Neuro Written Exam Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different ways seizures can be classified?

A
  • Partial/focal → affect a single area of the brain, can have secondary generalisation
    • simple partial: consciousness intact
    • complex partial: loss of consciousness
  • Generalised – diffuse activity across the entire brain
    • absence: sudden lapse in awareness
    • myoclonic: sudden single jerks of muscles
    • tonic-clonic: alternating stiffening and jerking
    • tonic: stiffening
    • atonic: “drop” seizures
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2
Q

What are the different medications that can be used to manage epilepsy? Describe their MOA and some side effects

A

General concepts for treatment:

  • most common first line drug is valproate except in women of childbearing age due to teratogenic effect, carbamazepine is often used instead
  • ethosuximide for absence seizures
  1. Blocking VGSCs
    1. reduces AP transmission
    2. Eg: Phenytoin (2nd line for adults & 1st line for kids), Na Val (1st line), Carbamazapine (if PREGGO, then can’t use Na Val. Also high s/e for skin rash & SJS)
  2. Blocking VGCCs
    1. inhibit neurotransmitter exocytosis
    2. Eg: Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Ethosuximide (absent seizure)
  3. GABA agonist
    1. Increasing GABAergic activity
    2. Eg: Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam), barbiturates
  4. GABA Transaminase Inhibitor
    1. Reducing breakdown of GABA
    2. eg valproate and vigabatrine

Side Effects ⇒

  • General (for all) →
    • CNS - dizziness, headache, blurred vision
    • GI - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weight gain
    • Motor - EPSE (reversible), ataxia
    • Allergy - SJS/anaphylaxis particularly for Lamotrigine & Carbamazapine
  • Specifics:
    • GABA inhibitor - respiratory depression
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3
Q

Describe the path CSF takes from the choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles to when it returns to the venous system

A
  1. CSF in lateral ventricles → third ventricle via interventricular foramen
  2. Third ventricle → fourth ventricle via cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
  3. fourth ventricle → cisterna magna (via median aperture (of Magendie) and cerebellopontine cisterns (two lateral apertures (of Luschka).
  4. some CSF flows through the obex and enters the central canal of the spinal cord
  5. CSF flows through the subarachnoid space of the brain and spinal cord
  6. CSF reabsorbed into the dural venous sinuses via arachnoid granulations
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4
Q

What are the causes of meningitis (include common pathogens)

A

meningitis = inflammation of the meninges

encephalitis = inflammation of brain parenchyma

Routes of transmission:

  • haematogenous
    • crossing blood-brain barrier = encephalitis
    • crossing blood-CSF barrier = meningitis
  • direct spread from adjacent sites such as the sinuses, mastoid, skull fractures
  • iatrogenic
  • neural spread of viruses

Pathogens

  • Bacteria:
    • Most common: Neisseria Meningitidis (causes meningococcal), S. Pneumoniae
    • Less common: H. Influenzae, Group B Stap
  • Virus: HSV, HIV, adenovirus, EBV

Staph & strep ⇒ gram positive

E.coli, the rest ⇒ gram neg

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5
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of meningitis

A

positive Kernig’s sign:

  • flex hip and knee 90°
  • extension of the knee should be difficult/painful

positive Brudzinski’s sign:

  • passive flexion of the neck results in flexion of the knee/hip

QUAD of Danger:

  1. Headache
  2. Photophobia
  3. Neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity)
  4. Non-blanching rash → belly
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6
Q

Fill out the following table below comparing bacterial and viral meningitis on lumbar puncture results

A
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7
Q

Describe the normal pathways involved in horizontal conjugate gaze (for example for a person looking to their right)

A

Normal conjugate gaze pathway

frontal eye field activated → decussates at pons → contralateral PPRF → CN VI (of the PPRF side) → abduction + MLF of the other side (the same side as the side where FEF got activated) → CN III of the FEF side → adduction of the other eye

  1. looking to the right
    * Left FEF → decussates at pons → R) PPRF → CN VI → R) eye abduction + activation of L) MLF → L) MLF activates L) CN III → L) eye adduction → conjugate gaze to the right
  2. looking to the left
    * Right FEF → decussates at pons → L) PPRF → L) CN VI → L) eye abduction + R) MLF activation → R) CN III → R) eye adduction → conjugate gaze to the left
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8
Q

What is the difference in presentation/location of the lesion between one and half syndrome and INO

A

INO

  • In INO, the lesion is on the MLF. Therefore, the ipsilateral MR does not contract -> can’t adduct.
  • It’s named ipsilaterally (Left MLF damage → Left INO → Left MR cant contract when looking to the right)
  • Good eye can abduct but with nystagmus.
  • Can be bilateral in MS

One and a half syndrome

  • In one and a half syndrome, the lesion PPRF & MLF of the same side -> ipsilateral gaze palsy -> defective ipsi adduction + normal contra abduction with ataxic nystagmus
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9
Q

Outline the steps in the pupillary light reflex

A
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10
Q

You shine a torch into the patient’s left eye: there is no direct or consensual response. When you shine the torch into the right eye, there is a direct and consensual response. Where is the lesion most likely?

