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BRS (PHYSIO) > NEUROPHYSIOLOGY > Flashcards

NEUROPHYSIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

set of tpatways to and from the CNS that innervates and regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

A

Autonomic Nervous system

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2
Q

3 divisions of ANS

A

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

Enteric

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3
Q

[ANS] synapses between neurons are made in the__________

A

autonomic ganglia

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4
Q

located in in or near the effector organs

A

Parasympathetic ganglia

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5
Q

Located in the paravertebral chain

A

Sympathetic ganglia

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6
Q

Have their cell bodies in the CNS adn synapse in the autonomic ganlia

A

Preganglionic neurons

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7
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate in the spinal cord segments ________

A

T1-L3 or thoracolumbar region

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8
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system originate int he nuclei of cranial nerves and in the spinal cord segments ________

A

S2 to S4 or craniosacral region

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9
Q

_________ of both devisions of ANS have their cell bodies in the autonomic ganglia ans synapse on effector organs

A

Postganglionic neurons

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10
Q

specialized ganglion of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Adrenal medulla

  • preganglionic fibers synapse directlt in chromaffin cells
    • secretes epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%)
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11
Q

tumor of the adrenal medula that secretes excessive amount sof catecholamnes and is associated with increased excretion of 3 methoxy-4-hydroxy mandelic acid (VMA)

A

Pheochromocytoma

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12
Q

______release norepinephine as the neurotransmitter

A

Adrenergic neurons

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13
Q

________ release ACh weheter in the SNS or PNS as the neurotranmistter

A

Cholinergic neurons

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14
Q

includes some postganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the GIT, which releasse substance P, vasoactive intestinal peptide

A

Nonadrenergic, noncholinergic neurons

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15
Q

Organization of the autonomic Nervous system

A
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16
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Short preganglionic nerve axon

A

Sympathetic

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17
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

long oreganglionic nerve axon

A

Parasympathetic

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18
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Nicotinic receptors in ganglion

A

BOTH

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19
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Muscarinic receptor in effector organs

A

Parasymapthetic

  • alpha 1, alpha 2, B1 and B2 = Sympathetic
  • nicotinic = somatic *
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20
Q

Signalling pathways and mechanisms forAutonomic receptors

A
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21
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

alpha 1

alpha 2

Beta 1

Beta 2

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22
Q

Cholinergic receptors

A

NM (N1)

NN (N2)

M1

M2

M3

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23
Q

located on vascular smooth muscles of the skin and splanchic regions, the GI, and bladder sphincters, and the radial muscle of the iris

A

Alpha 1

  • Produce excitation (contraction or constriction)
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24
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha 1 receptors

A

Gq protein, stimulation of phospholipase C and increase IP3 and intracellular calcium

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25
Q

Located on the sympathetic postganglionic nerve termnals (autoreceptors), platelets, fat cells, and the walls of the GI tract (heteroreceptors)

A

alpha 2

  • often produce INHIBITION (relaxation or dilation)
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26
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha 2 receptors

A

Gi protein, inhibition of adenylate cyclase and decrease in cAMP

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27
Q

located in the SA node, AV node, and ventricular muscle of the heart

A

B1 receptors

  • Produce EXCITATION (increased heart rate, increased conduction velocity, increased contractility)
  • sensitive to both NE and E.
  • more sensitive than alpha 1
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28
Q

Mechanism of action of B1 receptors

A

Gs protein, stimulation of adenyate cyclase and increase in cAMP

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29
Q

located on vascular smooth muscle of Skeletal muscle, bronchial smooth muscle, and the walls of GIT and bladder

A

B2 receptors

  • Porduce RELAXATION (dilation of vascular smooth muscle, dilation of brochioles, relaxation of the bladder wall)
  • More sensitive to EPINEPHRINE than NE
  • more sensitive to EPINEPHRINE than alpha 1
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30
Q

Mechanism of Action of B2 receptors

A

Gs protein, stimulation of adenylate cyclase and increase in cAMP (similar to B1)

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31
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION?

