Neuroanatomy - AF Flashcards

1
Q

Spinal cord length:

Males
Females

Vertebral column length:

A

Spinal cord length:

Males 45cm

Females 42cm

Vertebral column: 70cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Spinal cord terminates at?

Dura mater extends to?

A

SC: L1-L2

Dura: S1-S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In which spinal cord levels can you find the following tracts?

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
Cuneate tract
Intermediolateral cell column

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract: L2 and above

Cuneate tract: T6 and above

Intermediolateral cell column: L2-C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is Onuf’s nucleus found?

A

S1-S4

Lamina IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where can you find glycine?

A

Lamina IX internerurons:

Renshaw Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mechanoreceptor for vibration, tapping

A

Pacinian corpuscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mechanoreceptor for point discrimination

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Distance between two simultaneous adjacent stimuli where patient can discriminate:

Fingertips
Shin

A

Fingertips: 5mm

Shin: 10cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Position sense fibers from the hindlimb pass through gracile traxt -> d. Nucleus of Clarke -> dorsal sc tract -> ________ -> ML -> thalamus

A

Nucleus of Z (of Brodal and Pompeiano)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs pass through which ascending tracts?

A

Dorsal Spinocerebellar Tract: m spindle, g tendon

Ventral Spinocerebellar Tract - g tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Location & roles of Group 1a and Group 1b fibers

A

Group1a - muscle spindle - length, rate

Group1b - golgi tendon - tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A-delta fibers innervate which laminae?

A

II, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

C fibers innervate wc laminae?

A

I-III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Modality lamination of the spinothalamic tract

A

Anterior: pain

Posterior: thermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In doing a cordotomy, what landmark does the surgeon use to look for the spinothalamic tract? How will he orient the knife?

A

Ligamentum denticulatum

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which lamina is the modular center for pain?

A

Lamina II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The anterior spinothalamic tract projects to which laminae?

A

VI-VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which laminae are wide dynamic range and respond to both mechano and nociceptors?

A

Laminae IV, V - wide dynamic range, noci and mechano

β€”

Lamina I - High threshold, nociceptive

Laminae VI-VII - low threshold, mechano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the neurotransmitters found in:

A) Substantia gelatinosa
B) Laminae I-III

A

S Gelatinosa: NE, Serotonin

Laminae I-III: Substance P, Somatostatin, Enkephalins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Excitatory or inhibitory?

Substance P
Enkephalins

A

Substance P: excitatory

Enkephalins: inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Based on Afifi, what percentage of corticospinal fibers

A) decussate onto the lateral CST: ____
B) do not decussate at the medulla -> ____?: _____
C) do not decussate at all -> ______?: ______

A

A) decussate -> LCST: 90%

B) don’t decussate at medulla -> ACST/ Turck’s Bundle: 8%

C) don’t decussate at all -> Barnes’ Bundle: 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the motor function of the rubrospinal tract?

A

Flexor MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the major output of the rubrospinal tract?

A

Inferior olive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the functions of the

LATERAL Vestibulospinal Tract
MEDIAL Vestibulospinal Tract

A

Lateral VST - Upright posture

Medial VST - head position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 4 findings in Horners and which structures are involved?

A

Ptosis - tarsal plate

Anhidrosis - facial sweat glands

Miosis - dilator pupillae

Enophthalmos - retroorbital fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the excitatory NT in the spinal cord?

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

NT of primary nociceptive and non-nociceptive afferents in the dorsal horn

A

Substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neuropeptides are most abundant in the
___ horn
___ region

A

Dorsal horn

LS region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Location and function of

Enkephalin, Somatostatin

A

Dorsal Horn

Inhibit release of Substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In which spinal cord segments can you find VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)?

A

LS segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Origin and function of norepinephrine in terms of activity in the dorsal horn?

A

Locus ceruleus

Inhibits nociceptive activity in dorsal horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Myotatic reflex:

Activates (m. spindle/golgi tendon)?
Uses what fibers (1a/1b)?
Terminates on (alpha/gamma MN)?
A

Muscle spindle / primary annulospiral endings

1a fibers

Alpha MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Inverse myotatic reflex:

Activates?
Uses what fibers?
Terminates on?

A

Golgi tendon organ

1b fibers

Inhibit alpha MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Flexor reflex:

Activates?
Uses what fibers?
Terminates on?

A

Pain receptors

III fibers

Activation of Ipsi flexor + inhibition of ipsi extensor MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the sources (type/nerve) of efferent innervation of the urinary bladder?

A

Sympathetic - hypogastric n

Parasympathetic - pelvic n

Somatic - pudendal n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The artery of Adamkiewicz is found on which levels? And usually arises on which side?

A

T8-L4

LEFT side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Biceps

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Deltoid

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Triceps

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Quadriceps

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Gastrocnemius

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Extensor hallucis

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the spinal cord segment responsible for the ff myotome?

Rectal sphincter

A

S3, S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Function of the anterior spinothalamic tract

A

Light touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Function of the spinocerebellar tracts

A

Unconscious proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Function of the dorsal columns

A

Conscious proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Function of Morin’s tract

A

Morin: Spinocervical thalamic tract

Conscious proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What innervates the detrusor muscle?

A) Sympathetic (T11-L2)
B) Parasympathetic (S2-S4)
C) Somatic/Onuf (S2-S4)

A

B) Parasympathetic (S2-S4)

Pelvic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What innervates the internal urethral sphincter?

A) Sympathetic (T11-L2)
B) Parasympathetic (S2-S4)
C) Somatic/Onuf (S2-S4)

A

A) Sympathetic (T11-L2)

Hypogastric nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What innervates the external sphincter?

A) Sympathetic (T11-L2)
B) Parasympathetic (S2-S4)
C) Somatic/Onuf (S2-S4)

A

C) Somatic/Onuf (S2-S4)

Pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the dermatome of the following body landmark?