A

Left optic nerve

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11
Q

Outline the visual pathway from the retina to the visual cortex, include the effects on vision of different lesions along the pathway (eg at the optic chiasm)

A

Light → photoreceptors → retinal ganglion → optic disc → optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → LGN (primary - standard vision) / superior colliculus (secondary pathway - rapid eye movement/reflex) / hypothalamus and brainstem (tertiary pathway - in circadian rhythm) → superior & inferior optic radiation → V1 → we process what we see

Eyeball defect:

  1. Central scotoma - damage to optic disc - blind in the central middle
  2. Mono-ocular blindness - dmg to optic nerve
  3. Bitemporal hemianopia - dmg to optic chiasm
  4. Homonymous hemianopia - dmg to optic tract
  5. Superior quadrant-anopia - dmg to inferior optic radiation (medial side)
  6. Inferior quadrant-anopia - dmg to superior optic radiation (lateral side)
  7. Homonymous hemianopia (radiation) - dmg to both superior + inferior optic radiation
  8. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing - V1 is damaged
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12
Q

Draw the following pathways and explain their function:

Corticospinal tract (lateral + anterior)

A

Corticospinal tract (lateral + anterior) - descending - for movement of axial & appendicular skeleton

carries motor signals from M1/SMA/PMA to LMNs in the spinal cord

  1. primary neuron is an UMN originating in the motor cortices
  2. travels down through internal capsule – genu and anterior portion of posterior limb (FAL)
  3. decussation of some fibres at the pyramidal decussation creates two pathways
  • lateral CST: 90% of fibres decussate in medulla and continue contralaterally in lateral SC. Distal or appendicular muscles
  • anterior CST: 10% of fibres remain ipsilateral and continue down in the anterior SC before later. Proximal or axial muscles decussating at the level they innervate via the ventral white commissure
  1. synapse onto secondary neuron which is LMN in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
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13
Q

Draw the following pathways and explain their function:

Corticobulbar tract

A

Corticobulbar tract - descending - head & neck innervation

carries motor signals from M1/SMA/PMA to LMNs in motor cranial nerve nuclei (5,7, 12, 11, NA(9,10))

  1. primary UMN from motor cortices travels down through genu of internal capsule
  2. synapse onto secondary LMN in motor cranial nerve nuclei, most of these nuclei are supplied bilaterally from the left/right CBT with two exceptions
  • facial: upper facial nuclei have bilateral innervation, lower nuclei contralateral only
  • hypoglossal: primarily contralateral innervation
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14
Q

Draw the following pathways and explain their function:

Dorsal column medial lemniscus

A

Dorsal column medial lemniscus - ascending - vibration, fine touch, proprioception

major sensory pathway for fine and discriminative = touch (meisnner’s), ruffini(vibration) and proprioception

  1. primary sensory neurons with cell bodies in dorsal root ganglia enter the spinal cord through the dorsal roots and form the ascending dorsal columns (gracile/cuneate fasciculi)
  2. synapse onto secondary neurons in dorsal column nuclei of medulla (cuneate and gracious nucleus)
  3. secondary neurons decussate as the internal arcuate fibres before travelling up to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus
  4. synapse onto tertiary neurons in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus which continue up to S1
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15
Q

Spinothalamic tract

A

Spinothalamic tract - ascending - pain & temp

Sensory pathway for pain and temperature

  1. primary sensory neurons with cell bodies in dorsal root ganglia enter spinal cord via dorsal roots and synapse in dorsal horn at same level (or slightly above/below via Lissauer’s tract). DRG enters the spinal cord in the rexed lamina area
  2. secondary neuron immediately decussates through ventral white commissure and ascends in the STT of the lateral funiculus
  3. synapse onto tertiary neuron in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus before continuing to S1

fibres within the STT also have a number of additional cortical connections

  • reticular formation – alertness due to pain
  • Midbrain/spinomesencephalic – periaqueductal grey for descending pain modulation
  • hypothalamus – SNS response to pain
  • limbic system – emotional response to pain
  • Spinotectal (sup colliculus - vision)
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16
Q

Explain the basic function of the following pathways:

Extrapyramidal tracts – reticulospinal, rubrospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal

A

vestibulospinal – vestibular nuclei project to spinal cord for balance/posture

o medial for bilateral head/neck control

o lateral for ipsilateral proximal muscles

· reticulospinal – two opposing pathways ipsilaterally control lower limb posture/walking

o pontine/medial activates extensors

o medullary/lateral inhibits extensors

· rubrospinal – from red nucleus, complementary pathway to CST with unclear role

· tectospinal – superior colliculus projects to SC to coordinate head/neck in visual reflexes

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17
Q

Spinocerebellar tract

A

unconscious proprioception involved in cerebellar function

  1. primary sensory neurons synapse in dorsal horn of spinal cord
  2. secondary neurons ascend to ipsilateral cerebellum via two pathways:
  • information from golgi tendon organs travel up ipsilaterally through dorsal SCT and inferior cerebellar peduncle. Clarke’s nucleus is c8-l2/l3 which is imp for Dorsal SCT.
  • information from muscle spindles decussates and ascends through the ventral SCT contralaterally before decussating again in the brainstem and entering the ipsilateral cerebellum via the superior peduncle

Extra -> cuneate SCT. Dorsal horn -> straight to medulla accessory cuneate nucleus -> 2nd order neuron -> through the inferior cerebellar peduncle -> cerebellum

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18
Q

Trigeminothalamic tract

A

sensory information from the face

  1. primary sensory neurons with cell bodies in trigeminal ganglia enter the brainstem and synapse in one of three sensory nuclei
  • mesencephalic (midbrain): proprioception
  • principal sensory nucleus (pons): fine touch
  • spinal trigeminal nucleus (medullar): pain and temperature
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19
Q

Explain the difference in presentation between Bell’s palsy and a stroke affecting the corticobulbar tract

A

Bell’s palsy - CN VII is affected - ipsilateral paralysis of the muscles innervated by CN VII and also:

  • Loss of taste on ipsilateral affected side
  • Dry mouth
  • Hyperacusis - due to stapedius muscle palsy (innervated by CN VII)

Corticobulbar tract - contralateral paralysis of the lower facial muscles because:

