Neurology journals 2015-2019

Question 1

What are some characteristics of focal epilepsy manifesting as fear-related behavior in Boerboel dogs

Answer 1

Onset of signs was 3 months

howling, fearful faical expression, trembling

normal biochemical assessment

Histopathologhy - single large vacuoles in the perikaryon neurons throughout the brain

autosomal recessive suggeted

Question 2

What are some common seizure precipitating factors in dog with idiopathic epilepsy?

Answer 2

74% of idopathic eplipetic dogs had one trigger

Stress-related, sleep deprivation, weather, hormonal

focal seizures more likely - 1.9 X

Seizure-precipitating factors in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy JVIM 2019

Question 3

In an analysis of CKCS spaniels what correlation between spinal cord termination and syringomyelia?

Answer 3

1. Spinal cord and dural sac termination were sig more caudal in CKCS compared to controls
2. Presence of TL syringomyelia was associated w/ more caudal dural sac termination in CKCS

Question 4

Is ventricular volume decreased after ventriculoperitoneal shunting proceudres?

Answer 4

Yes

percentage decrease in ventricular size was associated with resolution of ataxia and obtundation

Association between improvement of clinical signs and decrease of ventricular volume after ventriculoperitoneal shunting (VPS) in dogs with internal hydrocephalus JVIM 2019

Question 5

What correlation exists between flial fibrillary acidic protein and complete spina cord injury?

Answer 5

Glial fibrillary acidic protein concentrations in the first 72 hours after onset of nonambulatory status predicted recovery with an accuracy of 76.7%‐89% depending on sample timing.

Question 6

Are are the known causes and possible outcomes for dogs with unilateral masticatory muscle atrophy in dogs?

Answer 6

Peripheral nerve sheath tumors (47.6%) - MST of 5 months (1-9 months). Progression is variable (2 months to 2 years) Effect of treatment is unknown based on one study

Other tumors - 20.6% MST 2.5 months (6-25 months)

No abnormalities on MRI (28.6%) only progression in one dog

Question 7

What are the expected short and long term outcomes as well as MRI findings with spinal arachnoid diverticula in 25 pugs

Answer 7

Mean age 7.3 years - 80% males

short-term - improvement in 80%

Long term of 21 - deteriation in 86% (12 months post sx)

Moderate correlation bt duration of c/s and outcome

8 dogs w/ deteriorating had follow-up MRI - regrowth of SAD in 2, new AD in 2, intramedullary T2W hyperintensity/syringomyelia in 6

Question 8

What is the diagnostic accuracy of stereotactic brain biopsy for intracranial neoplasia in dogs?

Answer 8

Tumor grade agreement bt standary biopsy and necropsy in 18/23 cases

SBB underrepresented reference standard glioma grade

diagnostic accuracy 81% - smaller tumors and fewer samples correlated w/ diagnostic disscordance

Question 9

What are the general correlations between coat and eye color with congenital deafness in cats?

Answer 9

Found ony in white cats

White kittens with at least one blue iris were 3.2X more likely to be deaf

Tukis Van, Main Coon, Norwegian forest cats seems to be over represented

Question 10

Is rectal Keppra a benefitial treatment additive to therapy of patients presenting to the emergency room for seizures?

Answer 10

Keppra had a 94% response rate vs standard therapy alone

(standard was diazepam if needed followed by phenobarbital q 8 hr)

response = no additional seizures vs those that did

Question 11

What are general expectation in dogs with acute steroid-responsive meningitis - arteritis?

Answer 11

48% of dogs had at least one relapse

Significant association w/ CSF cell count and frequency of disease relapse

No difference in treatment protocal and relapse

QOL associated with steroid side effects

Question 12

What are signs that are associated with the presence of syringomyelia in CKCS dogs w/ Chiari Malformation?

Answer 12

Signs associated with syrinx presence and size - screatching, scoliosis, postural deficits, weakness

Question 13

What are some general differences noted in signalment and CT findings in French bull dogs, Pugs and English Bulldogs with and without clinical signs associated with thoracic hemivertebra?

Answer 13

The Pug breed, higher degree of kyphosis, fewer instead of more observed hemivertebrae, and VLH hemivertebra subtype were considered independent variables predicting the presence of neurological signs.