Shoulder

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the dermatome of the following body landmark?

Big toe

A

L4, L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the dermatome of the following body landmark?

Small toe

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Autonomic sympathetic neurons are found in which spinal cord segment/s?

A

Thoracic, upper lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Autonomic parasympathetic neurons are found in which spinal cord segment/s?

A

Sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Autonomic innervation of the urinary bladder is related to nerve cells in which regions of the spinal cord?

A

Lower thoracic
Upper lumbar
Midsacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Somatic innervation of the urinary bladder originates in?

A

Nucleus of Onufrowicz

Ventral horn of midsacral spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The junction zone between two types of tissue in the spinal cord is called

A

Obersteiner-Redlich space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The dorsal column is essential for?

A) Passively impressed stimulus
B) Temporal or sequential stimulus
C) Actively explored and manipulated
D) All of the above
E) B & C
A

E) B& C

But it transmits all of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Symptoms of conus medullaris syndrome

A

Early sphincter dysfunction:

  • Urinary incontinence
  • Loss of voluntary emptying of bladder
  • Increased residual urine volume
  • Absent sensation of urge to urinate

Saddle anesthesia

No motor deficit until S1-L5 roots are involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Symptoms of cauda equina syndrome

A

Early occurrence of radicular pain

LMN paresis

Sensory loss L2-L4

LATE sphincter disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus?

A
Nucleus Oralis (rostral to n. Interpolaris)
Nucleus Interpolaris (rostral to obex)
Caudal Nucleus (s. Gelatinosa - obex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which part of the Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus is responsible for Dental pain?

A) Nucleus Oralis (rostral to n. Interpolaris)
B) Nucleus Interpolaris (rostral to obex)
C) Caudal Nucleus (s. Gelatinosa - obex)

A

B) Nucleus Interpolaris (rostral to obex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which part of the Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus is responsible for pain and temperature?

A) Nucleus Oralis (rostral to n. Interpolaris)
B) Nucleus Interpolaris (rostral to obex)
C) Caudal Nucleus (s. Gelatinosa - obex)

A

C) Caudal Nucleus (s. Gelatinosa - obex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which part of the Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus is responsible for tactile sensations from the oral mucosa?

A) Nucleus Oralis (rostral to n. Interpolaris)
B) Nucleus Interpolaris (rostral to obex)
C) Caudal Nucleus (s. Gelatinosa - obex)

A

A) Nucleus Oralis (rostral to n. Interpolaris)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The accessory cuneate nucleus is concerned with conscious or unconscious proprioception?

A

Unconscious

It does NOT belong functionally to the dorsal column system (conscious proprio)

It is part of the dorsal spinocerebellar system

Fibers entering above c8 (upper border, Clarke) -> ACN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Stimulation of the accessory cuneate nucleus results in what systemic reaction?

A

Bradycardia

*receives fibers from CN IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the circumventricular organs?

A

SSOAP Na Me

Subfornical
Subcommissural
Organum vasculosum
Area postrema
Pineal gland
Neurohypophysis
Medial eminence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The following tracts are found in the juxtarestiform body EXCEPT:

A) Cerebellovestibular tract
B) Vestibulocerebellar tract
C) Cerebelloreticular tract
D) Reticulocerebellar tract
E) Cerebellospinal tract
A

D) Reticulocerebellar tract

- found in the restiform body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Restiform body

A) Superior cerebellar peduncle
B) Middle cerebellar peduncle
C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Brachium conjunctivum

A) Superior cerebellar peduncle
B) Middle cerebellar peduncle
C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

A) Superior cerebellar peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Brachium pontis

A) Superior cerebellar peduncle
B) Middle cerebellar peduncle
C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

B) Middle cerebellar peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the perihypoglossal nuclei for?

A

Satellite nuclei aka n intercalatus, prepositus, Roller’s nucleus

Related to EOMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which muscle, being affected in CN XII lesions, causes tongue weakness?

A

Genioglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

INTRAmedullary lesion

Affects:
CN IX, X, XI, XII + contralateral hemiparesis

A

Jackson’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Intra/extramedullary syndrome

Affects
IX, X, XII

A

Tapia’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where do the two roots of the accessory nerve arise from?

What are the different functions of each root?

A

Spinal root - from accessory nucleus

Cranial root - n. Ambiguus, caudal pole

-

Spinal root: SCM, traps

Cranial root: larynx, intrinsic muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

CN XI injury causes weakness when turning the head to the ipsilateral/opposite side?

A

Opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the 4 nuclei of the vagus nerve?

2 efferent
2 afferent

A

Efferent:
DMN
N ambiguus

Afferent:
N. Spinal tract
N. Solitarius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The nucleus solitarius receives 2 types of visceral afferent fibers. What are they and where are they from?

A

SVA - taste - epiglottis

GVA - visceral sensations, pha/larynx, trachea, esophagus, thoracic, abdominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), through the n ambiguus, supplies which muscle? Function?

A
Stylopharyngeus
Elevates pharynx (swallowing, speech)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The inferior salivatory nucleus is innervated by the nucleus ambiguus through which nerve?

A) CNX Vagus
B) CNIX Glossopharyngeal
C) CN XII Hypoglossal

A

B) CNIX Glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Taste:

Anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Epiglottis

A

Anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Facial nerve

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Glossopharyngeal nerve

Epiglottis
Vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

GVA: tactile, pain, thermal sensation of posterior 1/3 tongue, tonsils, eustachian tube

A

N. Solitarius via Glossopharyngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What innervates the carotid body and sinus?

CN, specific n

A

CN IX, carotid sinus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where is the pain found in Reichert syndrome? What is the trigger?

A

Reichert syndrome = glossopharyngeal neuralgia

Throat, posterior tongue, ear

Swallowing/tongue movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The gustatory zone of the N. solitarius projects to which nucleus of the thalamus?