Upper facial nuclei - bilateral innervation

Lower facial nuclei - contralateral only

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20
Q

Draw the direct and indirect motor loops of the basal ganglia

A

basal ganglia play a key role in motor planning and modulation of movement, the initiation and termination of a movement program is determined by two parallel pathways which are activated/deactivated by neurotransmitters in the striatum acting on medium spiny neurons

  • direct pathway – initiates movement, increased dopamine from SNpc
  • indirect pathway – terminates movement, increased ACh from within striatum

DIRECT PATHWAY

activated due to dopamine from SNpc activating D1 neurons and inhibiting D2 neurons

  1. excitatory signals descends from motor cortex to D1 neurons
  2. D1 neurons inhibit the GPi/SNpr by releasing GABA
  3. reduces inhibition by the GPi/SNpr on the PPN and thalamus
  4. increased output from PPN (pedunculopontine nucleus) and thalamus resulting in greater SC output

INDIRECT PATHWAY

activated due to ACh from large aspiny striatal neurons activating D2 neurons via M1 receptors and inhibiting D1 neurons via M2 receptors

  1. excitatory signal descends from motor cortex to D2 neurons
  2. D2 neurons inhibit the GPe
  3. reduces inhibition by the GPe on the STN
  4. increased excitatory output from STN on the GPi/SNpr
  5. greater inhibition from GPi/SNpr on thalamus and PPN
  6. decreased output from PPN and thalamus results in diminished SC output
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21
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease.

A

Parkinson’s disease – unclear cause results in degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the SNpc leading to a shift towards ACh in the striatum and the indirect pathway

  • major clinical signs: bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor
  • pharmacological management delayed as much as possible, mainstay is levodopa + carbidopa to restore dopamine in the striatum while limiting peripheral excess

Huntington’s disease – neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects GABAergic neurons of the indirect pathway and cholinergic aspiny neurons of the striatum

  • occurs due to autosomal dominant mutation in the huntingtin protein resulting in CAG repeats that produce a polyglutamine tail in the dysfunctional gene product
  • clinical signs: chorea, decreased muscle tone
  • managed with antipsychotics, antidepressants, counselling/support
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22
Q

You see a patient in the ED who speaks to you in a monotonous voice and no emotions about recently seeing a UFO land in his backyard. He tells you that no one believes him and that they are here to take him back to the mother ship.

  1. What is the DSM V criteria for schizophrenia?
A
  1. You must have 2 out of the 5 s/s of schizo, and 1 of them must be positive symptoms
  2. All s/s must be persistent for at least 6 months with positive symptoms >1month
  3. Must have significant impact to ADLs (dysfunctional life)

Sign & Symptoms

  • Positive
    • Hallucination - auditory, visual, smell (unreal)
    • Delusion - false belief
    • Speech disturbances/ disorganization
    • Thought disturbances
  • Negative - 5A+C
    • Anhedonia
    • Alogia
    • Avolition
    • Asocia
    • Affect flat
    • Catatonia
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23
Q

What are 5 risk factors for a person developing Schizophrenia?

A

Modifiable - substance use/abuse

Non modifiable - genetics, FHx, obstetric complications, childhood trauma, paternal age, 2nd generation immigrant, urban upbringing

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24
Q

You see a patient in the ED who speaks to you in a monotonous voice and no emotions about recently seeing a UFO land in his backyard. He tells you that no one believes him and that they are here to take him back to the mother ship.

How would you treat this patient?

A
  1. MSE
  2. Investigations to rule out organic causes (bloods, xray, ctb, etc)
  3. Medical, family, psych history
  4. Modification of pre existing tx if any
  5. If new onset - ?start on antipsych to stabilise psychosis
  6. multiD approach with psych team
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25
Q

What are the components of an MSE?

A

ABS MAT PCI JR

Appearance

Behaviour

Speech

Mood

Affect

Thought form

Thought process

Perception

Cognition

Insight

Judgement

Risk assessment

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26
Q

What are 2 typical and 2 atypical antipsychotics? What are their mechanism of action?

A

Typical

  • 1st gen
  • D2 receptor antagonist - almost complete inhibition of D2 receptor
  • Eg: haloperidol, chlorpromazine

Atypical

  • 2nd gen
  • D2 receptor antagonist and serotonin receptor antagonist
  • Eg clozapine, olanzapine
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27
Q

What are 5 side effects of antipsychotics? What is the difference between the side effects of typical vs atypical?

A
  • Typical - drowsiness, EPSE (severe), anticholinergic s/e (dry mouth etc), gynecomastia
    • Dystonia
    • Parkinsonian
    • Akithisia
    • Tardive dyskinesia (irreversible)
  • Atypical - weight gain, metabolic syndrome, hyperglycemia
  • General - both has EPSE (less in atypical), both give you reduction in cognitive function (mesocortical), both blunt mood (mesolimbic), risk of gynecomastia (tuberoinfundibular)
  • Clozapine TRIAD - myocarditis, neutropenia, agranulocytosis
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28
Q

Brian Jones presents to the ED after a suspected stroke. On examination, his left eye is deviated down and out, his eyelid is slightly drooped and has paralysis of the right side of his body.

  1. Where do you suspect the lesion to be?
  2. What is the suspected artery involved?
A
  • L) midbrain in the medial section (Left CN III palsy)
  • PCA infarction ⇒ corticospinal tract (runs in medial section in midbrain) + CN III palsy
  • Weber’s syndrome
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29
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

Internal Carotid (ICA)

A
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30
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

ACA

A
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31
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

MCA

A
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32
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

PCA

A
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33
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

Lenticulostriate

A
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34
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

ACA-MCA Watershed

A
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35
Q

Cerebral circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

MCA-PCA Watershed

A
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36
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

PICA

A
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37
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

PCA

A
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38
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

Basilar Artery

A
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39
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

AICA

A
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40
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

Vertebral + Spinal Arteries

A
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41
Q

BRAINSTEM circulation supplies and findings if infarcted of:

Superior Cerebellar Artery

A
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42
Q

Label the CN nerves

A
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43
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents with a third nerve palsy. Complete the following table:

A
44
Q

Name the muscles of the eye

A
45
Q

Review the action of each of these muscles from the neutral position.

