbrain?

A

The brain regions that make up the hindbrain

  • The medulla, pons, and cerebellum*
  • Form from the myelencephalon and the metencephalon, respectively*
109
Q

What brain regions make up the hindbrain?

A

The medulla, pons, and cerebellum

Form from the myelencephalon and the metencephalon, respectively

110
Q
A

The two regions that make up the midbrain

  • The tegmentum and the tectum*
  • The middle of the three developmental regions that the brain forms from in vertibrates*
  • a.k.a. mesencephalon, from Greek “mesos” (middle) + “enkephalos” (brain)*
111
Q

What two regions make up the midbrain?

A

The tegmentum and the tectum

  • The middle of the three developmental regions that the brain forms from in vertibrates*
  • a.k.a. mesencephalon, from Greek “mesos” (middle) + “enkephalos” (brain)*
112
Q

“Mesencephalon”

A

Another term for the midbrain

From Greek “mesos” (middle) + “enkephalos” (brain). The middle of the three developmental regions that the brain forms from in vertibrates

Made up of the tegmentum and the tectum

113
Q

What is another term for the midbrain?

A

“Mesencephalon”

  • From Greek “mesos” (middle) + “enkephalos” (brain). The middle of the three developmental regions that the brain forms from in vertibrates*
  • Made up of the tegmentum and the tectum*
114
Q

What broader brain region is the substantia nigra located in?

A

The midbrain

  • From Latin: black substance*
  • Helps control movement. Involved in reward-seeking and addictive behavior*
  • Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons leads to Parkinsons disease*
115
Q
A
116
Q

Dopamine is uniquely associated with which disorder?

A

ADHD

117
Q

Norephinephrine is uniquely associated with which disorders?

A

Mania

Panic Disorder

118
Q

Serotonin is uniquely associated with which four disorders?

A

Bulimia

Anorexia Nervosa

ASD

OCD

119
Q

Which neurotransmitter is MOST OFTEN used to treat physical anxiety symptoms?

A

GABA

120
Q

Thyroxine is released by the…

A

Thyroid gland

121
Q

Thyroxine regulates

A

metabolism

122
Q

Hypothyroidism symptoms include

A

  1. Slow metabolism (low appetite and weight gain)
  2. Low heart rate
  3. Low sex drive
  4. Depressiona and memory challenges
123
Q

Hyperthyroidism symptoms include

A

  1. High metabolism (high appetite and weight loss)
  2. High heart rate
  3. Agitation, nervousness, anxiety
  4. Low attention span
124
Q

Insulin is released by which body organ?

A

Pancreas

125
Q

Low levels of insulin means high levels of ?

A

Glucose

126
Q

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by

A

undersecretion of insuline–> high levels of glucose

127
Q

Symptoms of diabetes mellitus include…

A
  • high glucose
  • increased appetite with weight loss
  • frequent urination and thirst
128
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia include…

A
  1. intense hunger
  2. headaches and confusion
  3. anxiety and depression
129
Q

Cortisol is secreted by which gland?

A

Adrenal gland

130
Q

Cortisol helps regulate…

A

blood glucose levels

131
Q

Undersecretion of cortisol leads to…

A
  • Fatigue
  • Low appetite and weight loss
  • irritability and depression
  • dark pigmentation

Addison’s disease

132
Q

Oversecretion of cortisol leads to…

A
  1. Obesity **
  2. Hypertension***
  3. Decreased memory
  4. Decreased libido

Cushing’s disease

133
Q

What structures are in the hindbrain?

A

Medulla oblongata

Pons

Cerrebellum

134
Q

What structures are in the midbrain?

A

Recticular Activating System

Substantia Nigra

135
Q

What structures are in the subcortical forebrain?

A

Hypothalamus

Thalamus

Basal Ganglia

Limbic System

136
Q

What structures are in the forebrain?

A

Cerebral Cortex

Frontal Lobe

Temporal Lobe

Parietal Lobe

Occipital Lobe

137
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

“vital centers”

(breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, coughing/swallowing, reflexive actions)

138
Q

Pons

A
  • arousal, sleep, respiration
  • connects to cerebellum
  • relays sensory and motor information
139
Q

cerebellum

A

balance, coordination, movement, posture

140
Q

Damage to the cerebellum results in…

A

ataxia

slurred speech, loss of blance, tremors

141
Q

RAS

A

regulates sleep-wake transition

screens incoming sensory information

142
Q

Substantia Nigra

A

helps control movement

143
Q

degeneration of dopamine producing neuron’s in the substantia nigra causes which disorder?

A

Parkinsons

144
Q

This brain area is involved in reward seeking and addictive behavior

A

substantia nigra

(due to dopamine nuerons)

145
Q

Hypothalmus is involved in…

A
  • homeostasis and temperature
  • motivated behaviors (drinking, sex, aggress)
  • physical expression of emotions
146
Q

What two structures are part of the hypothalamus?

A

suprachiasmatic nuclues

mamillary bodies

147
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

regulates circadian rhythms

signals pineal gland

148
Q

Mamillary bodies involved in

A

memory

damage to mamillary bodies and thalamus due to thiamine deficiency cases Korsakoff’s syndrome (anterograde, retrograde amnesia and confabulation)

149
Q

Hypothalamus controls which nervous systems?

A

autonomic NS and endocrine system

via the pituatary gland

150
Q

Nervous system

A

Central

(Brain——-Spinal Cord)

Peripheral NS

(Somatic ——-Autonomic–para and sympt)

151
Q

Thalamus

A

central relay system

relays incoming sensory information to cortex (except olfactory)

152
Q

Basal ganglia includes what structures?

