Neuropsychology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is neuropsychology?

A

The study of people with brain damage due to injury, disease/illness or surgery in order to map structure of the brain.

Recently the definition has been expanded to include the biological substrates of psychological disorders e.g., depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 2 pros of neuropsychological studies?

A
  • Can show which brain areas are necessary for a particular function.
  • Can show us what processes are unitary, and might be made up of separable sub-processes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can neuroimaging studies tell us?

A

Which regions seem to be active during cognitive processes, but cannot allow conclusions to be drawn about causation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 4 cons to neuropsychological studies?

A
  • Normally look at single case studies - individual difference in performance could be a confounding factor.
  • The brain may change the way it functions, or its structure, to compensate for damage to particular structures (plasticity).
  • When only measure functions have been lost, the results = only be as reliable and specific as the tests used.
  • Brain damage is rarely neat - most of the time damage won’t be restricted to one structure, or only a portion of a structure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can conditions can cause Amnesia?

What area is damaged?

A
  • head injury
  • Severe hypoxia (carbon monoxide poisoning / cardiac arrest)
  • Herpes encephalitis
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
  • Transient global amnesia
  • Transient epileptic amnesia

Damage to wither the medial temporal lobes or the basal ganglia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 6 main features of amnesia?

A
  1. Pronounces anterograde amnesia (inability to remember info acquired after the onset of amnesia).
  2. Variable retrograde amnesia (inability to remember information acquired before the onset of amnesia).
  3. Intact working memory (e.g., digit span).
  4. Preserved general intelligence (IQ)
  5. Skills such as driving and music are unaffected
  6. Some residual learning capacity remains.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes Korskoff’s syndrome?

A

Result of long-term alcoholism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 5 main symptoms of Korskoffs syndrome?

How do symptoms appear?

A
  1. Anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
  2. Confabulation (patient glibly produces plausible stories about past events rather than admit memory loss).
  3. Meagre content in conversation.
  4. Lack of insight
  5. Apathy (patients lose interets in things quickly and are indifferent to change)

Symptoms appear suddenly, within the space of a few days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Thiamine (Vit B1) deficiency with a prolonged intake of excessive alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can Korsakoff’s syndrome be treated?

A

Yes, with massive doses of vitamin B1, but cannot be cured and has poor prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What produces time-dependent retrograde amnesia?

A

Traumatic brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What determines how far back a patient with retrograde amnesia memory is lost?

A

The severity of the injury, as it heals the memory will return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Duration of post-traumatic amnesia: What did Whitty & Zangwill (1966) find in patients with severe head injuries?

A
  • 10% had duration of less than 1 week.
  • 30% had duration of 2-3weeks.
  • 60% had duration of more than 3 weeks.

Sometimes isolated events, e.g., visit of a relative, are retained as island memories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give a brief overview of Henry Molaison case study.

What part of the brain was removed?

What were the results?

A

HM had a large bilateral portion of the medial temporal lobe removed, including the hippocampus (for epilepsy treatment).

His STM was relatively unchanged but he was unable to make new memories (anterograde amnesia). Normal attention and working memory capacities; could hold items in mind while rehearsing them. But unable to store this in the LTM. Implicit memory remained intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

The inability to make new memories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explicit-implicit dissociation in amnesia: give an overview of Graf et al., (1984) use of explicit and implicit instructions.

  1. What did the participants do?
  2. What was the implicit instruction (condition)?
  3. What was the explicit instruction(condition)?
A
  1. Made a liking rating of the study list words (dislike extremely - like extremely).
  2. Complete stems with first word that comes to mind.
  3. Complete stems with words from the liking-rating task.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give an overview of case study L.H. (double dissociation of HM vs LH).

What brain damage did he have?

What was removed?

What were the results?

A

Severe closed-head injury at age 18. Severe damage to parietal and occipital lobe.

Right temporal lobectomy. Removal of right inferior temporal gyrus. fusiform gyrus.

LH could not recognise faces, but could recognise people by the sound of their voice. Impairments were mainly visuoperceptual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the system consolidation theory (Squire & Bayley 2007)?

What does this explain regarding older memories?

A
  • The hippocampus consolidates new memories, when consolidation is complete they are stored elsewhere in the brain e.g., neocortex.
  • Explains why older memories tend to survive hippocampal damage - they have been transferred elsewhere for storage, whereas newer memories are more likely to be lost.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the reconsolidating theory (Tronson & Taylor 2007)?

A
  • Memories will rarely consist of a single trace or neural substrate. We frequently recall memories, think about them, and discuss them. Each time a memory is used, it is reconsolidated; each use of emory is associated with a new phase of storage, resulting in many different traces for the same event.

This means that the frequency of use of a memory will contribute to the extent of the amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the pros of studying neuropsychology: amnesia?

A
  • Can show which areas of the brain are necessary for a particular function.
  • Neuroimaging studies = the hippocampus is active during declarative memory, but not whether it is necessary, if hippocampus destroyed it is necessary for memory.
  • Can show us what processes are unitary, and might be made up of separable sub-processes.