A

IO = up & out

SO = down & out

SR = up /elevate

LR = abduct

MR = adduct

IR = down

46
Q

Review the clinical testing used for the extra ocular eye muscles. Label the pictures below to indicate which extra ocular eye muscle would be isolated by each movement in both eyes for the H-test (i.e. not from neutral).

A

Follow the red arrows e.g. from eye pic middle left -→ SR would be needed to bring left eye up and IO will be needed to bring right eye up and a bit outwards

47
Q

An aneurysm can cause 3rd nerve palsy. Name TWO (2) potential arterial sites where an aneurysm could compress the third nerve.

A
  1. PCA
  2. Superior cerebellar
48
Q

Explain the difference in clinical presentation between Horner’s Syndrome and a third nerve palsy

A
49
Q

Give TWO (2) potential sites of injury in the nervous system that would result in Horner’s Syndrome

A
  • Pancost tumor compressing Stellate ganglion (T1-T4)
  • Lateral brainstem syndrome (descending SNS fibers came from hypothalamus)
50
Q

Review branches of external carotid

A

Seven Angry Ladies Fighting Over PMS

3 anterior, 1 medial, 2 posterior, 2 terminal

S - superior thyroid (anterior)

A - ascending pharyngeal (medial)

L - lingual (anterior)

F - facial (anterior)

O - occipital (posterior)

P - posterior auricular (posterior)

M - maxillary (terminal)

S - superficial temporal (terminal)

51
Q

Review branches of internal carotid

A
52
Q

Review Circle of Willis

A

It encircles/surrounds:

  • Optic Chiasm
  • Hypothalamus
  • Midbrain
  • Pituitary Gland
53
Q

Review anterior and posterior blood supply to cerebrum

A
54
Q

Compare and contrast the vascular territories of the four main sections of the MCA using the table below

A
55
Q

Merv, a 73-year-old man presents to ED with right-sided weakness in his arms and legs. He presents with a right lower facial droop and dysarthria. Merv shows no evidence of dysphagia or dysphasia. There is no evidence of any somatosensory deficit. A recent UOW MD graduate, who loved NS block and remembered all of its content, immediately recognises this as either a stroke or TIA involving the middle cerebral artery (MCA).

Which branch of the MCA is most likely to be involved in this patient?

A
  • right-sided weakness in his arms and legs - CST
  • right lower facial droop - CBT
  • Dysarthria - Nuc.Ambiguus (CBT)
  • no evidence of dysphagia or dysphasia - Not sup/inf divsion MCA
  • no evidence of any somatosensory deficit - Lenticulostriate –> MCA

⇒ it is lenticulostriate → because of the CST + CBT involvement with no evidence of higher order

56
Q

Explain the difference between dysarthria, dysphagia and dysphasia. Provide an example of a neurological lesion (location and cause) that may result in the presentation of each of these symptoms.

A
57
Q

Merv returns for a neurological consultation 3 months after the stroke occurred. Over the past few months, the muscles in his extremities on the right side of his body have increased in tone, particularly in the flexors of his fingers and plantar flexors at the ankle joint. He displays a Babinski’s sign in the right foot and right-sided ankle clonus.

Explain the mechanism underlying the increase in muscle tone and neurological signs that Merv is experiencing. Draw a picture if this aids in your explanation.

A

Hypertonia + R) foot positive babinski + R) ankle clonus ⇒ UMN L) side of brain

  • UMN symptoms ⇒ loss of descending modulation from the CST means that LMNs are hyperactive - creates increased muscle tone particularly in the flexors of the arms, and the antigravity muscles of the legs.
  • Clonus ⇒ increased LMN hyperactivity (both alpha and gamma motor neurons) means that with sustained stretch (clinician maintaining stress on joint), the sensory bag of the muscle spindle detects stretch and sends afferent to spinal cord → activates hyperactive alpha and gamma LMNs, creates contraction of muscle and resetting of muscle spindle. Cycle continues as there is no descending control from the CST to turn this reflex off.
58
Q

Draw out the lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts on the template provided. Note the origin of each pathway, their decussation point and the muscles of the body that they innervate

A
59
Q

A region of the temporal lobe has increased in size, compressing the surrounding structures.

Identify any closely associated nerves, brainstem regions and vessels to this affected region

A
  • Uncus (parahippocampal gyrus)
  • Nerve = CN III
  • Brainstem region = midbrain
  • Vessel = PCA, superior cerebellar, posterior communicating, basilar
60
Q

A region of the temporal lobe has increased in size, compressing the surrounding structures.

The pupillary light reflex was performed on this patient and the results are presented below.

  1. Which nerve has been affected in the patient? Explain the rationale behind your answer.
  2. What nerves are involved in the pupillary light reflex? Draw out the pathway and explain why a direct and consensual pupil constriction can be elicited when light is directed into only one eye.
A

L) CN III damage ⇒ you don’t have direct response on L) eye, and no consensual on L) eye when light shone on R) eye

Afferent ⇒ CN II

Efferent ⇒ CN III

Light → retinal ganglion → optic disc → CN II (afferent) → optic chiasm → MGN → optic radiation → V1 (pretectal area) → edinger westphal (bilat) → CN III → ciliary ganglion → sphincter pupillae → pupillary constriction

61
Q

A region of the temporal lobe has increased in size, compressing the surrounding structures.

