Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BRS (PHYSIO) > NEUROPHYSIOLOGY > Flashcards

NEUROPHYSIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

set of tpatways to and from the CNS that innervates and regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

A

Autonomic Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 divisions of ANS

A

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

Enteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

[ANS] synapses between neurons are made in the__________

A

autonomic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

located in in or near the effector organs

A

Parasympathetic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Located in the paravertebral chain

A

Sympathetic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Have their cell bodies in the CNS adn synapse in the autonomic ganlia

A

Preganglionic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate in the spinal cord segments ________

A

T1-L3 or thoracolumbar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system originate int he nuclei of cranial nerves and in the spinal cord segments ________

A

S2 to S4 or craniosacral region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_________ of both devisions of ANS have their cell bodies in the autonomic ganglia ans synapse on effector organs

A

Postganglionic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

specialized ganglion of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Adrenal medulla

  • preganglionic fibers synapse directlt in chromaffin cells
    • secretes epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tumor of the adrenal medula that secretes excessive amount sof catecholamnes and is associated with increased excretion of 3 methoxy-4-hydroxy mandelic acid (VMA)

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______release norepinephine as the neurotransmitter

A

Adrenergic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

________ release ACh weheter in the SNS or PNS as the neurotranmistter

A

Cholinergic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

includes some postganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the GIT, which releasse substance P, vasoactive intestinal peptide

A

Nonadrenergic, noncholinergic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Organization of the autonomic Nervous system

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Short preganglionic nerve axon

A

Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

long oreganglionic nerve axon

A

Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Nicotinic receptors in ganglion

A

BOTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sympathetic or Parasympathetic

Muscarinic receptor in effector organs

A

Parasymapthetic

  • alpha 1, alpha 2, B1 and B2 = Sympathetic
  • nicotinic = somatic *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signalling pathways and mechanisms forAutonomic receptors

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

alpha 1

alpha 2

Beta 1

Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cholinergic receptors

A

NM (N1)

NN (N2)

M1

M2

M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

located on vascular smooth muscles of the skin and splanchic regions, the GI, and bladder sphincters, and the radial muscle of the iris

A

Alpha 1

  • Produce excitation (contraction or constriction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha 1 receptors

A

Gq protein, stimulation of phospholipase C and increase IP3 and intracellular calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Located on the sympathetic postganglionic nerve termnals (autoreceptors), platelets, fat cells, and the walls of the GI tract (heteroreceptors)

A

alpha 2

  • often produce INHIBITION (relaxation or dilation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mechanism of action of alpha 2 receptors

A

Gi protein, inhibition of adenylate cyclase and decrease in cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

located in the SA node, AV node, and ventricular muscle of the heart

A

B1 receptors

  • Produce EXCITATION (increased heart rate, increased conduction velocity, increased contractility)
  • sensitive to both NE and E.
  • more sensitive than alpha 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mechanism of action of B1 receptors

A

Gs protein, stimulation of adenyate cyclase and increase in cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

located on vascular smooth muscle of Skeletal muscle, bronchial smooth muscle, and the walls of GIT and bladder

A

B2 receptors

  • Porduce RELAXATION (dilation of vascular smooth muscle, dilation of brochioles, relaxation of the bladder wall)
  • More sensitive to EPINEPHRINE than NE
  • more sensitive to EPINEPHRINE than alpha 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mechanism of Action of B2 receptors

A

Gs protein, stimulation of adenylate cyclase and increase in cAMP (similar to B1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION?

alpha 1

A

excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION?

alpha 2

A

inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION

B1

A

Excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

EXCITATION OR RELAXATION OR INHIBITION

B2

A

Relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

located in the automic ganglia of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system, at the NM junction and in the Adrenal medulla

A

Nicotinic reeptors

  • Activated by ACh or nicotine
  • produce EXCITATION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nicotinic receptors are blocked by _________ in the autonomic ganglia, but not in the NMJ

A

ganglionic blockers (hexxamethonium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mechanism of action of Nicotinic receptors

A

ACh binds to alpha subunits of the nicotinic ACh receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The nicotinic receptors are also ion channels for ________

A

Na and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Located in the heart, smooth muscle, and glands