A

Ventral posterior medial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

DORSAL respiratory group contains

a) Inspiratory neurons
b) Expiratory neurons
c) Both

and projects to?

A

DRG

a) Inspiratory neurons

Projects to the diaphragm (DD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

VENTRAL respiratory group contains

a) Inspiratory neurons
b) Expiratory neurons
c) Both

A

VRG

c) both

Intercostal & abdominal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Odine’s curse is caused by a lesion in

A

N. ambiguus, adjacent RF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Neurogenic pulmonary edema is caused by lesions in

A

N. solitarius

*hypothalamic, medullaryu sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

W/c swallowing group is responsible for trigger, shape, time sequential rhythmic or swallowing pattern

a) Dorsal swallowing group (n. solitarius, RF)
b) Ventral swallowing group (n. ambiguus)

A

a) Dorsal swallowing group (n. solitarius, RF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

W/c swallowing group is responsible for distributing swallowing drive to various motor neuronal pools involved in swallowing

a) Dorsal swallowing group (n. solitarius, RF)
b) Ventral swallowing group (n. ambiguus)

A

b) Ventral swallowing group (n. ambiguus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In vomiting, the n. solitarius receives input from the following EXCEPT:

a) Taste receptors (VII, IX, X)
b) Parasympathetic (X)
c) Sympathetic (splanchnic nerves)
d) Intestine
e) None (receives from all of the above)

A

e) None (receives from all of the above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Yawning originates from?

A

Oxytocinergic neurons in the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus

  • to the hippocampus, pons, medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The trapezoid body arises from

A

the cochlear nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Destruction of ___% of the tegmentum causes LOC

A

> 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which is the largest subnuclei of the Nucleus locus ceruleus?

a) Central
b) Anterior
c) Nucleus subceruleus
d) Posterior and dorsal nucleus

A

a) Central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Cell loss in these portions of the locus nucleus locus ceruleus causes what diseases?

a) Entire nucleus
b) Rostral portion

A

a) Entire nucleus
Parkinson’s

b) Rostral portion
Alzheimer’s Disease
Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The parabrachial nucleus has the following as its functions EXCEPT:

a) Pain and temperature sensation
b) Gustatory pathways
c) Neuromelanin-containing
d) Autonomic regulation

A

a) Pain and temperature sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The pedunculopontine nucleus has the following as its functions EXCEPT:

a) Somatic motor & cognitive behaviors
b) Sleep-wake arousal system
c) Muscle coordination, oculomotor function
d) Autonomic regulation

A

d) Autonomic regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Cochlear Nerve fibers are central processes of bipolar neurons in the _____ ganglion, located in the _____ of the inner ear

Peripheral processes are linked to hair cells in _______

A

Spinal ganglion

Modiolus of the inner ear

the organ of Corti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Match:

Dorsal cochlear n.

a) Basal turns/high-frequency
b) Apical turns/low-frequency
c) Basal turns/low-frequency
d) Apical turns/high-frequency

A

a) Basal turns/high-frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Match:

Ventral cochlear n.

a) Basal turns/high-frequency
b) Apical turns/low-frequency
c) Basal turns/low-frequency
d) Apical turns/high-frequency

A

b) Apical turns/low-frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Trapezoid body

a) Dorsal acoustic stria
b) Ventral acoustic stria
c) Intermediate acoustic stria

A

b) Ventral acoustic stria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Largest of the striae

a) Dorsal acoustic stria
b) Ventral acoustic stria
c) Intermediate acoustic stria

A

b) Ventral acoustic stria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Ventral acoustic stria is formed by axons from the ____ cochelar nucleus

a) Superior cochlear nucleus
b) Inferior cochlear nucleus
c) Dorsal cochlear nucleus

A

ANS: b) Inferior cochlear nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Most important relay station in the ascending & descending auditory projections

A

Inferior colliculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Nuclei of the lateral lemniscus are connected via ____ commissure

A

Probst’s Commissure

110
Q

Stimulation of the OC bundle / Efferent bundle of ______ activates/suppresses the receptivity of the organ of Corti and thus the activity in the auditory nerve

A

Efferent bundle of Rassmusen

Suppresses

111
Q

Organ of Corti, displacement of the basilar membrane…

Toward the scala vestibuli Inhibition/Excitation

Toward the scala tympani
Inhibition/Excitation

A

Vestibuli: Inhibition

Tympani: Excitation

112
Q

Vestibular nerve fibers are central processes of bipolar cells in ______ ganglion

A

Scarpa’s ganglion

113
Q

Review:

In which ganglia do you find central processes from the ff nerves?

a) Cochlear nerve fibers
b) Vestibular nerve fibers

A

a) Cochlear nerve fibers - SPINAL ganglion

b) Vestibular nerve fibers - SCARPA’s ganglion

114
Q

3 semicircular canals:

angular/linear acceleration

A

ANGULAR

115
Q

Utricle & saccule:

angular/linear acceleration

A

LINEAR

LINUS

116
Q

Scarpa’s Ganglion:

Receives fibers from anterior & horizontal semicircular canals, utricle, saccule

Superior or Inferior?

A

Superior

  • superior: anterior, horizontal SCC, utricle, saccule

inferior: posterior SCC, saccule

117
Q

Match the vestibular nuclei w/ their eponyms

Medial, Lateral, Superior, Inferior

Bechterew’s
Deiter’s
Principal/Schwalbe’s
Spinal

A

Medial: Principal/Schwalbe’s

Lateral: Deiter’s

Superior: Bechterew’s

Inferior: Spinal

Martin Luther’s School of Informatics
Principal Deiter’s Screwed (bechterewed) Spine

Med Principal
Late Deit
Superior Bech
Inferior Spinal

118
Q

Nystagmus. Where would you see the slow component? Fast component?
Turning to the right in a barany chair
Pouring warm water in the right ear

A

Slow: left
Fast: right

119
Q

Bilateral stimulation:

Anterior SCC
Posterior SCC

Upward or downward movement?