This type of compression on the brainstem causes a rapid loss of consciousness. Review the anatomy of the brainstem and identify the regions that are the major ascending and descending pathways that travel within the brainstem. Which pathway is responsible for the maintenance of consciousness?

A
  • Midbrain - cerebral peduncles vs tegmentum vs tectum.
  • Pons - basilar part vs tegmentum
  • Medulla - pyramids vs tegmentum
  • Tegmentum contains

a) Neurotransmitter nuclei,
b) Ascending sensory pathways,
c) Cranial nerve nuclei and

d) Reticular formation (RAS)

e) Cerebellar white matter

62
Q

You are reviewing the case of Alfred, a 76-year-old man, who has recently passed away.

An MRI taken in his recent history reveals the following:

  1. In which vascular territory does this tumor reside?
  2. Imagine you are performing a neurological examination on a patient with this tumor. What would you test and what would you expect to see from the examination?
  3. What side of the body would you expect to see any movement disorder? Explain your answer
A

PICA is the vascular territory

Tests:

  • Gait - (heel to toe/figure of eight) - Ataxic
  • Coordination
    • Finger nose test - tremor on left side, past pointing/overshoot/undershoot
    • Dysdiadochokinesis
  • Balance problems
  • Posture problem - wide-based stance, unsteady on their feet with eyes open.

What side of the body would you expect to see any movement disorder? Explain your answer

  • Ipsilateral
  • Left – left cerebellum connects with left side of the body – info has to go to the right primary motor cortex, then the corticospinal tract connects with the left side of the body
63
Q

Briefly describe the general functions of each area (you don’t have to go into detail! Just demonstrate you understand the somatotopic arrangement of the cerebellum and understand the functions of the cerebellum).

A
64
Q

Review Cerebellum anatomy and revise the blood supply to the cerebellum

A
65
Q

Cytology reveals that the tumor in attached CT is the result of a metastasis. What is the most likely origin of this carcinoma? Where else might metastases be found?

A
  • Melanocytes – derived from neural crest cells (PNS), closely related to neural tissue
  • HER-2 positive breast cancers often metastasise to brain (pituitary)
  • Renal, GI and pelvic cancers often metastasise to the brain
  • This is a met melanoma: goes to liver, lungs, bone and brain (lung cancer was also reported MHx)
66
Q

The following images reveal the morphology of the tumor. Describe what you can see from these images and what these images might tell you about the origin of the tumor.

A
67
Q

The following images reveal the morphology of the tumor. Describe what you can see from these images and what these images might tell you about the origin of the tumor.

A
68
Q

The following images reveal the morphology of the tumor. Describe what you can see from these images and what these images might tell you about the origin of the tumor.

A
69
Q

Johnny was nauseous, vomited and reported having a headache. He subsequently lost consciousness.

Review the meninges of the CNS. How are the meningeal layers in the cranium different from the spinal cord?

A

Dura mater

  • Periosteal
  • Meningeal

(Subdural space)

Arachnoid mater → cling wrap. Shiny looking thing

(Sub arachnoid space) - highly vascular

Pia mater

Brain parenchyma

  • In cranium ⇒ has 2 layers of dura (periosteal & meningeal). Dural sinuses runs in between the periosteal & meningeal
  • Spinal cord = only meningeal layer
70
Q

Johnny was nauseous, vomited and reported having a headache. He subsequently lost consciousness.

  1. CT imaging was performed on Johnny. Based on his clinical presentation, which of the images below is most likely to represent the result observed for Johnny? Explain your reason by describing what you see in both images, with particular reference to the blood’s location with respect to the relevant meninges.
  2. Which type of vessel (arterial or venous) is likely to have been affected in Johnny’s case? Explain your answer based on Johnny’s clinical presentation. What vessels are associated with other meningeal bleeds?
A
71
Q

Johnny was nauseous, vomited and reported having a headache. He subsequently lost consciousness.

Name the vessel most likely implicated in Johnny’s intracranial bleed. Describe its point of origin and its anatomical course

A

Symptoms → epidural bleed = middle meningeal artery

AO → common carotid → internal carotid → maxillary artery → foramen spinosum → middle meningeal artery (and other branches supplying the dura)

72
Q

What structures pass through the cavernous sinuses?

A

Content of cavernous sinus:

  • CN 3, 4, V1, V2, 6
  • Internal carotid
73
Q
A

Whole L) face → LMN CN VII palsy (?bells)

74
Q

Review the FIVE (5) branches of Facial nerve

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Marginal mandibular
  5. Cervical
75
Q

How might you determine if other functions of the facial nerve have been affected?

A
  • Loss of taste to anterior 2/3rd of tongue
  • Hyperacusis (stapedius)
  • Reduced lacrimation
  • Reduced salivation
76
Q

A colleague (not from UOW) believes that this must be CNV palsy, as this nerve also supplies muscles of the face.

Review the branches of the trigeminal nerve

A
  1. Ophthalmic
  2. Maxillary
  3. Mandibular
77
Q

Explain the functions of the three branches of trigeminal nerve and compare/contrast these functions with those of the facial nerve.

A
78
Q

Review the corticobulbar tract

A
79
Q

Elise, a 24-year-old female has a six-month history of intermittent blurred vision in her left eye. She also reports having numbness down the left side of her body, which began two months ago. These symptoms worsen after exercise or a hot shower. Following a complete neurological examination, history taking and appropriate imaging/lab tests, Elise is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis.