A

Muscarinic

  • M2 (heart)
  • M3 (smooth muscle , glands)
  • activated by ACh and muscarine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

muscarinic receptors are _______ in the heart

A

inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

muscarinic receptors are ______ in smooth muscles and glands

A

Excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Muscarinic receptors are blocked by ________

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mechanism of action of muscarinic receptors

A
  • Heart SA node: Gi protein, inhibition of adenylate cyclse, which leads to opening of K channels, slowing of the rate of spontaneous phase 4 depolarization and decreased heart rate
  • Smooth muscle and glands: Gq, stimualtion of phospholipasee C, and in increase in IP3 and intracellular Calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Prototype of drugs that affect autnomic activity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

alpha 1 agonists

A

Norepineehrine

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Phentolamine

Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Alpha 2 agonist

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alpa 2 antagonists

A

Yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Beta 1 agonists

A

Norepinephrine

Isoproterenol

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Beta 1 antagonists

A

Propanolol

Metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Beta 2 agonist

A

Isoproterenol

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

B2 antagonist

A

Propanolol

Butoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nicotinic agonists

A

ACh

Nicotine

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nicotinic anatagnist

A

Curare (NMJ)

Hexamethonium (ganglionic N2 rceptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Muscarinic agonist

A

ACh

Muscarine

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Muscarinic antagonist

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Effects of the autonomic nervous system on organ system

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

vasomotor center

respiatory center

swallowing, coughing, and vomiting center

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pneumotaxic center

A

Pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Micturition center

A

Midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

temperature regulaion center

thirst and food intake regulatory center

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Specialized epithelial cells or neurons that transduce environmental signals into neural signals

A

Sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Types of sensory transducers

A
  • Mechanoreceptors
  • Photoreceptors
  • Chemoreceptors
  • Extreme of temperature and pain (nociceptors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

area of the body that, when stimualtd, changes, the firing rate of a sensory neuron.

A

Receptive field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Nerve fiber types

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Steps in sensosry transduction

A
  1. Stimulus arrives at the sensory receptor
  2. Ion channels are opened in the sensory receptors
    • usually inward. causing DEPOLARIZATION
    • exception: Photoreceptors (HYPERPOLARIZTAION)
  3. The change in membrane potential produced by the stimulus is the receptor potential or genrator potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Slowly adpating or tonic receptors

A

muscle spindle; pressure; slow pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Rapidly adapting of phasic receptors

A

pacinian corpuscle; light touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Sensory pathways from the receptor to the cerebral cortex

A
  1. Sensory receptors
    • transduce the stimulus to electrial energy
  2. First order neurons
  3. Second order neurons
  4. third order neuron
  5. fourth order neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

First order neuron of sensory pathway

A

primary afferent neurons.

dorsal root or spnal cord ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Second order neuron of sensory pathway

A

relay nuclei and transmit to the thalamus

located in the SC or brain stem

May cross the midlone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Third order neuron of sensory pathway

A

located in the relay nuclei of the thalamus

from there, encoded sensory information ascends to the cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

fourth order neurons

A

located in the appropriate sensory area of the cerebral cortex. the information received results in a conscious perception of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Includes the seantion of touch, movement, temperature,and pain

A

Somatosensory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pathways in the somatosensory system

A

Dorsal Column system

Anterolateral system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

processes sensations of fine touch, pressure, two pint discrimination, vibration and proprioception

A

Dorsal column system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

somatosensory system that is primary consists of group II fibers

A

Dorsal column system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Course of Dorsal column system

A
  • Primary afferent neurons n the dorsal root
  • ascends ipsilateral to the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus of the medulla
  • cross the midline of medulla
  • ascends to the thalamus
  • ascends to the somatosensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

processes sensations of temperature, pain, and light touch

A

anterolateral system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

consists primarily of group III and IV fibers, which enter th SC and terminate in the dorsal horn

A

Anterolateral system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Course of anterlateral system

A
  • Second order neurons cross the midle to the anterolateral quadrant of the SC
  • ascends to th contralateral thalamus
  • ascends to the somatosensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Onion like structures in the SC skin (surronding unmyelinated nerve endings)

A

pacinian corpuscles

  • Detects vibration, tapping
  • rapidly adapting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Present in nonhairy skin

A

Meissner corpuscle

  • Detects velocity
  • Rapidly adapting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Encapsulated, detects pressure, slowly adapting