(by seeing the dissociation between implicit and explicit memory in patients and within implicit memory e.g., between perceptual and conceptual priming = separable process.

21
Q

What are the cons of studying neuropsychology:amnesia?

A
  • When we measure what functions have been lost, the results can only be as reliable and specific as the tests that are used e.g., priming deficit in LH.
  • brain damage rarely neat.
22
Q

What is the forebrain made up of?

A

2 cerebral hemispheres, joined together by bundles of fibres e.g., the corpus callosum.

23
Q

Where is speech lateralised?

A

The left hemisphere.

24
Q

What physical effect can a left hemisphere stroke to to right handed people?

A

disrupt language function in 98% of right handed people.

25
Q

What do results of tachistoscope studies show re stimuli?

A

That stimuli are processed most efficiently be different hemispheres depending on type.

26
Q

What visual field processes language most efficiently?

A

Right visual field (processed by left hemisphere).

27
Q

What visual field processes faces best?

A

Left visual field (processed by the right hemisphere).

28
Q

How does most inter-hemispheric communication occur?

A

Via the corpus callosum

29
Q

What does a corpus callostomy prevent?

A

The hemispheres communicating

30
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

A disorder where people cannot recognise faces even own i.e., face blindness.

31
Q

How is prosopagnosia developed?

A

Congenital or developmental or brain damage e.g., stroke, TBI

32
Q

What brain regions are needed for facial recognition?

A

Inferior occipital cortex, the amygdala and the fusiform gyrus, especially in the right hemisphere.

33
Q

What does the occipital face area respond strongly to?

A

Parts of the face like eyes and mouth

34
Q

What does the fusiform face area respond strongly to?

A

A face viewed from any angle. Line drawings or anything else that resembles a face.

35
Q

What did Parvizi et al., (2012) find when stimulates subjects fusiform face area?

A

The subject said the experimenters face turned into somebody else’s face.

36
Q

What is the ability to recognise faces strongly correlated with re brain regions?

A

The strength of connections between the occipital and fusiform face areas.

37
Q

What is prosopagnosia the result of?

A

Fewer connections between the occipital and fusiform face areas or brain damage to these regions.

38
Q

When do somatosensory symptoms arise?

A

From damage to the parietal lobe (the somatosensory cortices).

39
Q

What changes is the post central gyrus associated with?

A

Changes in the somatosensory thresholds, impaired position sense and deficits in stereognosis (tactile perception).

40
Q

What are the results of a postcentral gyrus lesions?

Corkin et al., (1970).

A
  • Difficulty detecting light touch to the skin
  • Determining whether they were touched by one or more sharp points.
  • Localising touch positions on the side of the body contralateral to the lesion.
41
Q

What is dystonia in musicians?

A

Task-specific focal movement disorder.
Loss in fine motor control whilst playing.
Affects 1% of professional musicians.
Career ending (25% musicians affected).

42
Q

Give a brief overview of Candia et al., (2003) study of musicians with dystonia.

Sensory motor returningL therapy for hand dystonia.

A

Hand splint: immobilises different fingers (not D finger) 8 days, 20 mins (1.5-2.5hrs daily); finger movements.

N = 10 professional musicians
Unilateral focal hand dystonia.

Magnetoencephalography (MEG) Sensory evoked magnetic fields (pre/post treatment).

43
Q

What is contralateral neglect a result of?

A

Right posterior parietal lesions.

44
Q

Contralateral neglect: where does neglect occur?

What condition can this be accompanied by?

A

In visual, auditory and somaesthetic modalities on the side of the body and/or space opposite the lesion.

May be accompanied by denial of the deficit (anosognosia).

45
Q

What brain regions are most critical when it comes to implication of contralateral neglect?

A

right intraparietal sulcus and right angular gyrus.

46
Q

Contralateral neglect: give an example of a study.

What method did they use to look at the brain?

What was the task?

What did they find?

A

Muggleton et al., (2006).

Tanscranial magnetic stimulation.

Detection and location of gap between a target fixation and object (response = position of target).

Disruption of the right posterior parietal cortex = left neglect during a detection task (scene based neglect).

47
Q

Give 2 theories of neglect

A
  1. Defective sensation / perception.

2. Defective attention / orientation

48
Q

Theories of neglect: what is defective sensation / perception?

A
  • A lesion to the parietal lobes, which receive input from all the sneery regions, can disturb the integration of sensation into perception.
  • Neglect follows a right parietal lesion, because integration of stimuli becomes disturbed. So stimuli are perceived, but their location is uncertain to the nervous system, so they are ignored.
49
Q

Theories of neglect: what is defective attention / orientation?

A
  • An inability to attend to input that has been registered.
  • A defect in orienting to stimuli - disruption of a system whose function is to ‘arouse’ the person when new sensory stimulation is present