alpha 1

A

excitation

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32
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION?

alpha 2

A

inhibition

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33
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION

B1

A

Excitation

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34
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION

B2

A

Relaxation

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35
Q

located in the automic ganglia of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system, at the NM junction and in the Adrenal medulla

A

Nicotinic reeptors

  • Activated by ACh or nicotine
  • produce EXCITATION
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36
Q

Nicotinic receptors are blocked by _________ in the autonomic ganglia, but not in the NMJ

A

ganglionic blockers (hexxamethonium)

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37
Q

Mechanism of action of Nicotinic receptors

A

ACh binds to alpha subunits of the nicotinic ACh receptor.

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38
Q

The nicotinic receptors are also ion channels for ________

A

Na and K

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39
Q

Located in the heart, smooth muscle, and glands

A

Muscarinic

  • M2 (heart)
  • M3 (smooth muscle , glands)
  • activated by ACh and muscarine
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40
Q

muscarinic receptors are _______ in the heart

A

inhibitor

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41
Q

muscarinic receptors are ______ in smooth muscles and glands

A

Excitatory

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42
Q

Muscarinic receptors are blocked by ________

A

atropine

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43
Q

Mechanism of action of muscarinic receptors

A
  • Heart SA node: Gi protein, inhibition of adenylate cyclse, which leads to opening of K channels, slowing of the rate of spontaneous phase 4 depolarization and decreased heart rate
  • Smooth muscle and glands: Gq, stimualtion of phospholipasee C, and in increase in IP3 and intracellular Calcium
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44
Q

Prototype of drugs that affect autnomic activity

A
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45
Q

alpha 1 agonists

A

Norepineehrine

Phenylephrine

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46
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Phentolamine

Prazosin

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47
Q

Alpha 2 agonist

A

clonidine

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48
Q

Alpa 2 antagonists

A

Yohimbine

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49
Q

Beta 1 agonists

A

Norepinephrine

Isoproterenol

Dobutamine

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50
Q

Beta 1 antagonists

A

Propanolol

Metoprolol

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51
Q

Beta 2 agonist

A

Isoproterenol

Albuterol

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52
Q

B2 antagonist

A

Propanolol

Butoxamine

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53
Q

Nicotinic agonists

A

ACh

Nicotine

Carbachol

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54
Q

Nicotinic anatagnist

A

Curare (NMJ)

Hexamethonium (ganglionic N2 rceptors)

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55
Q

Muscarinic agonist

A

ACh

Muscarine

Carbachol

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56
Q

Muscarinic antagonist

A

Atropine

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57
Q

Effects of the autonomic nervous system on organ system

A
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58
Q

vasomotor center

respiatory center

swallowing, coughing, and vomiting center

A

Medulla

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59
Q

Pneumotaxic center

A

Pons

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60
Q

Micturition center

A

Midbrain

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61
Q

temperature regulaion center

thirst and food intake regulatory center

A

hypothalamus

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62
Q

Specialized epithelial cells or neurons that transduce environmental signals into neural signals

A

Sensory receptors

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63
Q

Types of sensory transducers

A
  • Mechanoreceptors
  • Photoreceptors
  • Chemoreceptors
  • Extreme of temperature and pain (nociceptors)
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64
Q

area of the body that, when stimualtd, changes, the firing rate of a sensory neuron.

A

Receptive field

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65
Q

Nerve fiber types

A
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66
Q

Steps in sensosry transduction

A
  1. Stimulus arrives at the sensory receptor
  2. Ion channels are opened in the sensory receptors
    • usually inward. causing DEPOLARIZATION
    • exception: Photoreceptors (HYPERPOLARIZTAION)
  3. The change in membrane potential produced by the stimulus is the receptor potential or genrator potential
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67
Q

Slowly adpating or tonic receptors

A

muscle spindle; pressure; slow pain

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68
Q

Rapidly adapting of phasic receptors

A

pacinian corpuscle; light touch

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69
Q

Sensory pathways from the receptor to the cerebral cortex

A
  1. Sensory receptors
    • transduce the stimulus to electrial energy
  2. First order neurons
  3. Second order neurons
  4. third order neuron
  5. fourth order neurons
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70
Q

First order neuron of sensory pathway

A

primary afferent neurons.

dorsal root or spnal cord ganglia

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71
Q

Second order neuron of sensory pathway

A

relay nuclei and transmit to the thalamus

located in the SC or brain stem

May cross the midlone

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72
Q

Third order neuron of sensory pathway

A

located in the relay nuclei of the thalamus

from there, encoded sensory information ascends to the cerebral cortex.