  1. What has caused the blurred vision in Elise’s left eye? Explain the mechanism through which MS affects the optic nerve.
A
  • Demyelination of the optic nerve and/or local inflammation of the optic disc can cause blurred vision. Inflammation around the optic disc (optic neuritis) can cause a central scotoma
  • Optic nerve becomes demyelinated because of damage to the myelin/oligodendrocytes by MS pathogenesis - CN2 is of CNS origin, which is why it is susceptible to demyelination. Demyelination of the optic nerve and/or local inflammation of the optic disc can cause blurred vision.
80
Q

Draw the visual pathways from the retina to the primary visual cortex at the occipital lobe

A

Light → photoreceptors → retinal ganglion → optic disc → optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → LGN (primary - standard vision) / superior colliculus (secondary pathway - rapid eye movement/reflex) / hypothalamus and brainstem (tertiary pathway - in circadian rhythm) → superior & inferior optic radiation → V1 (post. commissure) → we process what we see

81
Q

Compare and contrast the clinical presentation of a lesion involving

i) optic nerve caused by MS,
ii) ischaemia of the optic tract.

A
82
Q

What is the location of the brain region responsible for horizontal conjugate gaze. What vascular territory does this region reside in?

A

FEF → superior branch of MCA

83
Q

Review the anatomical pathways involved in conjugate gaze and draw them below. Identify the nerves and revise their muscle innervation to enable conjugate gaze.

A

FEF → contralateral PPRF → interneuron to CN VI nucleus

  1. → MLF to contralateral CN III nucleus → medial rectus muscle of eyeball which is ipsilateral to FEF
  2. → CN VI nerve to Lateral rectus muscle of eyeball which is contralateral to FEF

NB: One and a half is damaged to PPRF + ipsilateral MLF to the PPRF and INO is damage to MLF only (can be unilateral or bilateral)

If i want to look to the right → activate L) FEF → decussates at PONS → R) PPRF → activated CN VI nuclei → R) eye looks right (LR activated) + activates contralateral MLF (left MLF) → L) CN III activated → L) MR muscle activated -> L) eye look right → conjugate gaze

84
Q
  • Elise presents with intermittent blurred vision in her left eye. She also reports having numbness down the left side of her body*
  • During the neurological examination, the doctor notes that as Elise looks to the left, her right eye remains in the neutral position. Similarly, when Elise looks to the right, her left eye remains in the neutral position.*
  • Which tracts have been affected to cause the gaze palsy described above? Is this damage bilateral or unilateral?*
A

Bilateral INO → bilateral damage of MLF → shown by palsy to bilat MR (bilat adduction failure)

Bilateral INO is a feature in MS

85
Q

Lola is a 67-year-old female, brought to ED following a motor vehicle accident. She was an unrestrained passenger in the vehicle during the head on collision and her head impacted the windshield. Neurological examination and investigations have determined that there has been a compression fracture resulting in both a paracentral and foraminal disc herniation.

  1. Draw a transverse plane cross-section of an intervertebral disc. Indicate the possible directions of disc herniations and the associated neural structures that would be affected.
A
86
Q

Describe the anatomical location of the nerve root relative to the vertebral body within the cervical and lumbar spines.

A
87
Q

Lola is a 67-year-old female, brought to ED following a motor vehicle accident. She was an unrestrained passenger in the vehicle during the head on collision and her head impacted the windshield. Neurological examination and investigations have determined that there has been a compression fracture resulting in both a paracentral and foraminal disc herniation.

Lola has Gr 1 power for shoulder abduction and Gr 3 elbow flexion. Ipsilateral Babinski’s signs are elicited. There is also inadequate respiratory effort, therefore she is placed on an artificial ventilator once stabilized.

  1. Identify the vertebral level where the compression has occurred (you can nominate two levels in your answer and be sure to include the IV disc level).
  2. Name the muscles involved in this assessment of this neurological upper limb presentation
  3. Review the CXR that was taken as part of the initial admission to hospital following the accident. What additional neurological injury is evident in the image?
  4. The patient returns for a follow up consultation 12 months following the accident. The doctor performs a neurological exam (power, sensation, reflexes). Name the four peripheral deep tendon reflexes within a neurological exam and name their spinal nerves involved in each reflex. State the expected outcomes of each reflex tested (i.e. a-reflexive, hypo or hyper-reflexive).
  5. The neurological exam finds that there is contralateral loss of nociception and temperature from the level of the injury and below. Which sensory pathway is affected?
A
  1. Identify the vertebral level where the compression has occurred (you can nominate two levels in your answer and be sure to include the IV disc level).

C4/C5 - shoulder abduction

  • Involving C4 vertebral column
    • C4 spinal nerve = above C4 bone, C5 nerve = below C4 bone
    • Affecting spinal nerve C4-C5 & spinal cord at level of C4 vertebral body
  1. Name the muscles involved in this assessment of this neurological upper limb presentation
  • C4 → traps & levator scap
  • C5 → delt, Biceps brachii (musculocutaneous innervation → C5,6,7)
  1. Review the CXR that was taken as part of the initial admission to hospital following the accident. What additional neurological injury is evident in the image?

R) hemidiaphragm far lower → failure of respiratory effort → ?R) phrenic injury

The patient returns for a follow up consultation 12 months following the accident. The doctor performs a neurological exam (power, sensation, reflexes). Name the four peripheral deep tendon reflexes within a neurological exam and name their spinal nerves involved in each reflex. State the expected outcomes of each reflex tested (i.e. a-reflexive, hypo or hyper-reflexive).