Question 14

What are some general clinical and MRI characteristics of CM in juvenile dogs?

Answer 14

18/20 had chronic progression

18/20 had proprioceptice ataxia, 9/20 had cervical pain

MRI - c5-6, c6-7 or both

2 surgical patients - simproved and stable at 1.5 and 5 years

Medical is variable, good short term

These findings are consistent with Ettinger and Kirks info

Clinical and magnetic resonance imaging characterization of cervical spondylomyelopathy in juvenile dogs JVIM 2019

Question 15

What is the prevalence and clinical relavence of anti-n-methyl-d-aspartate receptor 1 (NMDAR1) antibodies in dogs with inflammatory neurologic disease?

Answer 15

9.4% of dogs

all responded to treament of MUE

Presence of cerebrospinal fluid antibodies associated with autoimmune encephalitis of humans in dogs with neurologic disease JVIM 2019

Question 16

What is the utility of imepitoin in the treatment and prvention of anxiety and fear associated with noise in dogs?

Answer 16

Sig reduced fear prior to NYE fireworks

This is a partial agnoist at benzodiazepine bindings sites of the GABA1 receptor - affinitiy 600 times less than diazepapm; less sedating

Similar efficacy to phenobarbital for controlling seizures in another study (Plumbs)

Effectiveness of imepitoin for the control of anxiety and fear associated with noise phobia in dogs JVIM 2019

Question 17

What is the expression profile of mRNA in the CSF of dogs w/ and w/o cervical spondylomeylopathy?

Answer 17

1.5 fold increase in miR-494 and 1.2 decrease in miR-612

Question 18

What are some general predictors of urinary or fecal incontinence in dogs with TL acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion?

Answer 18

Dogs w/ TL injury: 9.1% UI and 25.3% FI

Paraplegic more likely to have urinary and fecal

FI more likely in those w/o NSAID and those w/o spinal shock

Lesions >40% cross-sectional area 4X more likely to develop U and FI

Predictors of urinary or fecal incontinence in dogs with thoracolumbar acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion JVIM 2019

Question 19

What are the general correlations between CSF lactate and inflammatory CNS disorders?

Answer 19

CSF lactate above reference in 47% of dogs

No sig difference among disease categories

sig but weak correlation bt CSF and NCC

no sig difference bt lactate and survival

Question 20

What are the differences between intranasal and intravenous midazolam administration?

Answer 20

Both successfull

IN faster

median time for seizure sessation - 33 sec vs 64

sedation and ataxia higher in IN - 88% vs 69% IV

Question 21

what are the general differences in epidural pathology between cervical and TL intervertebral disc extrusion sin dogs?

Answer 21

dogs w/ cervical sig older, less severe, longer duration, better outcome

dogs w/ cervical had less severe calcification and inflammation

No sig difference in chondrodystrophic phenotype

Vertebral canal in cervical was larger than TL

TL IVD more narrow

Cervical more curcilar

Differences in Epidural Pathology between Cervical and Thoracolumbar Intervertebral Disk Extrusions in Dogs JVIM 2018

Question 22

In a study of 32 dogs with neurologic disease, how often was an infectious disease implicated when broad spectrum DNA and RNA testing was utilized?

Answer 22

None - suggests that MUE more likely to be autoimmune

Question 23

What are the general correlations between owner observed scratching and pain behavior and neurologic examination and imaging scoring?

Answer 23

The only signs that were significantly associated with syrinx presence and size were scratching (phantom and scratching or rubbing of the head or ears), scoliosis, postural deficits, and weakness

Question 24

What is GB2-gangliosidosis in Shiba Inu dogs?

Answer 24

GM1 gangliosidosis in the Shiba Inu breed (SI-GM1) is a hereditary lysosomal storage disorder caused by abnormal accumulation of GM1 ganglioside, a fatty molecule (lipid) important for normal functioning of nerve cells in the brain. Affected dogs typically present with vision loss, head tremors, walking and balance issues, and weight loss by 6 months of age. The disease is progressive and lethal by 18 months

Question 25

What dosage of Keppra in cats results in best therapeutic blood levels?