A

Ruffini corpuscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

transducer is on the epithelial cells, detectslocation, slowly adapting

A

Merkel disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

information from different parts of the body is arranged somatotropically

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Destruction of the thalamic nuclei results in the loss of sensation on the___________side of the body

A

contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The major soatosensory areas of the cerebral cortex are _______

A

SI and SII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

has somatotropic representation similar that in the thalamus

A

SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

the largest areas in the homuculus represent the ___ , _____, ____ where precise localization is most important

A

Face, hands, and fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

associated with the detection anf perception of noxious stimuli

A

Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The receptors for pain are ________

A

free nerv endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Neurotransmitters for nociceptors _______

A

substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

carried by group III fibers.

A

fast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

carried by C fibers. Achinh, burning, or throbbing that is poor;y localized

A

slow pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Pain of visceral origin is referred to sites on the skin and follows the dermatome rule.

A

Referred pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Refractive power of a lens is measuredin _____

A

diopters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

equals to the reciprocal of the focal distance in meters

A

diopters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Farsighted. Light focuses behind the retina

A

Hypertropia

  • corrected by convex lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Nearsighted. Light focuses in front of the retina

A

Myopia

  • corrected with biconcave lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

curvature of the lens is not uniform

A

Astigmatism

  • corrected with a cylindric lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

result of loss of the accomodation power of then lens

A

presbyopia

Corrected by convex lens

103
Q

Layers of the retina

A
  • Pigment layer
  • photoreceptor layer
  • External limiting membrane
  • outer nuclear layer
  • outer plexiform layer
  • inner nuclear layer
  • Inner plexiform layer
  • ganglion cell layer
  • optic nerve cell layer
  • internal limiting membrane
104
Q

Absorbs stray light and prevent scatter of light

converts 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal

A

Pigment epithelial cells

105
Q

Sensitive to low intesity light; night vision

106
Q

Lower visual acuity

not present in fovea

107
Q

adpats later (dark adaptation)

108
Q

Color vision : NO

109
Q

Sensitive to high intensity light; day vision

110
Q

Higher visual acuity

Present in fovea

111
Q

Color vision: YES

112
Q

Rods and cone are not present on the _________

A

optic disk (blind spot)

113
Q

form local circuits with the bipolar cells

A

Horizontal and amacrine cells

114
Q

_____ are the output cells of the retina

A

ganglion cells

115
Q

Optic pathway

A
  • fibers from each nasal hemiretina cross the optic chiasm
  • fibers from each nassal hemiretina remains ipsilateral
  • fibers from the lateral geniculae body form the geniculocalcarine tract and pass to the occipital love of the cortex
116
Q

cutting of the optic nerve

A

blindness in the ipsilateral eye

117
Q

Cutting the optic chiasm

A

causes heteronymous bitemporal hemianopia

118
Q

Cutting the optic tract

A

homonymous contralateral hemianopia

119
Q

Cutting the geniculocalcarine tract

A

causes homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

120
Q

The photosensitive element is _____

A

rhodopsin

  • composed of opsin and retinal
121
Q

Steps in photoreception in the rods

A
  1. light converts 11 cis retinal to all trans retinal.
  2. Metarhodopsin II is formed
  3. Metarhodopsin II activates transducin (Gt) which in turns activate phosphodiesterase
  4. cGMP levels decrease
  5. Closure of sodiu channels - > hyperpolarization
  6. Decreased release of glutamate
    • ionotoropic (excitatory)
    • metabotropic (inhibitory)
122
Q

Receptive visual fields

A
  • Receptive fields of the ganglion and lateral geniculate cells
  • Receptive fields of the visual cortex
123
Q

Neurons in the visual cortex detects _____ and _____

A

shape and orientation

124
Q

3 cortical fields of the visual cortex

A
  • Simple cells
    • respond best to bar of ligh that habe the correct position and orientation
  • Compelx cells
    • moving bars or edges of ligth with the correct orientation
  • Hypercomplex cells
    • particular length and to curves and angles
125
Q

Frequency is measured in_____

126
Q

Intensity is measured in ______

A

decibels , log scale

127
Q

Directs the sound waves into the auditory canal

128
Q

Air filled

contains the tympanic membrane and the auditory ossicles

A

Middle ear

129
Q

fluid filled

consists of a bony labyrinth and a series of ducts called membranous labyrinth

130
Q

The scanal vestibuli and scala tympani contains _____

131
Q

perilymph has a high ______

A

sodium concentration

132
Q

Scala media contains _______

133
Q

Endolymph has ahigh _________

A

potassium concentration

134
Q

The scala media is bordered by the __________

A

basilar membrane.