UMN lesion C4

  • S1 & 2 → achilles tendon → gastroc/soleus → hyperreflexive (UMN)
  • L3 & 4 → patella tendon → quads → hyperreflexive (UMN)
  • C 5,6 → Biceps tendon → hyporeflexive (LMN at C4-5 injury)
  • C 7,8 → triceps tendon → hyperreflexive (UMN)

1,2 kick off your shoes → moving ankle → achilles

3,4 kick the ball → move knee → patella

5,6, pick up the stick → move forearm → biceps

7,8 shut the gate → external to internal rotation → triceps

  1. Which sensory pathway is affected?

Nociception & temp → STT (spinothal) → anterolateral

88
Q

Review sensory pathways

A
89
Q

Alex, a 50-year-old man, presents to the doctor with a friend who is concerned by his erratic behaviour. Alex’s friend notes that his personality seems to have changed over the past 9 months, and he has seemed to be very fidgety for a number of years, almost like he can’t sit still. In the past few weeks, there have been abrupt jerky movements that seem to affect his entire body.

  1. Compare and contrast the clinical presentation of Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease. Which of these neurodegenerative disorders is Alex likely to be suffering from?
A
90
Q

Review the anatomical structures that make up the basal ganglia. Using the coronal brain slice figure provided, map out the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia.

A

Basal ganglia → subcortical nuclei responsible for motor control, motor learning, executive functions, behaviour, emotions.

Basal ganglia structures:

  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
  • Gpe & GPi
  • Substantia nigra
  • Subthalamic nucleus

Direct & Indirect pathway …..

Direct Pathway:

  • SNpc produces Dopamine → activates D1 in striatum → causes production of GABA which inhibits GPi/SNr.
  • GPi/SNr are inhibited from producing GABA so less inhibition of thalamus
  • Reduced inhibition of thalamus = increased activity of thalamus to stimulate the motor cortex = movement

Indirect Pathway:

  • ACH → increase in indirect pathway
  • SNpc produces dopamine → binds to D2 receptor on Striatum and stimulates production of GABA which inhibits GPe
  • Inhibition of GPe → reduced production of GABA to inhibit STN
  • Reduced STN inhibition = increased production of glutamate by STN
  • Increased glutamate by STN stimulates the GPi/SNr to produce +++ GABA that inhibits thalamus and subsequent stimulation of the motor movement → stops/slows movement
91
Q

Identify the nuclei/neurons that degenerate in Huntington’s disease and explain how these cellular losses result in the clinical presentation.

A

Huntington’s → affects striatum → caudate nucleus + putamen (GPi+GPe)

  • No caudate nucleus
  • No GPi → less GABA produced → more movement → chorea
  • No GPe → subthalamic nucleus receives a lot of inhibition by the initial indirect pathway → STN cannot produce glutamate & cannot stimulate SNr+GPi to produce GABA → there’s less GABA → thalamus no longer inhibited → increased movement → chorea

Jess’s ans (she said need more detail)

  • Loss of D2 striatal neurons (part of the indirect pathway) and the aspiny cholinergic neurons in the striatum.
  • Lose the ability to use the indirect pathway to reduce movement,
  • Lose the ability of the cholinergic neurons to dampen the effects of the direct pathway
92
Q

Review the structural relationship between nuclei of the basal ganglia, the internal capsule, the thalamus and the limbic system

A
93
Q

Lola is a 67-year-old female, brought to ED following a motor vehicle accident. She was an unrestrained passenger in the vehicle during the head on collision and her head impacted the windshield. Neurological examination and investigations have determined that there has been a compression fracture resulting in both a paracentral and foraminal disc herniation.

Describe the clinical presentation of the spinal cord and/or peripheral nerve injury that would result from this trauma.

A

both a paracentral and foraminal disc herniation → direct n.pulposus leak to posterior segment of SC involving IVF ⇒ both central (same level of vert.column) & periprh (affect spinal nerve from the level above)

  • Potential for both and both need to be assesses
    • Paracentral– lose spinal nerve at affected area and cord tissue at that level
    • foraminal disc herniation – spinal nerve
  • Affected tracts – lose motor (CST) at and below the lesion
  • UMN below the level → will shown hyper-reflexia etc (UMN clinical signs, babinski, disuse atrophy)
  • LMN at the level (hypotonia, hyporeflexia)
    • Because of injury at the SC level → impulse cant get through → LMN injury → eventually muscle atrophy (wasting atrophy)
    • Will show LMN clinical signs (hyporeflex, hypotonia, fasciculation etc)

Q to jess ⇒

  • If CST is damaged at level of lesion & below, why not sensory (DCML/STT)??
94
Q

Lisa is a 29-year-old woman who has recently started a new job in a research facility. After 5 months she began to lose interest in her job, and was unable to achieve simple daily tasks as she would often stare out the window, feel overwhelmingly sad and cry. Lisa is having trouble sleeping, having difficulty concentrating and she describes her head as feeling “foggy” all the time. She also describes hearing a voice in her head that criticises her.

a) Explain the key differences between mood and psychotic disorders and give one example of each. (2 marks)

A

Key differences: The primary feature of a Mood disorder is profound alteration in mood In psychotic disorders the core characteristic is
greatly impaired reality testing abilities, thought disorder, perceptual abnormalities, delusions are characteristic symptoms.

Example Mood disorder: depression or bipolar disorder, dysthymia

Example Psychotic disorder: Schizophrenia, delirium, delusional disorder.

95
Q

Lisa is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and is recommended to undertake cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).

b) Name two key neurotransmitter systems that are affected in major depressive disorder and the brainstem nucleus that each is released from. (2 marks)

A

5-HT: raphe nucleus
NA: locus coeruleus
DA: VTA.

96
Q

c) Describe the role of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis in a normal physiological state and explain how stress may lead to HPA axis dysfunction causing major depressive disorder. Include in your answer the interplay between the HPA axis and the hippocampus. (6 marks)

A
97
Q

d) Explain how major depressive disorder can increase a patient’s risk of developing cardiovascular disease. (5 marks)

A

1, Hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release excessive ACTH, continuously driving the adrenal gland.

