Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

How is Huntington disease inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

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2
Q

What are the precipitating movements associated with trigeminal neuralgia?

What is the treatment?

A
  • Tapping the nerve or face
  • Eating
  • Movement (talking)

Carbamazepine

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3
Q

If CT is negative and you still believe there is a stroke what is the next best test to order?

A

MRI

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4
Q

What are the risk factors for Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A
  • Recent respiratory or GI illness
    Most commonly caused by campylocater jejuni
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5
Q

Symmetric, progressive ascending muscle weakness, and lack of deep tendon reflexes should make you consider what diagnosis?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

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6
Q

What is the first line intravenous therapy for a patient in status epilepticus?

A

Lorazepam

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7
Q

What part of the spinal cord is responsible for pain and temperature sensation?

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract

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8
Q

What are the treatments for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide or valproic acid

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9
Q

A child presents with brief, sudden impaired consciousness. What diagnosis should you be thinking of?

A

Absence Seizures

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Ruptured aneurysm

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11
Q

Abrupt onset of the worst headache of ones life or thunderclap headache should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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12
Q

What is the presentation of Reye Syndrome?

A

A child with recent viral illness treated with aspirin

  • Encephalopathy
  • Delirium
  • Seizures
  • Vomiting
  • Hepatomegaly
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13
Q

What test is the single most useful test in establishing the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?

A

MRI

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14
Q

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Median Nerve

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15
Q

What is the most commonly compressed cervical nerve root?

A

C7

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16
Q

What is the classic triad of meningitis?

A

Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity

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17
Q

An LP for a patient with a viral meningitis will show elevated or decreased glucose?

A

Normal to slightly decreased

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18
Q

You believe a patient has had a stroke. He presents with aphasia, loss of hearing in one ear and loss of vision in his left eye. Is the blockage likely in the anterior or posterior circulation?

A

Anterior

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19
Q

What is the most common primary intracranial neoplasm?

A

Glioma

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20
Q

What is the initial abortive treatment for a cluster headache?

A

100% oxygen

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21
Q

Decreased GABA and substance P should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Huntington’s Diseasef

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22
Q

Imaging is negative for blood, but you strongly believe that there is a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What test can you order that will be definitive?

A

Lumbar puncture

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23
Q

What is a Chance Fracture?

What is it most commonly associated with?

A

Spinal fracture due to forceful flexion against restraint

Associated with improper seatbelt use (lap belt only)

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24
Q

What are you most likely to find on physical exam if the patient has an S1 radiculopathy?

A

Weak plantarflexion of the foot

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25
Q

What is a special test used to elicit radicular nerve pain?

A

The straight leg raise test

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26
Q

What movement tests the functionality of the median nerve?

A

Pincer function of the thumb and index finger

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27
Q

In a patient with Guillain-Barre, what would you expect to see in lumbar puncture results?

A

CSF will show elevated protein with a normal white blood cell count

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28
Q

Which bacterial infection commonly occurs prior to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni infection

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29
Q

In a patient presenting with Guillian-Barre, what important next test should be performed to avoid complications of the diagnosis once a diagnosis of Guillian-Barre has been given?

A

Vital Capacity or Inspiratory Force is critical to assessing respiratory effort

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30
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Irregular Breathing

Results from increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

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31
Q

What is the most common type of brain herniation?

A

Uncal transtentorial herniation

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32
Q

If a patient is given tissue-type plasminogen activator, how long should you wait before giving aspirin or clopidogrel?

A

24 hours

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33
Q

What is the most common cause of bilateral Bell’s Palsy?

A

Lyme Disease

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34
Q

What is Lhermitte Sign

A

Electric-shock like sensation down the spine with neck flexion. An early sign of multiple sclerosis.

35
Q

In the treatment of Wernicke’s, what is the order of medications?

A

Thiamine must be given before glucose to avoid worsening symptoms

36
Q

What artery is most commonly involved in ischemic stroke?

A

Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)

37
Q

What is the first-line imaging for suspected stroke?

A

Non-contrast CT

38
Q

What is the time window for IV tPA in acute ischemic stroke?

A

Within 3 hours (can extend to 4.5 hours in select patients)

39
Q

Which stroke syndrome presents with contralateral leg weakness more than arm weakness?

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) stroke

40
Q

What stroke syndrome causes homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing?

A

Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA) stroke

41
Q

What is the mainstay of secondary prevention after ischemic stroke?