A

Anterior SCC: upward

Posterior SCC: downward

Pushed from the front -> fall back, looking up the sky and vice versa

120
Q

Sensory & gustatory fibers + visceral motor component = separate lateral root of the facial nerve =

A

Nervus Intermedius / Wrisberg’s Nerve

121
Q

The following muscles are supplied by the facial nerve EXCEPT:

a) Stapedius
b) Stylohyoid
c) Muscles of facial expression
d) Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

A

d) Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

Posterior belly

122
Q

Crocodile tears results from a CN VII lesion proximal/distal to the geniculate ganglion.

A

Proximal to the geniculate ganglion

123
Q

True or false.

Lesions of the abducens NUCLEUS result in paralysis of ABDUCTION.

A

False.

Lesions of abducens nucleus (vs nerve) do NOT result in paralysis of abduction, instead is by failure of ipsilateral horizontal gaze!

Abd. nerve: diplopia
Abd. nucleus: impaired horizontal gaze

124
Q

Portio minor:

afferent/efferent?

A

Portio minor: efferent

Portio major: afferent

125
Q

What innervates the Digastric’s

a) ANTERIOR belly
b) POSTERIOR belly

A

Anterior: CN V

Posterior: CN VII

126
Q

Proprioceptive fibers conveying pressure and kinesthesia from teeth, periodontium, hard palate, and muscles of mastication originate from which nucleus of CNV?

A

Mesencephalic Nucleus of CN V

127
Q

The general somatic sensory fibers that convey pain, temperature, touch sensations from the face, anterior aspect of the head originate from which ganglion?

A

Semilunar (Gasserian) Ganglion

128
Q

Review: match

Parts of the CN V’s Spinal nucleus:
Oral, Interpolar, Caudal

A) Tactile sensibility from oral mucosa
B) Dental pain
C) Pain & temp from face

A

A) Tactile sensibility from oral mucosa
- Oral

B) Dental pain
- Interpolar

C) Pain & temp from face
- Caudal

129
Q

Trigeminothalamic fibers:

Origin?
Termination?

A

Origin: Interpolaris of spinal nucleus, Main sensory nucleus of CNV

Termination: VPM

130
Q

Trigeminal reflexes (partners/collaterals):

Vomiting reflex

A

Vagus, DMN

131
Q

Trigeminal reflexes (partners/collaterals):

Sneezing reflex

A

Nucleus ambiguus, RF respiratory center, spinal cord

132
Q

Trigeminal reflexes (partners/collaterals):

Tearing reflex, tears in response to corneal irritation

A

Superior salivatory nucleus

133
Q

The efferent root of the Trigeminal Nerve supplies WHICH of the following muscles?

A) Tensor tympani, tensor palati
B) Stylohyoid
C) Posterior belly of the digastric
D) Stapedius

A

A) Tensor tympani, tensor palati

  • MYLOhyoid
  • ANTERIOR belly of the digastric.

Stapedius - facial nerve

134
Q

What are the 4 nuclei of the Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Efferent: Motor nucleus
Afferent: Mesencephalic, Sensory, Spinal nuclei

135
Q

As per Afifi, the Basis Pedunculi is composed of? (2)

A
Cerebral Peduncle (Crus Cerebri)
Substantia Nigra
136
Q

Match the divisions of the inferior colliculus with their functions:

Central, Pericentral, External Nuclei

A) Major relay nucleus (auditory pathway)
B) Acousticomotor reflexes
C) Directs auditory attention, receives contralateral monoaural input

A

A) Major relay nucleus (auditory pathway) - CENTRAL

B) Acousticomotor reflexes - EXTERNAL

C) Directs auditory attention, receives contralateral monoaural input - PERICENTRAL

137
Q

Location - ____ to the MLF in the central gray matter
- Close proximity to the dorsal raphe nucleus

Connections - Receives fibers from interpeduncular nucleus
- Projects on autonomic nuclei (RF)

A) Central Tegmental Nucleus
B) Lateral Tegmental Nucleus
C) Ventral Tegmental Nucleus
D) Dorsal Tegmental Nucleus

A

D) Dorsal Tegmental Nucleus

138
Q

β–‘ Location
___ to the MLF in the tegmentum

Connections
- Receives fibers from the mamillary bodies

A) Central Tegmental Nucleus
B) Lateral Tegmental Nucleus
C) Ventral Tegmental Nucleus
D) Dorsal Tegmental Nucleus

A

C) Ventral Tegmental Nucleus

139
Q

Affected in patients with progressive supranuclear palsy

A) Lateral Ventral Tegmental Nucleus
B) Lateral Dorsal Tegmental Nucleus
C) Medial Ventral Tegmental Nucleus
D) Medial Dorsal Tegmental Nucleus

A

B) Lateral Dorsal Tegmental Nuclei

& Pedunculopontine Nuclei

140
Q

Where is the Dorsal Raphe Nucleus located?

A

(Nucleus Supratrochlearis)

Periaqueductal gray matter, VENTRAL part

Between trochlear nuclei

141
Q

Where is the Locus Ceruleus (Nucleus Pigmentosus) located?

A

Rostral Pons
Caudal Mesencephalon
At the level of IC: edge of central GM

142
Q

The following are functions of the Locus Ceruleus EXCEPT

A) Provides noradrenergic innervation to most CNS regions
B) Urinary bladder control
C) Regulation of respiration
D) REM stage of sleep

A

B) Urinary bladder control

143
Q

What are the 2 zones of the substantia nigra and what elements can you find in each of them?

A

Dorsal Zona Compacta: MELANIN

Ventral Zona Reticulata: IRON

144
Q

What neurotransmitters are produced by the following neurons of the Substantia Nigra?

a) Pigmented n
b) Nonpigmented n

A

a) Pigmented n - DOPAMINE

b) Nonpigmented n - CHOLINERGIC or GABAERGIC

145
Q

This substantia nigra tract’s involvement in parkinsonism may explain akinesia.