Answer 25

500 mg Xr PO q 24 hr - this is a dosage of 86.2 mg/kg

Question 26

What is the role of campylobacter infection in acute polyradiculoneuritis in dogs?

Answer 26

In cases in which fecal sampes were collected w/in 7 adys of onset of clinical signs, acute polyradiculoneuritis was 9.4 X more likely to be positive compared to healthy dogs significant association w/ consumption of raw chicken C. usaliensis most common species \*\*Study conducted out of melbourne\*\* Investigation of the Role of Campylobacter Infection in Suspected Acute Polyradiculoneuritis in Dogs

Question 27

What are general risk factors associated with early seizure recurrence in dogs hospitalized for seizure evaluation?

Answer 27

abnormal neuro exam, occurence of cluster seizures, status epileptics or combination within 72 hours prior to presentation predicted early seizure recurrence 50% of dogs had recurrent seizures while hospitalized Average time to seizure was 7 hours (shortest in reactive \> structura \> idiopathic) Clinical Risk Factors for Early Seizure Recurrence in Dogs Hospitalized for Seizure Evaluation JVIM 2018

Question 28

What is the clinical relevance of transmucosal magnetic evoked potential (TMMEP) in paraplegic dogs w/ recovery of motor function?

Answer 28

increase amplitude and decreased latencies associated with recovery Transcranial magnetic motor evoked potentials and magnetic resonance imaging findings in paraplegic dogs with recovery of motor function JVIM 2018

Question 29

What role does postoperative rehabilitation have in recovery in non-ambulatory parapaetic or paraplegic dogs after decompressive survery for TL-IVDH?

Answer 29

Mediat time to waking 7.5 days No sig difference in rehab dogs with incomplete spinal cord injury Study population limited to more mildly affected dogs A randomized, blinded, prospective clinical trial of postoperative rehabilitation in dogs after surgical decompression of acute thoracolumbar intervertebral disc herniation JVIM 2018

Question 30

What is the overall prevalence and clinical associations in dogs with seizure occurance in dogs?

Answer 30

0.82% of all dogs had a single seizure Increased OR - pug 3.4 low risk : 1. Shih-tzue, Westie, English Spring Spaniel, Cocker Spaniel males \> females Dogs \> 3 yrs dogs \> 40 kg higher vs 10 kg

Question 31

What effects does concurrent administration of Keprra with phenobarbital and zonisamide have on keppra blood levels?

Answer 31

Phenobarbital results in decreased maximum drug keppra levels half-life similar therapeutic drug monitoring of Keppra may be helpful when pheno and keppra used together

Question 32

What is the overall prevalence of Bartonella DNA in a population of dogs with inflammatory CNS disease?

Answer 32

No dogs tested positive

Question 33

In patients with hydrated nucleus pulposus (discal cyst) extrusion does surgery vs medical management affect treatment outcome?

Answer 33

Median time to return of ambulation was 6.6 days post surgery vs 5.9 days post medical management Only the length of intramedullary lesion on MRI had any influence on prognosis

Question 34

What are the pharmacokinetics of gabapentin in cats?

Answer 34

T 1/2 is 4 hrs after single and 4 hr after a repeat dose time to max concentartion 1 hr bioavailability 95%

Question 35

What the expected outcome on American Staffordshire Terriers with juvenile-onset polyneuropathy

Answer 35

All 14 had generalized motor and sensory invovlement - focal lar par in 1 and megaesophagus in 1 degeneartive polyneuropathy id'd on histopathology 11 had slow progression with good qol, 3 were euthanized after dx autosomal recessive

Question 36

Is there any clinical differences in dogs with treated with a hypofractionated vs standard radiation protocl for dogs with symptomatic intracranial neoplasia?

Answer 36

No sig derence in survival between groups 1. Overall progression-free interval (663 d) and overall survival (637 d) Use of steroids - dose or reduction was not sig different bt groups Comparative evaluation of a novel, moderately hypofractionated radiation protocol in 56 dogs with symptomatic intracranial neoplasia

Question 37

What is the prevalence of REM sleep behavior disorder in a smalll population of dogs with confirmed tetanus?