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73
Q

fourth order neurons

A

located in the appropriate sensory area of the cerebral cortex. the information received results in a conscious perception of the stimulus

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74
Q

Includes the seantion of touch, movement, temperature,and pain

A

Somatosensory system

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75
Q

Pathways in the somatosensory system

A

Dorsal Column system

Anterolateral system

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76
Q

processes sensations of fine touch, pressure, two pint discrimination, vibration and proprioception

A

Dorsal column system

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77
Q

somatosensory system that is primary consists of group II fibers

A

Dorsal column system

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78
Q

Course of Dorsal column system

A
  • Primary afferent neurons n the dorsal root
  • ascends ipsilateral to the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus of the medulla
  • cross the midline of medulla
  • ascends to the thalamus
  • ascends to the somatosensory cortex
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79
Q

processes sensations of temperature, pain, and light touch

A

anterolateral system

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80
Q

consists primarily of group III and IV fibers, which enter th SC and terminate in the dorsal horn

A

Anterolateral system

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81
Q

Course of anterlateral system

A
  • Second order neurons cross the midle to the anterolateral quadrant of the SC
  • ascends to th contralateral thalamus
  • ascends to the somatosensory cortex
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82
Q

Onion like structures in the SC skin (surronding unmyelinated nerve endings)

A

pacinian corpuscles

  • Detects vibration, tapping
  • rapidly adapting
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83
Q

Present in nonhairy skin

A

Meissner corpuscle

  • Detects velocity
  • Rapidly adapting
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84
Q

Encapsulated, detects pressure, slowly adapting

A

Ruffini corpuscle

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85
Q

transducer is on the epithelial cells, detectslocation, slowly adapting

A

Merkel disc

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86
Q

information from different parts of the body is arranged somatotropically

A

thalamus

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87
Q

Destruction of the thalamic nuclei results in the loss of sensation on the___________side of the body

A

contralateral

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88
Q

The major soatosensory areas of the cerebral cortex are _______

A

SI and SII

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89
Q

has somatotropic representation similar that in the thalamus

A

SI

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90
Q

the largest areas in the homuculus represent the ___ , _____, ____ where precise localization is most important

A

Face, hands, and fingers

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91
Q

associated with the detection anf perception of noxious stimuli

A

Pain

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92
Q

The receptors for pain are ________

A

free nerv endings

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93
Q

Neurotransmitters for nociceptors _______

A

substance P

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94
Q

carried by group III fibers.

A

fast pain

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95
Q

carried by C fibers. Achinh, burning, or throbbing that is poor;y localized

A

slow pain

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96
Q

Pain of visceral origin is referred to sites on the skin and follows the dermatome rule.

A

Referred pain

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97
Q

Refractive power of a lens is measuredin _____

A

diopters

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98
Q

equals to the reciprocal of the focal distance in meters

A

diopters

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99
Q

Farsighted. Light focuses behind the retina

A

Hypertropia

  • corrected by convex lens
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100
Q

Nearsighted. Light focuses in front of the retina

A

Myopia

  • corrected with biconcave lens
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101
Q

curvature of the lens is not uniform

A

Astigmatism

  • corrected with a cylindric lens
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102
Q

result of loss of the accomodation power of then lens

A

presbyopia

Corrected by convex lens

103
Q

Layers of the retina

A
  • Pigment layer
  • photoreceptor layer
  • External limiting membrane
  • outer nuclear layer
  • outer plexiform layer
  • inner nuclear layer
  • Inner plexiform layer
  • ganglion cell layer
  • optic nerve cell layer
  • internal limiting membrane
104
Q