(site of the organ of corti)

135
Q

_____ hair cells are arranged in single rows and are few in nubers

136
Q

________ outer haircells are arranged in parallel rows and are greater in number

137
Q

contains the cell bodies of the auditory nerve (CN VIII), which synapse on the hair cells

A

spiral ganglion

138
Q

Steps in auditory transduction by the organ of corti

A
  1. sound waves causes vibration of the organ of corti
  2. hair cells bend by shearing force
  3. change in K conductance f the hair cell membrane
  4. the oscillating potential is the cochlear microphonic potential
  5. ​Intermittent firing of the cochlear nerves
139
Q

the cilia of hair cells are embbed in the _____

A

tectorial membrane

140
Q

more elastic

Basilar or tectorial membrane?

141
Q

base of the basilar membrane responds to _____ frequencies

142
Q

Apex of the basilar membrane (wide and compliant) responds to ___________ frequencies

143
Q

Central auditory pathway

A
  1. Fibers ascend through the lateral lemniscus it the inferior colliculus
  2. medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
  3. auditory cortex
  • Fibers may be crossed or uncrosssed
144
Q

detects anguar and linear accelaration of the head

A

Vestibular system

145
Q

The membranous labyrinth consists of _______ perpendicular semicircular canals, ____ and a _____

A

3

utricle

saccule

146
Q

Detects angular accelaration or rotation

A

semicircular canals

147
Q

Detects linear acceleration

A

Utricle and saccule

148
Q

The canals are filled with ____________

149
Q

Cilia if the hair cells are embedded in a gelatinous structure calle the ______

150
Q

If the stereocillia are bent toward the kinocillium, the hair ________

A

depolarizes (excitation)

151
Q

If the sterocilia are bent away from the kinocilium teh hair cell _________

A

hyperpolarizes (inhiviton)

152
Q

are tre neurons that conduct action potential into the CNS

A

receptor cells of the olfactor pathway

153
Q

Only neurons in the adult human that repalce themselves

A

Olfactory neurons

154
Q

The axons of the olfactory nerves are ___________ and are among the smallest and slowest

A

unmyelinated C fibers

155
Q

the olfactory nerves pass through _______ on their way to the olfactory bulb

A

cribriform plate

156
Q

second order neurons of the olfactory pathway

A

Mitral cells in the olfactory bulb.

output projects to the prepiriform cortex

157
Q

Steps in transduction in the olfactory receptor neurons

A
  1. Odorant molecules bind to olfactory receptor proteins
  2. activate G proteins which activates adenylate cyclase
  3. increase in intracellular cAMP
  4. depolarizing receptor potential
  5. action potentals
158
Q

Taste receptor cells line the taste buds that are located on specialized _______

159
Q

in contrastt to olfactory cels, taste receptors are ________

A

not neurons

160
Q

Has fungiform papillae

A

anterior 2/3 of the tongue

161
Q

detects salty sweet and umami

A

anterior 2/3

162
Q

the anterior 2/3 is innervated by

A

CN VII (chorda tympani)

163
Q

has circumvallate and foliate papillae

detects sour and bitter sensations

A

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue

164
Q

the posterior 1/3 is innervated by

165
Q

The back of the throat and the epiglottis are innervated by

166
Q

CN VII, IX, an X enter the medulla, ascend in the _______

A

solitary tract

167
Q

Consists of a single motorneuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates

A

Motor unit

168
Q

group of motorneurons that innervates fibers within the same muscle

A

motorneuron pool

169
Q

The force of muscle contraction is graded by ________

A

Recruitment of additional motor units

170
Q

States that as additional motor units are recruited, the more motorneurons are involved and more tension is generated

A

Size principle

171
Q

Innervate a few muscle fibers

lowest thresholds (fire first)

generate smallest forces

A

Small motorneurons

172
Q

innervate many muscle fiers

highest threshold

generates the largest force

A

Large motorneurons

173
Q

Types of muscle sensors

A
  • muscle spindles
  • golgi tendin organs
  • pancinian corpuscles
  • free nerve endings
174
Q