  1. The adrenal gland releases excessive amounts of catecholamines and cortisol
  2. Increase in catecholamines can increase heart rate and lead to myocardial ischemia, diminished heart rate variability, and can contribute to ventricular arrhythmias.
  3. Increase in catecholamines causes platelet activation; increase in cytokines and interleukins may also contribute to atherosclerosis and eventual hypertension.
  4. Cortisol antagonises insulin and contributes to dyslipidemia, type 2 diabetes, and obesity; increases in cortisol also suppress the immune system.
98
Q

Explain key assumptions and treatment components of CBT for major depressive disorder. (5 marks

A

Assumptions:
it is not just events but our interpretation of them that affects us.
Mood disorders are accompanied by systematic distortions in thinking (cognitive distortions)
Our thoughts, feelings and behaviour influence each other

Components:
cognitive restructuring- challenging negative beliefs, monitoring of thoughts, feelings, behaviours and their relationships.
Activity scheduling- planning exercise and pleasant activities into the week
Behavioural experiments- to disprove negative predictions

99
Q

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

a) Determine the spinal levels affected in Ron from the symptoms listed above and describe how you determined this. (2 marks)
b) How would injury to these spinal levels impact on Ron’s respiratory function? Explain your answer. (3 marks)

A

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

a) Determine the spinal levels affected in Ron from the symptoms listed above and describe how you determined this. (2 marks)

All cervical spinal levels (including T1): C1/2 to T1.

The loss of sensation in the neck indicate the C1-C4 damage and the arms are supplied from C5-T1.

b) How would injury to these spinal levels impact on Ron’s respiratory function? Explain your answer. (3 marks)

Difficulty breathing from weakness to the diaphragm (1 mark) which is supplied by the phrenic nerve (1 mark), arising from C3-5 (1 mark).

100
Q

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

c) Explain the underlying grey or white matter structures that have been injured in Ron to cause the clinical symptoms noted above. (5 marks)

A
  • Bilateral weakness comes from damage to the ventral horn (1 mark) (and anterior corticospinal tract where it crosses at the ventral white commissure) of spinal levels C1-T1.
  • The flaccid paralysis also indicates damage to the lower motor neurons (1.5 marks).
  • Bilateral loss of pain and temperature is caused by damage to the secondary sensory neurons as they are decussating through the ventral white commissure (1 mark).
  • It is only affecting the spinal levels listed above because there is (at the moment) preservation of the actual Spinothalamic tract, at the moment the damage is only occurring to the fibres that are coming in at each spinal level and attempting to decussate (1.5 marks).

Extra notes: The loss of STT fibres through the ventral white commissure presents in a ‘cape-like’ fashion in the cervical regions. This type of lesion (central cord syndrome) is the most common of all spinal cord injuries and most commonly occurs in the cervical spinal cord.

** Don’t need to put this in your answer, but: Note that the anterior corticoticospinal tract would also be affected as it decussates through the ventral white commissure at each level as it goes to synapse on a lower motor neuron. However as there is also damage to the ventral horn (ie lower motor neurons), there wouldn’t be any “upper motor neuron” symptoms in this case. Upper motor neuron symptoms would only be present if there was damage to the upper motor neurons with preservation of the lower motor neurons. However in this case we have both, but the loss of connection between the muscles and the spinal cord will obviously prevent any spasticity.

101
Q

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

Imaging reveals that Ron’s symptoms are of an ischaemic origin.

d) Explain the cellular mechanisms leading to neuronal tissue necrosis from ischaemia. (4 marks)

A

Increased levels of glutamate in ischaemic tissues, increased activation of NMDA receptors.

This causes an influx of calcium into cells, and much of the calcium is sequestered in mitochondria rather than in the cytoplasm.

Increased cytoplasmic calcium causes metabolic dysfunction and free radical generation; activates protein kinases, phospholipases, nitric oxide synthase, proteases, and endonucleases; and inhibits protein synthesis, causes DNA damage via free radicals.

Activation of nitric oxide synthase generates nitric oxide (NO), which can react with superoxide (O2) to generate other peroxide derivatives.

102
Q

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

Upon further examination, you note that Ron’s eyelids are drooping slightly. Despite it being 35°C outside, Ron is not sweating even though he explains that his face feels very hot.

e) Name the fibres (including their origin and termination) that may be affected resulting in Ron’s most recently presenting symptoms. (2 marks)

A

Descending sympathetic fibres (1 mark) coming from the hypothalamus (1/2 mark) to synapse at the lateral horn from T1-L2 (1/2 mark).

103
Q

Ron, a 77-year-old man, presents with bilateral flaccid paralysis of his neck, upper chest and arms, and a loss of pain and temperature sensation across his neck, upper chest and down both arms.

f) Ron is also experiencing neurogenic urge incontinence as a result of his spinal cord injury. Describe the roles of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems in the micturition reflex. (4 marks)

A

SNS - B-adrenoreceptor activation of the detrusor muscle causes relaxation. A-adrenoreceptor activation causes contraction of the internal urethral sphincter = aiding filling of the bladder.

SNS also inhibits post-ganglionic PNS neuron going to the detrusor muscle to reinforce the relaxation of the muscle whilst filling.

PNS - Ach released onto muscarinic receptors to cause detrusor muscle contraction = bladder voiding.

104
Q

Ischemic Stroke Vs Hemorrhagic Stroke

A
105
Q

Damage to prefrontal cortex, list 4 clinical presentations from damage here?

A
  • behavioural changes - inability to control impulse
  • poor long term planning
  • poor memory formation
  • mood changes
  • personality changes (aggressive etc)
  • reduction in cognition
  • lack of motivation