A

Caudate nucleus

globus pallidus

Putamen

153
Q

Basal ganglia is involved in…

A

voluntary movement

expression of emotion

sensorimotor learning

154
Q

Abnormalities in the basal ganglia linked to…

A

Tourette’s

Huntington’s and Parkinson’s

Schizophrenia and OCD

ADHD

155
Q

Limbic system is called the…

A

“emotional brain”

156
Q

Structures in the limbic system include

A

amygdala

septum

cingulate cortex

hippocampus

157
Q

Amygdala

A
  • integrates and directs emotional rxns
  • attaches emotions to sensory info
158
Q

Damage to the amygdaly causes

A

a lack of fear

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

159
Q

Septum

A

Inhibits emotionality

160
Q

Damage to the septum causes…

A

“septal rage syndrome”

161
Q

Cingulate cortex

A

regulates emotional responses and pain perception

162
Q

hippocampus

A

memory and learning

degeneration of Ach neurons causes Alzheimers

163
Q

Left Hemisphere dominates in

A

written and spoken language

logical/analyticals

positive emotions

164
Q

Right hemishpere dominates in

A

spatial relationships

creative and holistic thinking

negative emotions

165
Q
A
166
Q

Imipramine is drug of choice for

A

nocturnal enuresis

also alternative stimulant to treat ADHD

167
Q

People with OCD tend to have overactivity in this brain area

A

caudate nuclues

168
Q

Overactivity in the RAS is associated with

A

attention and arousal

169
Q

Split brain patients are able to reach for objects

A

on the opposite side of where the information is processed.

  • left visual field info–pick up with left hand*
  • right visual field info–pick up with left hand*
170
Q

split brain patients are able to verbally identify objects

A

only when seeing it on their right visual field (left brain processed)

171
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by neural degeneration in what brain area?

A

substantia nigra

  • results in loss of dopamine and deficits in movement control*
  • leads to dopamine deficits in the basal ganglia–>inhibits comm. to the thalamus and as such to the motor cortex–>*
172
Q

Which neurotransmitters are catecholamines?

A

dopamime

norepinephrine

epinephrine

173
Q

which neurotransmitter is an indolamine?

A

serotonin

174
Q

What percentage of the population is left-handed.

A

90%

175
Q

What percentage of the population is right handed?

A

10%

176
Q

____% of right handers are left brain dominant (language processing)

A

95%

177
Q

___% of right handers are left-brain language dominant

A

60-70%

178
Q
A
179
Q

What structures are included in the mesencephalon (tegmuntum and tectum)

A

substantia nigra

inferior collicus

superior collicus

180
Q

What medications are used to treat Depression?

A

TCA’s

SSRI’s

MAOI’s

181
Q

What medications are used to treat Anxiety?

A

benzodiazepines

SSRI’s

barbituates

Azaspirones

182
Q

What medications are used to treat Bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium

Antiseizure medication

183
Q

What medications are used to treat Tourette’s

A

comorbid with ADHD: Antihypertensives

w/o ADHD: Antipsychotics

184
Q

What medications are used to treat Schizophrenia?

A

First generation antipsychotics

Second generation antipsychotics

185
Q

the APOE4 gene on chromosome 19 is associated with which disease?

A

Alzheimer’s

186
Q

Central vision is processed…

A

in the posterior occipital lobe

187
Q

Peripheral Vision is processed…

A

in the anterior peripheral lobe

188
Q

NDRI are prescribed for

A

depression

distractibility

ex. Welbutrin (bupoprion)

189
Q

NRI’s are prescribed for…

A

ADHD (non-stimulant)

ex. Strattera

190
Q

Drug name for Aricept

A

donepezil hydrochloride

191
Q

drug name for Cognex

A

Tacrine hydrochloride

192
Q

Examples of antagonist drugs

A

binds to site and blocks neurotransmitter action

naltrexone, beta-blocker, naloxone

193
Q

Examples of agonists

A

opiates, cannabis, nicotine

194
Q

Symptoms of NMS (neuroleptic malignancy system)

A

hyperthermia, altered consciousness, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, autonomic dysfunction

occurs with antipsychotics/neurolepticsl withdrawal from parkinson medication

195
Q

Extrapyramidal effects are common with what drug types?

What are the symptoms?

A

common with antipsychotic use; includes parkinsomnism

muscle stifness, shuffling gait, slurred speech, akathesia (restlessness), and dystonia (muscle spasms)

196
Q

Striatum holds the

A

caudate nuclues

putamen

part of the basal ganglia

197
Q

Striatum and cerebellum is involved in…

A

motor activity

198
Q

What part of the brain is the satisfaction center?

A

cingulate gyrus

199
Q

which brain part inhibits emotionaliity?

A

septum

200
Q

beta waves occur

A

when person is awake

201
Q

delta waves occur

A

when someone is asleep

202
Q

alpha waves occur

A

when a person is in a state of relaxed wakefulness

203
Q

theta waves occur

A

between a state of wakefulness and sleep

204
Q

Patient’s with wernicke’s aphasia are

aware/unaware

of their deficits?

A

unaware

205
Q

In terms of production of language, Wernicke’s apahasia is associated with

A

normal prosody, but speech is nonsense

206
Q

Precentral gyrus–located in the parietal lobe is associated with

A

motor function

207
Q

postcentral gyrus, in the parietal lobe is associated with…

A

numbness, contralateral neglect

208
Q

mild tremor, diarrhea, weight loss

are/are not

anticholinergic effects

A

are not

209
Q

confusion, impaired concentration,memory deficits,

are/are not

anticholinergic effects

A

are

210
Q

dry mouth, constipation, blurry vision, increased heart rate, decreased sweating

are/are not

anticholinergic effects

A

are

211
Q
A
212
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome is characterized by…

A

decreased fear and aggresion, increased acquiesance, hypersexuality

213
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome is caused by…

A

damage to the amygdala