Answer 37

At least 46% This appeared like an epileptic seizure in up to 40% of dogs

Question 38

What are the associations of spinal walking and irreverasible TL spinal cord lesions who undergoe physiotherapy? \*\*These are paraplegic dogs w/ no pain perception

Answer 38

59% dogs Median time 75.5 days associated w/ younger age and early start of physiotherpay age \<60 months and weight= 7.8 kg associated w/ spinal waling BCS, full-time hospitalization, type and site of lesions not sig associated w/ development of spinal walking _Acquisition of Involuntary Spinal Locomotion (Spinal Walking) in Dogs with Irreversible Thoracolumbar Spinal Cord Lesion: 81 Dogs JVIM 2017_

Question 39

What is the known prevalence and known risk factors for ascending/descneding myelomalacia in dogs after TL IVD herniation

Answer 39

0% with low grade up to 14.5% with grade 5 (greatest increase is from grade 4 to 5) Younger age (\<5.8 yrs), neuro status (grade 5) and site of disk herniation (L5-L6), duration of clinical signs before becomming nonambulatory (\<24 hr), detection of T2W hyperintensity, T2 length ratio \>4.57 were sig risk factors Prevalence and Risk Factors for Presumptive Ascending/Descending Myelomalacia in Dogs after Thoracolumbar Intervertebral Disk HerniationJVIM 2017

Question 40

What are the known clincal featurs, imaging characteristics and long-term outcome of dogs w/ cranial meningocele or meningoencephalocele?

Answer 40

Young dogs - median 6.5 months seizure and behavioral abnormalities most common Intranasal meningoenecephalocele more common that parietal meningocele MRI id'd meningeal enhancement of protruded tissue in 77% of cases 17 medical - seizures controlled in 10 dogs w/ intranasal MEC and mild duro signs had a fair prognosis

Question 41

What is the clinical significance of phosphorylated neurofilament heavy in degenerative myelopathy?

Answer 41

Median CSF pNF-H was increased in all stages of DM Dogs w/ stage 1 had increased median CSF compared to asymptomatic at risk Sens 80.4% and spec 93.6% to DX DM in this population - ppv need to be assessed Cerebrospinal Fluid Levels of Phosphorylated Neurofilament Heavy as a Diagnostic Marker of Canine Degenerative Myelopathy jvim 2017

Question 42

What are several prognositc factors associated with recovery of ambulation and urinary contience in dogs with acute LS spinal cord injury?

Answer 42

Fewer L4-S3 dogs regained continence compared to T3-L3 dogs - no diff in recovery of aombulation Loss of CPP, LMN incontinence and noncompressive lesions resulted in reduce likelihood of continence Neg prog factors - absent CPP and large nonchondrodystrophic breed small breed w/ retained CPP, compressive lesions and UMN had excellent prognosis

Question 43

What is the safety and efficacy of injectable robenacoxib for the treatment of pain associated w/ soft tissus urgery

Answer 43

More comfotable at surgery site compared to no pai meds

Question 44

What is the clinical significance of quantatative MRI findings and presence or absence of deep pain in recovery of motor function in paraplegic dogs with intervertebral disc herniation?

Answer 44

fractional ansiotrophy sig higher caudal to compression site that did not recover - snes% 80% and spec 55% w/ 0.66 cut off lack of deep pain perception - sens 73.3% and spec 75%

Question 45

What are the expected outcomes in patients with spinal arachnoid diverticula that are managed medically vs surgically?

Answer 45

Surgery did better 82% vs 30% improvement 30% medical reained stable 16% vs 40% deteriorated

Question 46

What are the known clinicopathologic features and MRI findings in cats with FIP?

Answer 46

3 clinical syndromes - T3-L3 myelopathy, central vestibular, multifocal CNS (most common) MRI abnormalities in all groups - contrast enhancement, ventriculomegaly, syringomyelia All euthanized MST 14 days from onset of signs perivascular lpyogranulomatous or lymphoplasmatic infiltrates

Question 47

What are some expected external features of brachycelpahic Persian cats and internal hydrocephalus?

Answer 47

Mean ventricle:brain ratio of peke face was sig higher than doll-face

Question 48

What are clinical characteristics of dogs with progressive myelomalaia following acute intervertebral disc extrusion?