It goes to the limbic cortex via _____

A

Nigrocortical tract

Midbrain forebrain bundle

146
Q

In the Nigrothalamic tract

I. What kind of output is produced?

II. The pars reticulata connects to the following thalamic nuclei EXCEPT:

a) Ventral anterior
b) Ventral posterior
c) Ventral lateral
d) Dorsomedial

A

I. GABAergic

II. b) Ventral posterior

It connects to the ventral anterior, ventral lateral, dorsomedial nuclei

147
Q

What are the 3 main mesencephalic dopaminergic cell groups?

A

SN Pars Compacta
SN Pars Dorsalis
Ventral Tegmental Area of Tsai

148
Q

Most prominent dopamine cell group of the ventral tegmental area?

A

Nucleus parabrachialis pigmentosus

149
Q

Name the clinical conditions associated with:

MESOSTRIATAL
Hypoactivity -
Hyperactivity

MESOALLOCORTICAL
Hypoactivity -
Hyperactivity -

A

MESOSTRIATAL
Hypoactivity - Parkinsonism
Hyperactivity - Huntington’s

MESOALLOCORTICAL
Hypoactivity - Cognitive sx, Parkinsons
Hyperactivity - Psychosis

150
Q

Upper retinal quadrants of the contralateral visual field are found in which part of the superior colliculus?

Medial/Lateral

A

Medial SC - UPPER retinal quadrants

Lateral SC - LOWER retinal quadrants

151
Q

Central VF fibers are found in which part of the superior colliculus?

Caudal/Rostral

A

Rostral - CENTRAL

Caudal - PERIPHERAL

152
Q

The Tectothalamic tract projects onto the following EXCEPT:

a) Ventral medial nucleus
b) Lateral posterior nucleus
c) LGN
d) Pulvinar

A

a) Ventral medial nucleus

153
Q

What are the parts of the Red Nucleus?

A

Rostral - PARVIcellular (small)

Caudal - MAGNIcellular

154
Q

The Mollaret’s Triangle is bounded by?

A

Red Nucleus
Inferior Olive
Dentate Nucleus

155
Q

Lesions in the Mollaret’s Triangle causes what symptom?

A

Palatal Myoclonus

156
Q

The Edinger Westphal nucleus is found in which 1/3 of the oculomotor nucleus? (rostral/middle/caudal)

A

Ans: Rostral Third

Rostra: EW, IR, SR
Middle: IR, SR
Caudal - All except EW

157
Q

Which nucleus is responsible for accommodation?

A

Perlia’s Nucleus

158
Q

Location:
Dorsomedial to the red nucleus
Rostral to CN III
Ventral to periaqueductal gray matter

Function:
Burst neurons that fire w/ vertical eye movements

A) Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal
B) Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of the MLF
C) Darkschewitsch’s Nucleus
D) Nucleus of the Posterior Commissure

A

B) Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of the MLF

159
Q

Location:
Dorsolateral to the somatic motor cell column (CN III)

Connection:
Nuclei of the posterior commissure

A) Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal
B) Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of the MLF
C) Darkschewitsch’s Nucleus
D) Nucleus of the Posterior Commissure

A

C) Darkschewitsch’s Nucleus

160
Q

Lcocation:
Rostral to EW nucleus
Caudal to RiMLF

Function:
Integration of vertical gaze
Eye-head coordination

A) Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal
B) Rostral Interstitial Nucleus of the MLF
C) Darkschewitsch’s Nucleus
D) Nucleus of the Posterior Commissure

A

A) Interstitial Nucleus of Cajal

161
Q

Light Reflex Pathway

A

Afferent:
Retina via optic tract -> pretectal area

Pretectal via p. commissure -> EW

Efferent:
EW via PS preG -> Orbit

Orbit -> Ciliary Ganglion

C. Ganglion via PostG short ciliary nerves -> Sphincter Pupillae, Ciliaris

162
Q

Accommodation-Convergence Reflex

A

Afferent:
Retina -> Occipital Cortex

Efferent:
Cortex -> pretectal n./superior colliculus -> Occulomotor cortex

163
Q

Argyll Robertson Pupil

A

Light reflex lost, accommodation-convergence reflex intact

164
Q

Adie’s pupil

A

Widely dilated pupil

Sluggish, prolonged pupillary contraction in reaction to light

Affected pupil larger than the normal pupil. In darkness, it may be smaller (normal pupil can dilate freely)

Shows more definite response to accommodation

Pathology in the ciliary ganglion (within the orbit). Redirection of regenerating parasympathetic fibers

165
Q

Marcus Gunn

A

Paradoxical dilatation of both pupils when light is on symptomatic eye

166
Q

Roles of posterior commissure (2)

A

vertical eye movements, lid movement

167
Q

What are the excitatory NTs used in

Corticothalamic & cerebellar terminals
Thalamocortical projection neurons

A

Glutamate

Aspartate

168
Q

Match

Medial Geniculate Nucleus, Lateral Geniculate Nucleus

Sublenticular / Retrolenticular

A

MGN - Sublenticular

LGN - Retrolenticular

169
Q

How are the motor fibers somatotopically arranged in the internal capsule?