Absorbs stray light and prevent scatter of light

converts 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal

A

Pigment epithelial cells

105
Q

Sensitive to low intesity light; night vision

A

Rods

106
Q

Lower visual acuity

not present in fovea

A

rods

107
Q

adpats later (dark adaptation)

A

rods

108
Q

Color vision : NO

A

Rods

109
Q

Sensitive to high intensity light; day vision

A

Cones

110
Q

Higher visual acuity

Present in fovea

A

Cones

111
Q

Color vision: YES

A

Cones

112
Q

Rods and cone are not present on the _________

A

optic disk (blind spot)

113
Q

form local circuits with the bipolar cells

A

Horizontal and amacrine cells

114
Q

_____ are the output cells of the retina

A

ganglion cells

115
Q

Optic pathway

A
  • fibers from each nasal hemiretina cross the optic chiasm
  • fibers from each nassal hemiretina remains ipsilateral
  • fibers from the lateral geniculae body form the geniculocalcarine tract and pass to the occipital love of the cortex
116
Q

cutting of the optic nerve

A

blindness in the ipsilateral eye

117
Q

Cutting the optic chiasm

A

causes heteronymous bitemporal hemianopia

118
Q

Cutting the optic tract

A

homonymous contralateral hemianopia

119
Q

Cutting the geniculocalcarine tract

A

causes homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

120
Q

The photosensitive element is _____

A

rhodopsin

  • composed of opsin and retinal
121
Q

Steps in photoreception in the rods

A
  1. light converts 11 cis retinal to all trans retinal.
  2. Metarhodopsin II is formed
  3. Metarhodopsin II activates transducin (Gt) which in turns activate phosphodiesterase
  4. cGMP levels decrease
  5. Closure of sodiu channels - > hyperpolarization
  6. Decreased release of glutamate
    • ionotoropic (excitatory)
    • metabotropic (inhibitory)
122
Q

Receptive visual fields

A
  • Receptive fields of the ganglion and lateral geniculate cells
  • Receptive fields of the visual cortex
123
Q

Neurons in the visual cortex detects _____ and _____

A

shape and orientation

124
Q

3 cortical fields of the visual cortex

A
  • Simple cells
    • respond best to bar of ligh that habe the correct position and orientation
  • Compelx cells
    • moving bars or edges of ligth with the correct orientation
  • Hypercomplex cells
    • particular length and to curves and angles
125
Q

Frequency is measured in_____

A

hertz

126
Q

Intensity is measured in ______

A

decibels , log scale

127
Q

Directs the sound waves into the auditory canal

A

Outer ear

128
Q

Air filled

contains the tympanic membrane and the auditory ossicles

A

Middle ear

129
Q

fluid filled

consists of a bony labyrinth and a series of ducts called membranous labyrinth

A

Inner ear

130
Q

The scanal vestibuli and scala tympani contains _____

A

perilymph

131
Q

perilymph has a high ______

A

sodium concentration

132
Q

Scala media contains _______

A

endolymph

133
Q

Endolymph has ahigh _________

A

potassium concentration

134
Q

The scala media is bordered by the __________

A

basilar membrane.

(site of the organ of corti)

135
Q

_____ hair cells are arranged in single rows and are few in nubers

A

Inner

136
Q

________ outer haircells are arranged in parallel rows and are greater in number

A

Outer

137
Q

contains the cell bodies of the auditory nerve (CN VIII), which synapse on the hair cells

A

spiral ganglion

138
Q

Steps in auditory transduction by the organ of corti

A
  1. sound waves causes vibration of the organ of corti
  2. hair cells bend by shearing force
  3. change in K conductance f the hair cell membrane
  4. the oscillating potential is the cochlear microphonic potential
  5. ​Intermittent firing of the cochlear nerves
139
Q

the cilia of hair cells are embbed in the _____

A

tectorial membrane

140
Q

more elastic

Basilar or tectorial membrane?