Answer 48

mid-to caudal discs may be associated w/ increased risk Mostly dachshunds (24/51) Majority of dogs developed w/in 2 days and euthanized 3 days following Most dogs ahd signs of disc herniation = 48 hr prior to presentation

Question 49

What is the freuency and clinical implications of bacteruria in chronically paralyzed dogs

Answer 49

35/47 had at least one positive bacterial infection and 13 had recurrent bacteriruia E. coli most common 24.8% No association bt bacteruria and survival

Question 50

Does polyethylene glycol and methylprednisolone assist with IVD herniation

Answer 50

No benefit in threatment monitored over the course of 12 weeks of acute, severe TLL IVDH when used as adjunctive treatment within 24 hours of presentation for parlysis

Question 51

What is the expected progression ofsyringomyelia in CKCS and what is its relationship to the craniocervical morphology?

Answer 51

32% remained asymptomatic, 56% had worsened Morphology of the CCJ at initial imaging did ot predict development of new or worsened signs or SM by the time of reevaluation

Question 52

How in kinematic MRI useful in the diagnosis of CM in Doberman pinschers?

Answer 52

Flexion - improvement or resolution of compression 1/2 Extension - worsened compression in 2/3 extension id'd 6 new compressive lesions and was associated w/ ventral compression of c5/c6

Question 53

What is the expected outcome of stereotactic radiotherapy of peripheral nerve sheath tumors in dogs?

Answer 53

MST 2 years w/o acute radiation side effects.

Question 54

What breed and what are the defining features of a rapid eye movement sleep disorder?

Answer 54

Nova Scotia Duck Tolling Retrievers Onset of signs 2 months to 5 years Marked movements during sleep, increased anxiety, noise phobia, gait abnormalities guarded prognosis due to progressive nature MRI- symmetrical, progressively increasing, T2-weight image intensity in caudate nuclei consistent with necrosis secondary to gray matter degenration

Question 55

What breed is affected by a congenital forebrain commissural malformation, ventriculomegaly and interhemispheric cyst syndrome

Answer 55

Toyger cats 50% have short, rounded ears and are prone to URI and ear infection tarsal talgarum and a plantagrade stance mild ataxia; cp defecits worse in the hind sterile femiles MRI revealed asymmetry and widening of the sulci and gyri, hypoplastic cingulate gyrus and hippocampus, enlaged ventricles Most cats had a midline cyst that was contiguous with one of the lateral ventricles

Question 56

What breed is associated with a gene linked neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis disease?

Answer 56

Border collies CLN5 nonsense mutation Starts with aggression, altered mentation, poor vision, ataxia, progresses to seizures 1-2 years of age uniformly fatal Now a report of fatal neurodegenerative disease in Australian cattle dogs

Question 57

What breed possesses a homogeenous mutation in RAB3GAP1:c.743delC?

Answer 57

Rottweilers - results in neuonal vaculation and spinocellular degeneration results in a polyneuropathy

Question 58

What breed is known to have a KCNJ10 mutation?

Answer 58

Jack Russell Terriers retuls in juvenile-onset spinceullar ataxia that progresses to myokymia (eyelid twitching) and seizures

Question 59

What are the known risk factors and outcomes for cats diagnosed with myasthenia gravis?

Answer 59

Up to 58% euthanized More likely in Abyssinians and somalis Cranieal mediastinal mass in 52% Spontaneous remission is not a characteristic - chronic disease

Question 60

What percentage of dogs with neurologic disorders have abnormal findings on abdominal ultrasound?

Answer 60

58% Nondachunds had higher percentage of abnorma than dacshunds 1.3% of patients did not have advanced imaging due to abdominal ultrasound findings Effect of screening abdominal ultrasound examination on the decision to pursue advanced diagnostic tests and treatment in dogs with neurologic disease JVIM 2015

Question 61

What are the typical findings that are noted in dogs with canine cognitive dysfunction (CCD)?

Answer 61

aimless wandering, staring into space, avoid getting patted, difficulty finding dropped food and anxiety. 33% of normal dogs may progress to mild cognitive imapirment, 22% may progress to CCD Plasma AB42 increased in CCD dogs

Question 62

What is X-linked myotubular myopathy and what breed has been show to affect?