Genu
Posterior Limb

A

Genu - corticobulbar

Posterior limb
anterior - upper ex
middle - trunk
posterior - lower ex

170
Q

Blood supply, thalamus:

Medial

a) PCA, paramedian
b) PCA, geniculothalamic
c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic
d) ICA, anterior choroidal

A

a) PCA, paramedian

171
Q

Blood supply, thalamus:

Lateral

a) PCA, paramedian
b) PCA, geniculothalamic
c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic
d) ICA, anterior choroidal

A

d) ICA, anterior choroidal

172
Q

Blood supply, thalamus:

Anterolateral

a) PCA, paramedian
b) PCA, geniculothalamic
c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic
d) ICA, anterior choroidal

A

c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic

173
Q

Blood supply, thalamus:

Posterolateral

a) PCA, paramedian
b) PCA, geniculothalamic
c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic
d) ICA, anterior choroidal

A

b) PCA, geniculothalamic

174
Q

Blood supply, thalamus:

Dejerine-Roussy Syndrome

a) PCA, paramedian
b) PCA, geniculothalamic
c) Pcomm, tuberothalamic
d) ICA, anterior choroidal

A

b) PCA, geniculothalamic

175
Q

Blood supply, internal capsule:

Genu
Posterior limb (bulk)
Posterior limb (caudal)
A
Genu - MCA, ICA
Posterior limb (bulk) - MCA
Posterior limb (caudal) - anterior choroidal
176
Q

Aching, burning pain is carried by __ fibers and terminates in the _____

A

C-fibers

Thalamus

ABCT

177
Q

Pricking, well localized pain is carried by __ fibers and terminates in the _____

A

A-fibers

Cortex

PLAC

178
Q

Tremorogenic center of the thalamus

A

Ventral Lateral Nucleus

179
Q

Which of these nuclei project to the anterior cingulate cortex?

a) VPL, VPM
b) Ventral Posterior Inferior
c) Dorsomedial

A

c) Dorsomedial

*

a) VPL, VPM - somatosensory c
b) Ventral Posterior Inferior - secondary ss c

180
Q

Match: Type of pain per area of the thalamus

a) VPL, VPM
b) VPI
c) Intralaminar, dorsomedial

  1. Nociceptive
  2. Tactile
  3. Central, affective motivational aspect
A

a) VPL, VPM - tactile
b) VPI - nociceptive
c) Intralaminar, dorsomedial - central, affective

181
Q

Match: Fields of Forel

Lenticular Fasciculus
Prerubral Field
Thalamic fasciculus

H field
H1 field
H2 field

A

Lenticular Fasciculus - H2

Prerubral Field - H

Thalamic fasciculus - H1

182
Q

Localization of the brainstem clumsy-hand dysarthria syndrome

A

Junction: upper 1/3 and lower 2/3 of PONS

183
Q

The two thalami are connected via

A

Interthalamic Adhesion aka

Massa Intermedia

184
Q

Habenular nuclei

Function?
Connection? Tract?

A

Emotion, behavior - limbic system

Efferent: Interpeduncular nucleus (midbrain)
via habenulo-interpeduncular tract or fasciculus retroflexus of Meynert

185
Q

When does the pineal gland calcify?

A

After the age of 16

186
Q

What are the functions of the pineal gland?

A

Gonadal (inhibitory)

  • pinealoma -> delayed puberty
  • destruction of p gland -> precocious puberty

Circadian rhythm
- synthesizes MELATONIN from SEROTONIN

187
Q

Anterior nuclear group of the thalamus is connected to (2)? Via?

A

Mamillary bodies, hypothalamus
- via mamillothalamic tract of Vicq d’Azyr

Cingulate gyrus
- via anterior limb, IC

188
Q

Damage to mamillothalamic tract impairs what kind of memory?

A

Episodic long-term memory

189
Q

Which nucleus of the dorsal subgroup acts functionally as a part of the anterior group?

a) Lateral posterior nucleus
b) Lateral dorsal nucleus
c) Pulvinar nucleus

A

b) Lateral dorsal nucleus

190
Q

The following are functions of the Pulvinar-Lateral Posterior Complex EXCEPT:

a) Relay station between subcortical visual centers & association centers
b) Selective visual attention
c) Pain mechanisms
d) Proprioceptive mechanisms

A

d) Proprioceptive mechanisms

191
Q

The deep cerebellar nuclei project exclusively to which thalamic nuclei?

A

Ventral Lateral Nuclei

192
Q

In the ventral posterior nucleus, the following parts receive fibers from?

a) VPM from ____
b) VPL from ___

A

VPM from Trigeminal lemniscus, taste fibers

VPL from Medial lemniscus, spinothalamic tracts

193
Q

Axons do not leave the thalamus in this particular thalamic nucleus

A

Reticular nuclei

194
Q

What composes:

Striatum
Corpus striatum
Lentiform nucleus

A

Striatum: Caudate + Putamen

Corpus striatum: Caudate + Putamen + GP

Lentiform: Putamen: GP

195
Q

What are the types of neostriatal neurons and what NT do they contain?

A

SPINY (majority)
GABA

ASPINY
Large: Cholinergic
Small: GABAergic

196
Q

Spiny projection neurons & the large cholinergic aspiny interneurons are lost in this condition

A

Huntington’s Chorea

197
Q

How does parkinsons affect the dopamine receptors?

A

D1 - reduced

D2 - increased

198
Q

What are the main NTs of the following?

Striatum
STN
GP

A

Striatum - GABA
STN - Glutamate
GP - GABA

199
Q

Match to their striatal territories:

Sensorimotor
Associative
Limbic

  1. Pre-commissured putamen, Caudate
  2. Post-commissural putamen
  3. N. accumbens
A

Sensorimotor: post-commissural putamen

Associative: precomm, caudate

Limbic: n. accumbens

200
Q

Principal mesencephalostriate projection originates from?

a) SN pars compacta
b) SN pars dorsalis
c) Ventral tegmental area of Tsai

A

a) SN pars compacta

201
Q

Dopamine receptors:

(+)/(-)?
Project to?
Contribute to w/c pathway?

D1
D2

A

D1 - (+), GPi, SNPr - DIRECT

D2- (-), GPe, INDIRECT

202
Q

What are the two routes of the Fields of Forel?

Also, name H, H1, H2 fields.