A

basilar

141
Q

base of the basilar membrane responds to _____ frequencies

A

High

142
Q

Apex of the basilar membrane (wide and compliant) responds to ___________ frequencies

A

low

143
Q

Central auditory pathway

A
  1. Fibers ascend through the lateral lemniscus it the inferior colliculus
  2. medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
  3. auditory cortex
  • Fibers may be crossed or uncrosssed
144
Q

detects anguar and linear accelaration of the head

A

Vestibular system

145
Q

The membranous labyrinth consists of _______ perpendicular semicircular canals, ____ and a _____

A

3

utricle

saccule

146
Q

Detects angular accelaration or rotation

A

semicircular canals

147
Q

Detects linear acceleration

A

Utricle and saccule

148
Q

The canals are filled with ____________

A

endolymph

149
Q

Cilia if the hair cells are embedded in a gelatinous structure calle the ______

A

cupula

150
Q

If the stereocillia are bent toward the kinocillium, the hair ________

A

depolarizes (excitation)

151
Q

If the sterocilia are bent away from the kinocilium teh hair cell _________

A

hyperpolarizes (inhiviton)

152
Q

are tre neurons that conduct action potential into the CNS

A

receptor cells of the olfactor pathway

153
Q

Only neurons in the adult human that repalce themselves

A

Olfactory neurons

154
Q

The axons of the olfactory nerves are ___________ and are among the smallest and slowest

A

unmyelinated C fibers

155
Q

the olfactory nerves pass through _______ on their way to the olfactory bulb

A

cribriform plate

156
Q

second order neurons of the olfactory pathway

A

Mitral cells in the olfactory bulb.

output projects to the prepiriform cortex

157
Q

Steps in transduction in the olfactory receptor neurons

A
  1. Odorant molecules bind to olfactory receptor proteins
  2. activate G proteins which activates adenylate cyclase
  3. increase in intracellular cAMP
  4. depolarizing receptor potential
  5. action potentals
158
Q

Taste receptor cells line the taste buds that are located on specialized _______

A

papillae

159
Q

in contrastt to olfactory cels, taste receptors are ________

A

not neurons

160
Q

Has fungiform papillae

A

anterior 2/3 of the tongue

161
Q

detects salty sweet and umami

A

anterior 2/3

162
Q

the anterior 2/3 is innervated by

A

CN VII (chorda tympani)

163
Q

has circumvallate and foliate papillae

detects sour and bitter sensations

A

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue

164
Q

the posterior 1/3 is innervated by

A

CN IX

165
Q

The back of the throat and the epiglottis are innervated by

A

CN X

166
Q

CN VII, IX, an X enter the medulla, ascend in the _______

A

solitary tract

167
Q

Consists of a single motorneuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates

A

Motor unit

168
Q

group of motorneurons that innervates fibers within the same muscle

A

motorneuron pool

169
Q

The force of muscle contraction is graded by ________

A

Recruitment of additional motor units

170
Q

States that as additional motor units are recruited, the more motorneurons are involved and more tension is generated

A

Size principle

171
Q

Innervate a few muscle fibers

lowest thresholds (fire first)

generate smallest forces

A

Small motorneurons

172
Q

innervate many muscle fiers

highest threshold

generates the largest force

A

Large motorneurons

173
Q

Types of muscle sensors

A
  • muscle spindles
  • golgi tendin organs
  • pancinian corpuscles
  • free nerve endings
174
Q

Groups Ia and II afferents

detectsboth static and dynamic hanges in muscle length

A

Muscle spindles

175
Q

Group Ib afferents

detects muscle tension

A

Golgi tendon organs

176
Q

group II afferents

detects vibration

A

Pacinian

177
Q

groups III and IV afferents

detects noxious stimuli

A

Free nerve endings

178
Q

Types of muscle fibers

A

Extrafusal

Intrafusal

179
Q

Make up the bulk of muscle

provide the force for muscle contraction

A

Extrafusal fibers

180
Q

Innervated by alpha motorneurons

A

Extrafusal

181
Q

smaller fibers

encapsualted to form muscle spindles

A

intrafusal fibers

182
Q

Innervated by y-motorneurons

A

Intrafusal

183
Q

consist of small encapsulated fibers connected in parallel with large force-genrating extrafusal fibers