Answer 62

Labrador retrieveers progressive weakness and muscle atrophy diagnosis w/ muscle biopsy rapidly progressiv and die w/in 1 month _Clinical phenotype of X-linked myotubular myopathy in Labrador retriever puppies (2015) JVIM 2015_

Question 63

What cervical abnormality has been demonstrated in pituitary dwarfism due to LHX3 mutation?

Answer 63

GSD Atlantoaxial malformation w/ LHX3 mutation Abnormal positioning of the dens axis & incomplete ossification of the suture lines between the ossification centers of the atlas w/ concurrent AA instability & dynamic compression of the spinal cord by the dens axis

Question 64

Does phenobarbital or KBr affect blood levles of Keppra in dogs?

Answer 64

Concurrent use of phenobarbital or phenobarbital + KBr increase keprpra clearance KBR+ keppra does not Phenobarbital appears to affect drug clearance of Keppra At the time of publication, no accepted dose range blood levels 5.52 ug/mL and 3.06 ug/mL with pheno and pheno+ kbr 5-40ug/mL is human range

Question 65

Is rectal Zonisamide an effect treatment option in seizuring dogs?

Answer 65

no

Question 66

What dog breed has been shown to have a LGI2 mutation?

Answer 66

Lagotto Romagnolo benign familial juvenile epilepsy - these Leucine-rich glioma-activated protein - dysfunction can cause hyperexcitability concurrent ADHD like sympoms

Question 67

What is the association of estrus and seizures in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy?

Answer 67

increased likelihood w/ estrogen decreased likelihood with progesterone 38% of dogs had seizures when in heat and 13% had seizures 1-3 months after (end of diestrus)

Question 68

What are the pharmacokinetics of Keppra after a single dose?

Answer 68

30 mg/kg of ER with or w/o food results in concentrations above accepted human therapeutic cocentration (5-40 ug/mL)

Question 69

What is the know prevalence and heritability of symptomatic syringomyelia in CKCS?

Answer 69

15% prevalence 95% had littermates w/ spinal cord changes

Question 70

What is the long-term outcome in symptomatic and asymptomatic littermates with CKCS?

Answer 70

Syrinx diameter & mean syrinx:spinal cord ratio were sig correlated w/ c.s. If a dog w/ a syrinx had no c.s. by 6 yo, 93% chance of remaining asymptomatic

Question 71

Is CT an acceptable surrogate to MRI for the diagnosis of cerebellar herniation in CKCS?

Answer 71

Yes MRI is the preferred for bestt accuracy for the evaluation of other comonents of Chiari like disease

Question 72

What is the clinical significance of the medullary position at the craniocerical jnction in mature CKCS?

Answer 72

Higher medullary kinking index association w/ neuro signs More caudal brainstem position related to the presence of syringomyelia

Question 73

What is the clinical significance of atlantoaxial bands and the craniocervical junction syndrome in mature CKCS?

Answer 73

prevalence of AA bands high sig association w/ bands and SM

Question 74

What are some known MRI findings in dogs after head trauma?

Answer 74

intra and extra axial hemorrahge subdural extra axial on side of truama most common

Question 75

What are some general population statistics for cervical IVD herniation in chondrodystrophoid and noncondrodystrophoid small breed dogs?

Answer 75

beagles most common C2-C3 most common C5-c6 more common in Yorkies and Chihuahuas Shih Tzu and torkies sig older at the time of diagnosis compared to Pomeranians (9yr vs 6 yr) Yorkie had sig higher number of affected sites compared to Dachshunds Yorkie sig longer recovery time

Question 76

What are some general findings for TL IVD herniation in English Cocker Spaniels?

Answer 76

Midlumbar and caudal more likely in English Springer than Dachhund English w/ caudal lumbar had lnger median duration of c/s, more likely to have unilateral pelvic disc lameness or spinal hyperesthesia than other sites Caudal lumbar disc herniation recovered more quickly and ahd lesss severed disease

Question 77

Risk factors for diskospondylitis in dogs after spinal decompression surgery for intervertebral disc herniation

Answer 77

2.2% of dogs GSD 9.8 X more likely Larger dogs

Question 78

How do dogs compare with ischemic myelopathy and acute noncompressive nucleus pulposis extrusion?