A

R1 (traverse IC)
Dorsal to STN = Lenticular Fasciculus, H2

R2 (around IC)
Ansa lenticularis

Both: combine to make prerubral field, H field

H field joins thalamic fasciculus = H1
---
H = Prerubral field
H1 = Thalamic Fasciculus
H2 = Lenticular Fasciculus
203
Q

Context encoder

a) Basal ganglia
b) Cerebellum

A

Basal ganglia

204
Q

Pattern generator and executor

a) Basal ganglia
b) Cerebellum

A

Cerebellum

205
Q

The artery of Heubner supplies which part of the basal ganglia?

A

aka Medial striate artery

Caudate Head, rostromedial

206
Q

Blood supply of the thalamus…

A

Rostrally: MCA, ACA (lateral and medial striate branches respectfully)

Caudally: ICA, anterior choroidal

207
Q
Blood supply: Caudate Tail, Caudal Putamen
Globus pallidus (majority of)
A

ICA, Anterior Choroidal

208
Q

Blood supply: Striatum

GP, lateral

A

MCA, Lateral striate

209
Q

The cerebellum develops from the?

A

Rhombic lip

210
Q

What are the deep cerebellar nuclei? (lateral to medial)

A

Dentate
Emboliform
Globose
Fastigial

211
Q

Functional divisions of the cerebellum?
Lobe-Phylogenic-Functional-Role

FLOCCULONODULAR

A

FLOCCULONODULAR

Archicerebellum

Vestibulocerebellum

Vestibular & Reticular Nuclei

Control of body equilibrium & eye movement

FAV!

212
Q

Functional divisions of the cerebellum?
Lobe-Phylogenic-Functional-Role

ANTERIOR

A

ANTERIOR

Paleocerebellum

Spinocerebellum

Spinal Cord

Muscle tone
Axial & limb movements

213
Q

Functional divisions of the cerebellum?
Lobe-Phylogenic-Functional-Role

POSTERIOR

A

POSTERIOR

Neocerebellum

Cerebrocerebellum

Cerebral Cortex

Planning, initiation, regulation of movements

214
Q

Which is the phylogenetically oldest lobe?

a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Flocculonodular

A

c) Flocculonodular - Archicerebellum

215
Q

What cells are found in the:

a. Molecular layer
b. Purkinje cell layer
c. Granule cell layer

A

a. Molecular layer - basket and stellate cells
b. Purkinje cell layer - purkinje cell
c. Granule cell layer - granule and golgi cells

216
Q

Principal neuron of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje cells

217
Q

What is the only cerebellar neuron that sends axons outside the cerebellum

A

Purkinje

218
Q

What is a cerebellar glomerulus?

A

Site of synaptic contact between incoming cerebellar fibers (mossy) and processes of neurons within the granule cell layer

219
Q

Where are the following cells found?

Basket cell
Stellate cell
Granule cell

A

Basket cell - molecular, deep

Stellate cell - molecular, superficial and deep

Granule cell - granule -> purkinje, molecular

220
Q

What type of cerebellar cell has dendrites and axons that contribute to cerebellar glomeruli?

A

Golgi Type II Cell

221
Q

What is the major component of the climbing fiber system?

A

Olivocerebellar tract

222
Q

The output of the deep cerebellar nuclei to extracerebellar targets is the product of

excitatory input from ____
inhibitory projections from ____

A

excitatory input from climbing and mossy fibers

inhibitory projections from Purkinje cells

223
Q

Inhibited rows, by silencing surrounding activity, help the process of _______ within the activated row of PC

A

Neural sharpening

224
Q

Basket & stellate excite/inhibit PC!

A

inhibit

225
Q

Which is the only EXCITATORY cell in the cerebellar cortex?

A

Granule cell

226
Q

Which cerebellar nuclei project to the thalamus?

a) Fastigial
b) Interposed (emboliform, globose)
c) Dentate
d) A&B
e) B&C
f) All of the above (a-c)

A

e) B&C

*
Interposed + Dentate -> thalamus

Fastigial -> vestibular, reticular n.

Interposed -> red nucleus, ION

227
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus resembles the inferior olive in configuration?

A

Dentate

228
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus is considered the β€œroof nucleus”?

A

Fastigial

229
Q

Which of the following does NOT travel via the superior cerebellar peduncle?

a) Dentate
b) Emboliform
c) Globose
d) Fastigial

A

d) Fastigial

230
Q

Excitatory or inhibitory output?

To the cerebellum:

a. Mossy & climbing fibers
b. Cerebellar cortex (purkinje)
- -
c. Output of deep cerebellar nuclei

A

INPUT (to the cerebellum)

a. Mossy & climbing fibers - EXCITATORY
b. Cerebellar cortex (purkinje) - INHIBITORY

–

OUTPUT
c. Output of deep cerebellar nuclei - EXCITATORY

231
Q

Match the NTs w/ the DCN:

GABA
Glutamate
Acetylcholine
Taurine
Glycine, enkephalin, somatostatin

a) Superficial stellate cells
b) Granule cells, climbing, mossy fibers
c) Granule cells, Golgi cells, mossy fibers
d) Purkinje, basket, Golgi
e) Golgi

A

GABA - d) Purkinje, basket, Golgi

Glutamate - b) Granule cells, climbing, mossy fibers

Acetylcholine - c) Granule cells, Golgi cells, mossy fibers

Taurine - a) Superficial stellate cells

Glycine, enkephalin, somatostatin - e) Golgi

IMPT:
Taurine: SCC
Glutamate: Climbing

232
Q

Stimulation of the following elicits what response in the Purkinje cell?

a) Mossy fiber system / Parallel Fibers (granule cells)
b) Climbing fiber system

A

a) Mossy fiber system / Parallel Fibers (granule cells) - SIMPLE spike
b) Climbing fiber system - COMPLEX spike

233
Q

What is the Holmes motor triad?