A

Muscle spindles

184
Q

The finer the movement required the ______ the number of muscle spindles in a muscle

A

greater

185
Q

Types of Intafusal fibers

A

Nuclear bag

Nuclar chain

186
Q

type of intrafusal fiber that detect teh rate of change in muscle length

innervated by group Ia afferents

A

Nuclear bag

187
Q

type of intrafusal fiber that detects static changes in muscle length

innervated by group II afferents

more numerous

A

Nuclear chain

188
Q

How muscle spindle works

A
  1. sensory information about muscle lenth received by group Ia (velocity) and group II (static)
  2. if muscle lethenes, muscle spindle is also stretch stimualting group Ia and II
  3. Stimulation of group Ia - > alpha motorneurons -> contractions and shortening
189
Q

they innervate intrafusal muscle fibers

adjust the sensitivity of the muscle spindle

A

y-motorneurons

190
Q

alpha and y motorneurons are ______ so that muscle spindles remain sensitive to chaines

A

coactivated

191
Q

Summary of muscle reflexes

A
192
Q

Stretch reflex is ______

A

monosynaptic

examples: knee jerk reflex

193
Q

golgi tendon reflex (inverse myotactic) is _____

A

dysanptic

194
Q

ane xaggerated form of the golgi tendon reflex, can occur with disease of the corticospinal tracts

A

Clasp-knife reflex

195
Q

Flexor withdrawal reflex is ____________

A

polysynaptic

196
Q

Occurs when a single alha motoneuron receives inout from many muscle spindle group Ia afferent in the homonymous muscle

A

Convergence

197
Q

Occurs when the muscle spindle group Ia afferent fibers project to all of the alpha motoneurons that innervate the hmonumous muscle

A

Diveregence

198
Q

inhibitory cells in the ventral horn of the spinal cord

they receive inout from collateral axons of motorneurons and , when simualtedm negatively feedback on the motorneuron

A

Renshaw cells

199
Q

Examples of pyramidal tracts

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar

200
Q

originates in the red nucleus and projects to interneurons in the lateral spinal cord

produces stimulation of flexors and inhibition of extensors

A

rubrospinal tract

201
Q

originates in the nuclei of the pons and projects to the ventromedial spinal cords

stimulatory effect on both the extensors (predominant) and flexors

A

Pontine reticulospinal tracts

202
Q

originates in the emdullar reticular formation and prohects to spinal cord interneurons in the intermediate gray area

general inhibitory effect on both extensors and flexors

A

Medulalry reticulospinal tract

203
Q

Originates in Deiters nucleus and projects to ipsilateral motoneurons and interneurons

causes a powerul stimulation of extensors and inhibition of flexors

A

lateral vestibulospinal tract

204
Q

Originate in the superior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord

involved in the control of neck muscles

A

tectospinal tract

205
Q

Immediately after transection, there is loss of the excitatory influence fro alpha and y motoneurons. Limbs become flaccid and reflexes are absent

A

Spinal shock

206
Q

if the lesion is at _____, there will be loss of sympathetic tone to the heart.

A

C7

207
Q

if the lesion is at ________, breathing will stop

A

c3

208
Q

if the lesion is at ______, death occurs

A

c1

209
Q

Lesions above the lateral vestibular nucleus

A

decerebrate rigidity

  • removal of inhibition from higher centers
210
Q

Lesions above the pontine reticular formation but below the midbrain

A

Decerebrate rigidity

211
Q

Lesions above the red nucleus

A

decorticate

212
Q

Control of balance and eye movement

A

Vestibulocerebellum

213
Q

planning and initiation of movement

A

Pontocerebellum

214
Q

Synergery, which is control of rate, force, range, and direction of movement

A

Spinocerebellum

215
Q

innermost layer of the cerebelalr cortex

A

granular layer

  • contains granule cells, golgi type II, and lomeruli
216
Q

middle layer of the cerebellar cortex

A

Purkine cell layer

  • purkinje cells
  • output is always inhibitory
217
Q

Outermost layer of the cerebellar cortex

A

molecular layer

  • Contains stellate and basket cells, dendrites, of purkinje and Golgi type II cell and parallel fibers (axons of granule cells)
218
Q

