Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What streptococcal-related disease presents as pharyngitis associated with a sandpaper rash, sore throat, fever, and a strawberry tongue appearance?

A

Scarlet Fever

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2
Q

In moderate to severe impetigo, what is the treatment?

What bugs cause impetigo?

A

Oral antibiotics: Cephalexin or dicloxacillin

Staph. aureus and strep. pyogenes

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3
Q

An India ink stain showing cysts should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcosis

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4
Q

What immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

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5
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for early immunity?

A

IgM

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6
Q

What are the most common fungal causes of purulent pericarditis?

A

Candida and Histoplasma species

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7
Q

Bird or bat droppings should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

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8
Q

What animal is most likely to transmit rabies in the United States?

A

Bats

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9
Q

Rabies is transmitted via saliva into bite wounds or mucus membranes. The virus then replicates. Does a bite on the head/neck have a shorter or longer incubation period compared to a bite on the extremities?

A

Shorter incubation period

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10
Q

What are some symptoms of rabies infection?

What is the treatment?

A
  • Hydrophobia (fear of water, maifesting as throat spasms and making it difficult to swallow water)
  • Agitation
  • Muscle spasms
  • Hallucinations, ataxia, and seizures

Supportive care (often fatal), immune globulin if indicated

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11
Q

What are the indications for rabies postexposure prophylaxis immune globulin?

A
  • Not previously vaccinated, immune globulin should be given around the wound site as soon as possible
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12
Q

Describe the rash of Herpes Zoster?

A

Papulovesicular rash with unilateral, dermatomal distribution that does not cross the midline

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13
Q

If performed, a Tzanck smear will show what kind of cells in Herpes Zoster infections?

A

Multinucleated giant cells

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14
Q

Describe the presentation of Shigellosis?

A

Pateint presents with fever, bloody and mucoid diarrhea, and seizures (more common in children)

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15
Q

What are some complications associated with shigella toxin?

A
  • Bacteremia and sepsis
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  • Seizure (m/c in children)
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16
Q

A 16-year-old presents with an exudative sore throat and general malaise. Physical exam reveals posterior chain lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. What diagnosis do you suspect?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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17
Q

How is infectious mononucleosis diagnosed?

A

Heterophile antibody test (Mono spot is more likely to be positive after second week of illness)

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18
Q

How long after infection with mononucleosis should a patient refrain from contact sports?

A

At least 3-4 weeks

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19
Q

Rice-water stool should make you think of what diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

Vibrio Cholera

Doxycycline or Ciprofloxacin; Azithromycin for pregnant patients

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20
Q

A patient was camping a few days ago and now has a rash that began on his writs and ankles. What diagnosis should you be thinking of?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of food-borne gastroenteritis in the U.S.?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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22
Q

What are the most likely sources of a campylobactor jejuni infection?

A
  • Chicken
  • Water
  • Milk
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23
Q

Which antibiotic is most likely to cause C. diff?

A

Clindamycin

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24
Q

What are the two important pieces of patient education for anyone diagnosed with mononucleosis?

A

No contact sports (risk of splenic rupture) and no kissing (highly contagious)

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25
Q

What is the minimum amount of time needed for a tick to transfer Lyme disease to a human?

A

24 hours

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26
Q

What type of mosquitos carry malaria?

A

Female anopheles

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27
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

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28
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)?

A

Bactrim (TMP-SMX)

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29
Q

A gram-positive organism in clusters should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Staphylococcus

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30
Q

What is the treatment for a tetanus infection?

A

Penicillin G, immune globulin, and supportive care (especially respiratory support)

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31
Q

Which herpes virus causes Epstein-Barr?

A

Human Herpesvirus 4

32
Q

What might happen if you infuse vancomycin too quickly?

A

Red man syndrome (red rash of face, neck, and upper body)

33
Q

A stuck-on grey membrane in the pharynx should make you think of what diagnosis?