A

Asthenia
Ataxia
Atonia

234
Q

Which cerebellar nuclei are responsible for

a. Horizontal saccades
b. Vertical saccades

A

Horizontal - Fastigial

Vertical - Interpositus

235
Q

Which cerebellar nuclei are responsible for

a. Initiation of smooth pursuit
b. Maintenance of smooth pursuit

A

Initiation - fastigial

Maintenance - Floccu/paraflocculus

236
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus serves a modulatory role for emotional reactions

A

Fastigial

237
Q

What are the thickest and thinnest parts of the cortex?

A

Thickest: Primary motor area (4.5mm)

Thinnest: primary visual (1.5mm)

238
Q

90% of the cerebral cortex in humans is made up of

a) Isocortex
b) Allocortex
c) Mesocortex

A

a) Isocortex

239
Q

What are the largest principal neurons?

Where are these found?

A

Giant Pyramidal Cells of Betz (100um)

Layer V

240
Q

Only type of excitatory interneurons in the cortex

A

Stellate/Granule neurons

241
Q

Where are the following interneurons found?

a) Stellate/granule
b) Horizontal cells of Cajal
c) Cells of Martinotti

A

Layer I - Horizontal Cells of Cajal

Layer IV - Stellate / Granule Cells

Deeper cortical laminae: Cells of Martinotti

242
Q

What are the cytoarchitectonic names of the cortical layers?

A

I - Molecular
II - External granular
III - External pyramidal (stripes of Kaes-Bekhterev)
IV - Internal granular (Ext Baillarger/Stripe of Gennari)
V- Internal pyramidal (Int Baillarger
VI - Multiform

243
Q

Cell packing density lowest among cortical layers

A

Layer V

244
Q

What kind of monoaminergic cortical input contributes to the ff?

Higher-order information
State of arousal
Enhance selectivity of cortical responses

A

Noradrenergic input

245
Q

Cortical GABAergic input originates in the septal cells and _____

A

Diagonal Band of Broca

246
Q

Which of the following association fibers includes the arcuate fasciculus?

a) Cingulum
b) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
c) Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
d) Occipitofrontal

A

b) Superior longitudinal fasciculus

247
Q

Primary visual area

A

Calcarine gyrus (occipital lobe)

248
Q

Primary auditory area

A

Transverse Gyri of Heschl (temporal)

249
Q

Primary gustatory area

A

Postcentral gyrus (parietal)

250
Q

Primary olfactory area

A

Piriform, periamygdaloid regions (temporal)

251
Q

Primary vestibular area

A

Temporal

252
Q

Pseudothalamic pain syndrome localizes to which cortical area?

A

Secondary Somesthetic Area

253
Q

β€œWhere” and β€œwhat” pathways

___ stream
___ lobe

Clinical consequence?

A

WHERE
Dorsal stream
Parietal lobe
Balint-Holmes syndrome

WHAT
Ventral stream
Temporal lobe
Visual agnosia

254
Q

A lesion in this BA results in prosopagnosia

A

BA 37

255
Q

Cortical area that functions in the INITIATION of highly skilled fine movements

a) Primary motor area
b) Supplementary motor area
c) Premotor area

A

a) Primary motor area

256
Q

Crucial in the temporal organization of movement, especially
in sequential performance of multiple movements, and in
motor tasks that demand retrieval of motor memory.

a) Primary motor area
b) Supplementary motor area
c) Premotor area

A

b) Supplementary motor area

257
Q

Concerned with voluntary motor function dependent on sensory inputs (visual, auditory, somatosensory).

Stimulation causes stereotyped gross movement that requires coordination among many muscles, such as turning movements of the head, eyes, and trunk toward the opposite side, elevation of the arm, elbow flexion, and pronation of the hand.

a) Primary motor area
b) Supplementary motor area
c) Premotor area

A

c) Premotor area

258
Q

Cortical area responsible for reflexive, visually guided saccades

a) Frontal eye field
b) Supplementary eye field
c) Posterior parietal eye field

A

c) Posterior parietal eye field

259
Q

Cortical area responsible for intentional/voluntary saccades

a) Frontal eye field
b) Supplementary eye field
c) Posterior parietal eye field

A

a) Frontal eye field

260
Q

Cortical area responsible for spatiotopic saccades

a) Frontal eye field
b) Supplementary eye field
c) Posterior parietal eye field

A

b) Supplementary eye field

261
Q

The parallel fiber system originates from which cerebellar cells?

A

Granule Cells

262
Q

What is the CENTRAL ELEMENT of the cerebellar glomerulus?

A

Mossy fiber axon terminal

263
Q

Stimulates the largest number of cells to be activated by a single afferent fiber

a) Climbing fiber system
b) Mossy fiber system
c) Multilayered fiber system

A

b) Mossy fiber system

* They maintain constant background discharge*

264
Q

Which cerebellar cell uses Taurine as an NT?

Is Taurine excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Superficial Stellate Cells

Taurine: Inhibitory

265
Q

Serotonergic cortical input courses through which tract/bundle?

A

Medial Forebrain Bundle

266
Q

Which thalamic nucleus has reciprocal connections with the Cingulate Cortex?

A

Anterior Thalamic Nucleus

267
Q

Which thalamic nucleus has reciprocal connections with the Prefrontal Cortex?

A

Dorsomedial Thalamic Nucleus

268
Q

Striatal SPINY neurons contain which NTs?

A

GABA

Taurine

269
Q

Lesions in the DLPFC loop result in impairment of what kind of memory?

A

Spatial memory

270
Q

Lesions in the LATERAL orbitofrontal circuit result in?

A

Obsessive-Compulsive behavior

271
Q

What is the β€œhead ganglion” of the autonomic nervous system?

Adams

A

Hypothalamus

272
Q

Hypothalamic blood supply:

Anterior lobe
Posterior lobe

A

Anterior lobe
SUPERIOR hypophyseal artery (ICA)

Posterior lobe
INFERIOR hypophyseal artery (ICA)