Input to the cereballar cortex

A
  1. Climbing fibers
    • single region
    • complex spikes
    • motor learning
  2. Mossy fibers
    • many centers
    • simple spikes
    • glomeruli
    • parallel cells
219
Q

Output of the cerebellar cortex

A
  • Purkinje cells
  • GABA
220
Q

is the inability to stop a movement

A

rebound phenomenon

221
Q

Consists of striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nuclei, and substantia nigra

GABA

plan and execute smooth movements

A

basal ganglia

222
Q

Two pathways in the basal ganglia

A
  • Indirect = inhibitory
    • D2 receptors
  • Direct = excitatory
    • D1 receptors
223
Q

Connections between the striatum and substantia nigra use _____ as their NT

A

dopamine

224
Q

Lesions of the globus pallidus

A

inability to maintain postural support

225
Q

Lesions of the subthalamic nucleus

A

wild, flinging movements

caused by release of inhibition on the contralaterl side

226
Q

Lesion of the striatum

A

caused by release of inhibition

quick continuous and uncontrollable movements

Huntington

227
Q

Lesions of the substantia nigra

A

destuction of dopaminergic neurons

parkinson disease

228
Q

responsible for genrating a plan for movement

mental rehearsal

A

premotor cortex

229
Q

Primary motor cortex is area ___

A

4

execution of movement

230
Q

Epileptic evets in the primary motor cortex cause _______

A

jacksonian seizures

231
Q

EEG change

it reflecrs synaptic potentials evoked in largenumber of neurons

A

Cortical evoked potential

232
Q

In awake adults with eyes open ______ waves predominate

A

beta

233
Q

In awake adults with eyes closed ____ waves predominate

A

alpha

234
Q

During sleep ______ waves predominate

A

slow

235
Q

the circardian periodicity is thought to be driven by the _______ of the hypothalamus

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

236
Q

Rapid eye movement occurs every _______ minutes

A

90

237
Q

REM sleep is charcterized by ______________

A

eye movements, loss of muscle tone, pupilalry constricion, and penile erection

238
Q

The ______ hemisphere is dominant in facial expression, intonation, body language and spatial tasks

A

Right

239
Q

The _____ hemisphere is usually dominatn with respect to language

A

left

240
Q

Damage to the ______area causes sensory aphasia

A

Wernicke

241
Q

Damage to _____ area causes motor aphasia

A

broca

242
Q

BBB consists of _______________

A

endothelial cells of the cerebral capilalries

choroid plexus epithelium

243
Q

______ and _____ are excluded from CSF because of their large molecular size

A

Protein and Cholesterol

244
Q

Functions of the BBB

A
  • Maintains a constant environment
  • prevents teh escape of NT
245
Q

Comaprison of CSF and Blood concentraions

A
246
Q

Cold temperatures active the _____________

A

sympathetic nervous system

247
Q

Most important potent mechanusm for icnreasing heat production

A

Shivering

248
Q

Response to heat loss is orchestrated by the _____ hypothalamus

A

anterior

249
Q

heat generating mechanism are activated by the _________hypothalamus

A

posterior

250
Q

Pyrigens increase the production of IL_____ in phagocytic cells

A

1

251
Q

caused by excessive sweating, As a result, blood volume and arterial blood pressure decrease and syncope occurs

A

heat exhaustion

252
Q

occurs when body temperature increases to the point of tissue damage.

A

heat stroke

253
Q

characterized by massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeleal muscle

A

Malignant hyperthermia

BRS (PHYSIO) (14 decks)

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