34
Q

What organism causes taxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

35
Q

The scotch tape test is used to diagnose what disease?

A

Pinworm (enterobiasis)

36
Q

What organism is most commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

37
Q

Bloody stool with cysts and trophozoites should make you think of what diagnosis?

38
Q

Under what age should a child not receive the flu vaccination?

39
Q

Beefy red raised diaper rash with satellite lesions should make you think of what organism?

40
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for meningoccocal meningitis is recommended for close contacts of patients with confirmed neisseria meningitidis. What is the treatment of choice?

A

Rifampin for 2 days

For pregnant women, ceftriaxone for one dose is preferred

41
Q

What organism is commonly the problem in a question where a hiker/camper has diarrhea?

A

Giardia lamblia

42
Q

What drug do you use to treat pinworm?

A

Albendazole

43
Q

Is neisseria gram (+) or gram (-)?

A

Gram negative

44
Q

What is the drug of choice for syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

45
Q

What is the most common prophylactic antibiotic used preoperatively?

A

Cefazolin (Ancef)

46
Q

Is staph gram (+) or gram (-)?

A

Gram positive

47
Q

What is the treatment for botulism?

48
Q

What causes mumps?

What is the most common complication of mumps?

A

Mumps is caused by the mumps virus, which is a paramyxovirus, an enveloped, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA virus

Orchitis

49
Q

How do you definitively diagnose rabies?

A

Brain biopsy of the animal with fluorescent antibody staining

50
Q

Why can’t you give fluoroquinalones to kids?

A

They can cause issues with cartilage development

51
Q

What is the most common complication following a shingles infection?

A

Post-herpetic neuralgia

52
Q

What is the most common infection transmitted by rabbits?

53
Q

What is the name of the PO antiviral with activity against influenza?

A

Oseltamivir; most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset

54
Q

A patient presents to the ER with acute progressive descending weakness, diplopia, and a very dry mouth. What organism might be causing this?

A

Clostridium botulinum

55
Q

A gram-positive organism in chains should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Streptococcus

56
Q

What are the first-line antibiotics to treat MRSA?

A

TMP-SMX, clindamycin, and doxycycline

57
Q

Any reference to dark field microscopy should make you think of what organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

58
Q

Owl-eye inclusion bodies should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

59
Q

Diarrhea with blood and mucus should make you think of what diagnosis?

60
Q

A pregnant woman and cat litter should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

61
Q

What is the treatment for pertussis?

A

Azithromycin for 5 days

62
Q

What is the treatment of shigella?

A

Hydration and ciprofloxacin

63
Q

What is the causative organism of hot tub folliculitis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

64
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

65
Q

What disease is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

66
Q

What is the drug of choice for urethritis caused by Neisseria?

A

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM

67
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat Lyme disease in pregnant women?

A

Amoxicillin

68
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis in the U.S.?

69
Q

What is a common lab finding in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Thrombocytopenia which can progress to DIC in severe cases - this is because the disease ffects the vascular endothelium

70
Q

In a healthy, asymptomatic patient, what is the most sensitive test for tuberculosis?

A

Administration of purified protein derivative (PPD)

71
Q

What is the screening test for syphalis?

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)

72
Q

What is the most common radiographic finding in tuberculosis?

A

Hilar lymphadenopathy

73
Q

What is the first line treatment for pertussis?

A

Oral macrolide, either azithromycin, erythromycin or clarithromycin

74
Q

In what phase of pertussis do you have the characteristic paroxysmal cough and inspriratory stridor?

A

Paroxysmal phase (weeks 2-6)

75
Q

Though all infants are recommended to receive pertussis vaccination with a DTaP, what form of vaccination is recommended for adults?

A

Tdap, and the CDC recommends a booster every 10 years

76
Q

What should be the treatment of choice in an individual with a severe penicillin allergy with strep?

A

Macrolides - clindamycin, asithromycin, or clarithromycin