Groups Ia and II afferents

detectsboth static and dynamic hanges in muscle length

A

Muscle spindles

175
Q

Group Ib afferents

detects muscle tension

A

Golgi tendon organs

176
Q

group II afferents

detects vibration

177
Q

groups III and IV afferents

detects noxious stimuli

A

Free nerve endings

178
Q

Types of muscle fibers

A

Extrafusal

Intrafusal

179
Q

Make up the bulk of muscle

provide the force for muscle contraction

A

Extrafusal fibers

180
Q

Innervated by alpha motorneurons

A

Extrafusal

181
Q

smaller fibers

encapsualted to form muscle spindles

A

intrafusal fibers

182
Q

Innervated by y-motorneurons

A

Intrafusal

183
Q

consist of small encapsulated fibers connected in parallel with large force-genrating extrafusal fibers

A

Muscle spindles

184
Q

The finer the movement required the ______ the number of muscle spindles in a muscle

185
Q

Types of Intafusal fibers

A

Nuclear bag

Nuclar chain

186
Q

type of intrafusal fiber that detect teh rate of change in muscle length

innervated by group Ia afferents

A

Nuclear bag

187
Q

type of intrafusal fiber that detects static changes in muscle length

innervated by group II afferents

more numerous

A

Nuclear chain

188
Q

How muscle spindle works

A
  1. sensory information about muscle lenth received by group Ia (velocity) and group II (static)
  2. if muscle lethenes, muscle spindle is also stretch stimualting group Ia and II
  3. Stimulation of group Ia - > alpha motorneurons -> contractions and shortening
189
Q

they innervate intrafusal muscle fibers

adjust the sensitivity of the muscle spindle

A

y-motorneurons

190
Q

alpha and y motorneurons are ______ so that muscle spindles remain sensitive to chaines

A

coactivated

191
Q

Summary of muscle reflexes

192
Q

Stretch reflex is ______

A

monosynaptic

examples: knee jerk reflex

193
Q

golgi tendon reflex (inverse myotactic) is _____

194
Q

ane xaggerated form of the golgi tendon reflex, can occur with disease of the corticospinal tracts

A

Clasp-knife reflex

195
Q

Flexor withdrawal reflex is ____________

A

polysynaptic

196
Q

Occurs when a single alha motoneuron receives inout from many muscle spindle group Ia afferent in the homonymous muscle

A

Convergence

197
Q

Occurs when the muscle spindle group Ia afferent fibers project to all of the alpha motoneurons that innervate the hmonumous muscle

A

Diveregence

198
Q

inhibitory cells in the ventral horn of the spinal cord

they receive inout from collateral axons of motorneurons and , when simualtedm negatively feedback on the motorneuron

A

Renshaw cells

199
Q

Examples of pyramidal tracts

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar

200
Q

originates in the red nucleus and projects to interneurons in the lateral spinal cord

produces stimulation of flexors and inhibition of extensors

A

rubrospinal tract

201
Q

originates in the nuclei of the pons and projects to the ventromedial spinal cords

stimulatory effect on both the extensors (predominant) and flexors

A

Pontine reticulospinal tracts

202
Q

originates in the emdullar reticular formation and prohects to spinal cord interneurons in the intermediate gray area

general inhibitory effect on both extensors and flexors

A

Medulalry reticulospinal tract

203
Q

Originates in Deiters nucleus and projects to ipsilateral motoneurons and interneurons

causes a powerul stimulation of extensors and inhibition of flexors

A

lateral vestibulospinal tract

204
Q

Originate in the superior colliculus and projects to the cervical spinal cord

involved in the control of neck muscles

A

tectospinal tract

205
Q

Immediately after transection, there is loss of the excitatory influence fro alpha and y motoneurons. Limbs become flaccid and reflexes are absent

A

Spinal shock

206
Q

if the lesion is at _____, there will be loss of sympathetic tone to the heart.