Answer 78

English Staffordshire over represented in ischmic Border collies acute noncompressive noncompressive older, vocalization, hyperesthesia, C1-C4 lesion - ambulatory at the time of discharge ischemic - L4-S3, long term fecal incontinence long-tem QOL and outcome did not differ

Question 79

What are known features stimulus-specific seizures in dogs with reflex epilepsy?

Answer 79

19% of dogs had seizures that were not induced by location or situation Sedation provides no benefit

Question 80

What association does size of tumor affect post-surgical outcome in patients with intracranial glioma?

Answer 80

No association w/ MST Low-grade small tumors had longer survival compared to high grade

Question 81

What are general characteristics and risk factors for intervertebral disk extrusions in Pekingese dogs?

Answer 81

Uncommon in \<2 yrs Primarily in TL (T12-T13) \> cervical (6-7) Radiographically calcified disk were sig greated in extrusive discs vs nonextrusive black coat color more likely to have disease increased median BW and females more likely to have extrusi

Question 82

What are the general considerations in cats with juvenile-onset seizures?

Answer 82

15 cats, Median age 27 weeks cluster in 6, status in 2 age of onset, presence of cluster, seizure localization not associated w/ classification 7/15 cats had structural disease - FIP, head trauma, porencephaly, bilateral occipital arachnoid diverticula, noninfectious meningoencephalitis FIP and noninfectious meningo did poorly 4 idiopathic - pheno and pheno+ keppra in 2/4 4 reactive - PSS

Question 83

What are the noted outcomes in dogs with nonsurgical treatment for congenital thoracic vertebral body malformations?

Answer 83

all brachycephalic, 6 months all ambulatory paraparesis and ataxia 4 dogs euthanized d/t progression, 2 underwent sx d/t progression, 7 dogs survived \>160 despite progression all had progression in spite of various medication therapies

Question 84

What were the noted findings in a group of 4 related Norweigian Buhunds?

Answer 84

12 weeks old, progressive ataxia, negative for infectious Histopath - reduce calbindin D28K and inositl triphosphate receptor 1 by Purkinje cells autosomal recessive

Question 85

What is the incidence of and risk factors for major complications or death in dogs undergoing cytoreductive surgery for treatment of primary intracranial masses?

Answer 85

13.1% died, 18.8% major complications abnormal neuro exam more likely to have complications or die suboccipital approach associated with increased mortality Most common post op complicaation was seizures (11.3%), worsening of neurosigns (3.8%) aspiration pneumonia (3.8%)

Question 86

What are general risk factors for GME in dogs?

Answer 86

s no sig difference in healthy w/ age, mw, bcs, human pop density, season, time of last vax

Question 87

What are the expected outcomes in medically and surgically managed dogs with congenital hydrocephalus?

Answer 87

Prednisone - 6/12 improved surgery dogs - 14/26 improved

Question 88

What is the prevelence and clinical significance of electropraphic seizure activity

Answer 88

20% had electrographic seizures 12 % had electrophraphic status epliepticus mortality was 48% for ES and 50% for ESE Mortality was 19% w/o ES or ESE ES and ESE risk factors: young age, overt seizure activity w/in 8 hr of EEG and history of cluster seizures

Question 89

What effect does oral cannabinoid usage have on dogs undergoing traditional seizure management?

Answer 89

2 dogs w/ CBD became ataxic and were withdrawn CBD group had decreased seizure frequency by 30% Proportion of responder similar bt groups CBD had increased in ALP (500 increase to 1400)

Question 90

What is the impact on location sampling and diagnostic result in patients with SRMA?

Answer 90

18 dogs had false neg at one site and confirmation at other Proportion of CSF that had a TNCC w/in reference interval comparable With increased age, likelihood of remarkable TNCC decreased Recommondation for sampling of cerebellomedullar cistern as well as lumbar subarachnoid space to confirm dx

Question 91

What are some neurologic and MRI imaging feacures of GSD dogs with CM?

Answer 91

Males \> females (out of 10 dogs) Chronic \> acute Ataxia in 9, 1 cervical hyperesthesia Compression site variable bt C4 and C7 Osseous proliferation of articular processes sole or contributaory cause in 6/10 8/10 had concurrent dorsdal compression d/t ligamenta flava hypertrophy