A

Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin, clopidogrel) & statin therapy

42
Q

What is the classic description of a cluster headache?

A

Unilateral, periorbital pain with autonomic symptoms (lacrimation, rhinorrhea, ptosis, miosis)

43
Q

What is the first-line abortive treatment for cluster headaches?

A

High-flow oxygen + sumatriptan

44
Q

What medication class is first-line for migraine prevention?

A

Beta-blockers (propranolol), anticonvulsants (topiramate, valproate), or TCAs (amitriptyline)

45
Q

What is the treatment of choice for idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)?

A

Acetazolamide ± LP for symptomatic relief

46
Q

What red flag headache symptoms suggest an urgent workup (e.g., CT/MRI)?

A

Sudden onset (‘thunderclap’), focal deficits, AMS, fever, trauma, cancer history

47
Q

What is the most common cause of new-onset seizures in adults?

A

Stroke (vascular disease)

48
Q

What type of seizure is characterized by lip-smacking and automatisms?

A

Focal (partial) seizure with impaired awareness

49
Q

What is the first-line treatment for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

50
Q

What is the treatment for status epilepticus?

A

IV benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam) → fosphenytoin → phenobarbital if refractory

51
Q

Which antiepileptic drug is associated with gingival hyperplasia?

52
Q

What is the classic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity

53
Q

What is the first-line medication for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Levodopa-Carbidopa

54
Q

What type of tremor worsens with movement and improves at rest?

A

Essential tremor

55
Q

What is the treatment for essential tremor?

A

Propranolol or primidone

56
Q

What genetic disorder presents with choreiform movements and psychiatric symptoms in middle age?

A

Huntington’s disease

57
Q

What condition is associated with autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

58
Q

What is the gold standard test for myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium (Tensilon) test or acetylcholine receptor antibodies

59
Q

What is the most common cause of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni infection

60
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

A

IVIG or plasmapheresis (NO steroids!)

61
Q

Which condition presents with ascending symmetric weakness and areflexia?

A

Guillain-Barré Syndrome

62
Q

What is the most common initial presentation of multiple sclerosis?

A

Optic neuritis (painful monocular vision loss)

63
Q

What imaging finding is characteristic of MS?

A

White matter plaques on MRI (‘Dawson’s fingers’)

64
Q

What is the treatment for acute MS exacerbations?

A

IV corticosteroids

65
Q

What is the most common long-term disease-modifying therapy for MS?

A

Beta-interferons or glatiramer acetate

66
Q

What test confirms the diagnosis of MS when MRI is inconclusive?

A

CSF analysis showing oligoclonal bands

67
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral neuropathy?

A

Diabetes mellitus

68
Q

What is the first-line treatment for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Gabapentin or pregabalin

69
Q

What is the characteristic physical exam finding in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Positive Tinel’s and Phalen’s signs

70
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

71
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral vertigo?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

72
Q

What maneuver is diagnostic for BPPV?

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

73
Q

What maneuver is used to treat BPPV?

A

Epley maneuver

74
Q

What type of vertigo presents with hearing loss and tinnitus?

A

Ménière’s disease

75
Q

What is the treatment for acute vestibular neuritis?

A

Steroids + vestibular rehab

76
Q

What spinal cord syndrome causes loss of pain and temperature bilaterally at the level of the lesion?

A

Syringomyelia

77
Q

Which spinal cord syndrome results in ipsilateral loss of motor/vibration and contralateral loss of pain/temp?

A

Brown-Séquard syndrome

78
Q

What spinal cord injury presents with loss of pain and temperature but preserved proprioception?

A

Anterior cord syndrome

79
Q

What is the most common cause of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Herniated lumbar disc

80
Q

What is the classic triad of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Saddle anesthesia, urinary retention, leg weakness

81
Q

Evaluating reflexes in a suspected neuro injury, with damage to the upper neurons what would you expect the finding to be?

A

Reflexes will be increased - lower motor neuron injuries reflexes are diminished

82
Q

Fasiculations are seen in what time of motor neuron injury?

A

Lower motor neuron injury

83
Q

A patient recently diagnosed with Alzheimer’s develops nightmares, what medication would you suspect is causing his symptoms?

A

Donepezil - most common side effect is vivid nightmares. Medication should be stopped.

84
Q

Which cranial nerve controls lateral eye movement?

A

CN VI, Abducens