207
Q

if the lesion is at ________, breathing will stop

208
Q

if the lesion is at ______, death occurs

209
Q

Lesions above the lateral vestibular nucleus

A

decerebrate rigidity

  • removal of inhibition from higher centers
210
Q

Lesions above the pontine reticular formation but below the midbrain

A

Decerebrate rigidity

211
Q

Lesions above the red nucleus

A

decorticate

212
Q

Control of balance and eye movement

A

Vestibulocerebellum

213
Q

planning and initiation of movement

A

Pontocerebellum

214
Q

Synergery, which is control of rate, force, range, and direction of movement

A

Spinocerebellum

215
Q

innermost layer of the cerebelalr cortex

A

granular layer

  • contains granule cells, golgi type II, and lomeruli
216
Q

middle layer of the cerebellar cortex

A

Purkine cell layer

  • purkinje cells
  • output is always inhibitory
217
Q

Outermost layer of the cerebellar cortex

A

molecular layer

  • Contains stellate and basket cells, dendrites, of purkinje and Golgi type II cell and parallel fibers (axons of granule cells)
218
Q

Input to the cereballar cortex

A
  1. Climbing fibers
    • single region
    • complex spikes
    • motor learning
  2. Mossy fibers
    • many centers
    • simple spikes
    • glomeruli
    • parallel cells
219
Q

Output of the cerebellar cortex

A
  • Purkinje cells
  • GABA
220
Q

is the inability to stop a movement

A

rebound phenomenon

221
Q

Consists of striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nuclei, and substantia nigra

GABA

plan and execute smooth movements

A

basal ganglia

222
Q

Two pathways in the basal ganglia

A
  • Indirect = inhibitory
    • D2 receptors
  • Direct = excitatory
    • D1 receptors
223
Q

Connections between the striatum and substantia nigra use _____ as their NT

224
Q

Lesions of the globus pallidus

A

inability to maintain postural support

225
Q

Lesions of the subthalamic nucleus

A

wild, flinging movements

caused by release of inhibition on the contralaterl side

226
Q

Lesion of the striatum

A

caused by release of inhibition

quick continuous and uncontrollable movements

Huntington

227
Q

Lesions of the substantia nigra

A

destuction of dopaminergic neurons

parkinson disease

228
Q

responsible for genrating a plan for movement

mental rehearsal

A

premotor cortex

229
Q

Primary motor cortex is area ___

A

4

execution of movement

230
Q

Epileptic evets in the primary motor cortex cause _______

A

jacksonian seizures

231
Q

EEG change

it reflecrs synaptic potentials evoked in largenumber of neurons

A

Cortical evoked potential

232
Q

In awake adults with eyes open ______ waves predominate

233
Q

In awake adults with eyes closed ____ waves predominate

234
Q

During sleep ______ waves predominate

235
Q

the circardian periodicity is thought to be driven by the _______ of the hypothalamus

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

236
Q

Rapid eye movement occurs every _______ minutes

237
Q

REM sleep is charcterized by ______________

A

eye movements, loss of muscle tone, pupilalry constricion, and penile erection

238
Q

The ______ hemisphere is dominant in facial expression, intonation, body language and spatial tasks

239
Q

The _____ hemisphere is usually dominatn with respect to language

240
Q

Damage to the ______area causes sensory aphasia

241
Q

Damage to _____ area causes motor aphasia

242
Q

BBB consists of _______________

A

endothelial cells of the cerebral capilalries

choroid plexus epithelium

243
Q

______ and _____ are excluded from CSF because of their large molecular size

A

Protein and Cholesterol

244
Q

Functions of the BBB

A
  • Maintains a constant environment
  • prevents teh escape of NT
245
Q

Comaprison of CSF and Blood concentraions

246
Q

Cold temperatures active the _____________

A

sympathetic nervous system

247
Q

Most important potent mechanusm for icnreasing heat production

248
Q

Response to heat loss is orchestrated by the _____ hypothalamus

249
Q

heat generating mechanism are activated by the _________hypothalamus

250
Q

Pyrigens increase the production of IL_____ in phagocytic cells

251
Q

caused by excessive sweating, As a result, blood volume and arterial blood pressure decrease and syncope occurs

A

heat exhaustion

252
Q

occurs when body temperature increases to the point of tissue damage.

A

heat stroke

253
Q

characterized by massive increase in oxygen consumption and heat production by skeleal muscle

A

Malignant hyperthermia

BRS (PHYSIO) (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions